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4:00 PM
@BernardoMeurer I don't understand.
 
@JaimeGallego I have your phone number now, lol
 
867-5309, sister's name is Jenny
 
And I have your address
 
"867-5309/Jenny" is a 1981 song written by Alex Call and Jim Keller and performed by Tommy Tutone that was released on the album Tommy Tutone 2, on the Columbia Records label. It peaked at #4 on the Billboard Hot 100 chart and #16 on the Billboard Top Tracks chart in May 1982 (see 1982 in music). The song caused a fad of people dialing 867-5309 and asking for "Jenny". == Creation == Lead guitarist Jim Keller, interviewed by People in 1982, said "Jenny is a regular girl, not a hooker. Friends of mine wrote her name and number on a men's room wall at a bar. I called her on a dare, and we dated for...
Then come here and we may have some tea
 
meh i have work to do. prob better then being in this chat
 
4:03 PM
You have an iPhone?
 
Wtf is going on
No, I don't
 
I am trying to find out your sister's age
Because I'm bored
 
Hmm, I wonder how much does a hamster cost
 
user228700
@JohnRennie What, erm, what?
 
4:07 PM
@BernardoMeurer Not much if you buy in bulk, which you have to because there isn't much meat on a single hamster.
 
user228700
Jesus Christ, why?
 
I wonder how hamster tastes
Can you grill'em?
 
@Kaumudi.H It was referenced in an article on string theory that I was reading.
 
yes
0
Q: Mathematica stuck in "running" for every calculation I attempt, kernel error

0celouvskyopoulo7I downloaded Mathematica this morning to do an implicit polar plot. I attempt to run the code Manipulate[ ContourPlot[ Evaluate@With[{r = Sqrt[x^2 + y^2], \[Theta] = ArcTan[x, y]}, {r Cos[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)] - Exp[1/(r^2 Sin[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)]^2- 1)] == 0, r^2 == 1}], {x, -2, 2}...

I will sell my soul for upvotes, holy crap people
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Yes, but hamsters?! :'-( Poor hamsters.
 
4:09 PM
I'm sure no-one is really planning to microwave hamsters.
 
user228700
Ah, that's a relief. One can never be too sure these days...
 
I will do it if it fixes my issue
 
However guinea pigs are eaten in Latin America, and I know this for certain because my mother ate some when she was there.
 
user228700
:'-(
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 Give me Shankar
I upvoted
 
4:10 PM
They are cooked like a spatchcock chicken.
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Please stop :'-(
 
Noted.
 
@BernardoMeurer you have to come to knoxville I'm afraid
 
Tsc
I'm downvoting
 
4:11 PM
@Kaumudi.H Keep in mind that guinea pig were kept as meat animals.
It make sense for subsistence agriculturalists to have low cost livestock.
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Oh, I wasn't being too serious or anything.
 
As David says, they are kept like livestock. It's not a case of people eating the family pets.
 
user228700
Ah...
 
In Eurasia the chicken filled that role.
 
In fact they occupy a similar niche to regular pigs i.e. they run around and eat scraps and grow quickly. So they don't need much attention.
Just like chickens, as David says.
 
4:14 PM
@BernardoMeurer I somehow wrote code that completely breaks Mathematica so badly one has to reinstall.
 
Let me try it on my installation ...
 
I'm proud
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Hmm, I see.
 
@JohnRennie First try:
Manipulate[
ContourPlot[
Evaluate@With[{r = Sqrt[x^2 + y^2], \[Theta] = ArcTan[x, y]},
{r Cos[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)] - Exp[1/(r^2 Sin[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)]^2- 1)] == 0,
r^2 == 1}], {x, -2, 2}, {y, -2, 2}],
{chi, 0, Pi/4}]
 
4:15 PM
Hey, it's started hailing in Chester. It's supposed to be spring!!!
 
Then try:
Manipulate[
ContourPlot[
Evaluate@With[{r = Sqrt[x^2 + y^2], \[Theta] = ArcTan[x, y]},
{r Cos[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)] - Exp[1/(r^2 Sin[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)]^2- 1)] == 0,
r^2 == 1},y==Tan(chi) x], {x, -2, 2}, {y, -2, 2}],
{chi, 0, Pi/4}]
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Ah, hail. Wonder what that's like...
 
@Kaumudi.H It sucks
 
Who is raising spurious flags?
Bernardo and Jaime are friends
 
4:18 PM
@JohnRennie Yep
Next one?
 
There is no stalking going on here.
I get an error on the next one. Possibly because I'm using MM 10 not 11.
@Kaumudi.H hail hurts if you're caught out in it. It makes your ears sting!
 
user228700
Ears sting? That's weird.
 
Hailstones are hard and cold and moving fast. If they hit your ears they sting!
 
@JohnRennie if you open a new notebook does it still work?
 
@JohnRennie and if they're big enough they can give you a massive headache and concussions
 
4:22 PM
@0celouvskyopoulo7 I'll try now.
 
I mean it's pretty rare for them to be that big, but yeah
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Haha, that I understand.
 
I think in the US hailstones can get very big. In the UK large hailstones are exceedingly rare.
 
@JohnRennie Someone wrote an answer on my question
It's not an answer
 
4:23 PM
Now where's that Mathematica code ...
 
it's a sign of solidarity
 
@BernardoMeurer please stop telling me to go away. It's not funny.
 
@BernardoMeurer Can you take a look at that LaTeX?
 
@JaimeGallego Which LaTeX?
 
1 message moved to Trash
 
4:24 PM
@BernardoMeurer ...or anything to the same effect. Please be respectful.
 
@BernardoMeurer dangerous ground ...
 
@BernardoMeurer you can't tell people to leave the chat
 
and doing that will not only incite ONE moderator's wrath, but several
so let's keep to the SE chat global rule of "Be Nice"
 
@JohnRennie Why not?
 
Everyone has equal right to use a chatroom.
 
@ThomasWard I don't give a damn who's wrath I incite
Aint your job to be wrathful
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 the first code still works fine. The second generates an error so I can't test it.
 
@ArtOfCode Sure, I'm not making you leave
I'm not infringing on your right, I'm just respectfully voicing my opinion
 
@BernardoMeurer it's not your chatroom. And even it it was you still can't tell people to leave.
 
4:27 PM
@BernardoMeurer telling people to go away isn't Nice. That's what I'm trying to say. If you don't like me, feel free to use the ignore button on my user card.
 
Let's all be nice, now. No need to form opinions into the shape of "order"-like sentences.
 
Relevant:
477
Q: The NEW new "Be Nice" Policy ("Code of Conduct") — Updated with your feedback

JaydlesUpdate: Thanks for all the additional feedback below. We incorporated a lot of your suggestions, and this is going live (as https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/be-nice). We're also looking at ways to get this in front of more new users when they sign up, to help them start off on the right foo...

 
@JohnRennie ::grunts::
@ArtOfCode Yeah yeah whatever
 
@BernardoMeurer there are no shortage of people who I wouldn't mind if they enjoyed an appointment with the now legendary red hot knitting needle. But I keep these views to myself.
 
4:29 PM
we have red hot knitting needles now? I thought it was a kitchen knife...
 
@JohnRennie Why'd you gotta burn people? Just beat them up
 
or a nickel ball
 
@ArtOfCode was it a kitchen knife or a high powered laser?
 
@ArtOfCode it was a joke from a student magazine in about 1979 ...
 
@JohnRennie do you remember the swirly coffee thing you posted about a week or so ago ? You then gave instructions on how to recreate such swirlishness. Could you repost the instructions ? It's an awful long scroll up.
 
4:30 PM
@ThomasWard search red hot knife or red hot nickel ball
 
Maybe two weeks
 
@HsMjstyMstdn You can search the chat history. Top right corner
 
Oh okay, thanks
 
@JohnRennie well, you're not wrong.
 
@JohnRennie lol
 
4:31 PM
It ... kind of makes me laugh at the outrageousness of it :-)
NO DON'T STAR THAT - I'LL GET BANNED!!!!
9
 
user228700
@JohnRennie You've referenced this a lot over the years!: -)
 
@JohnRennie fzzt Huh, i guess there are uses for industrial laser technology here in chat. :)
 
stars everything
 
@HsMjstyMstdn it's really easy. Put milk in the mug and heat in the microwave until it's nearly but not quite boiling. Sprinkle on instant coffee and it should spread out and form a film on top of the milk. Pour on boiling water. It will froth up and form that swirly pattern.
 
4:34 PM
@JohnRennie thanks, but I don't have instant coffee... trying to recreate with cocoa powder
 
Do you expect me to use -+++
No I expect you to die Mr @AccidentalFourierTransform
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Ohhh, you do it with a microwave!
 
@Kaumudi.H because I can't be bothered to clean a pan. It will work just as well if you heat the milk in a pan.
 
user228700
Yep, I can confirm that.
 
I need motivational help to crack open this philosophy book
 
4:38 PM
you can do eet
 
Oh well, time to relax into my armchair and read this week's New Scientist.
 
5:01 PM
So apparently
The theorem that links Grassman bundles to the euler number isn't directly related to vector fields
It's yet another theorem
Although the proof in Steenrod seems to only be done for the sphere
"If $2k \leq n$, then $S^n$ admits a continuous field of tangent k-planes if and only if it admits a continuous k-field"
 
In trying to answer this question, I've confused the hell out of myself, guys.

If we have two events which are spacelike separated, then an observer in a reference frame moving w.r.t. the rest frame should **still** measure the distance between those events as smaller than their distance measured from within the rest frame, right?
That is, length contraction should still apply, shouldn't it?
And if yes (I'm pretty sure yes), then I apparently have no idea what the spacetime interval is: s^2 = - cdt^2 + dx^2
 
I'm still not sure why a section of the Grassman bundle of lines is equivalent to $\chi = 0$
 
because i would think that the spacelike interval between the two events is s^2 = dx^2
and since it's invariant, the spacelike interval between the two events from the moving reference frame is s^2 = dx'^2 - cdt'^2
but that means dx'^2 = dx^2 + cdt'^2
which is like... length... dilation :l
 
5:21 PM
halp
 
5:37 PM
@Slereah ...
Working on it
 
something seems slightly off
 
Boom.
Penrose was right.
 
Seems like it
but now, how to prove it
 
Manipulate[
ContourPlot[{Evaluate@
With[{r = Sqrt[x^2 + y^2], \[Theta] =
ArcTan[x, y]}, {r Cos[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)] -
Exp[1/(r^2 Sin[Pi \[Theta]/(Pi - 2 chi)]^2 - 1)] == 0,
r^2 == 1}], x == Tan[chi]* y, x == -Tan[chi]*y}, {x, -1.5,
1.5}, {y, -1.5, 1.5}], {chi, 0, Pi/4}]
@JohnRennie My working code ^
It's the best GR code
 
I guess it should be doable the same way as the bump function, maybe
 
5:40 PM
Anyone have any idea? I feel like it's a quick misunderstanding, but I"ve been struggling with it for over an hour and have no clue what's going on
 
@Slereah Hmm, do you see those bits on the other side there?
I wonder if those are the weird angles we were getting
It seems Penrose was right with his angles?
 
I do not know
 
0
Q: Resubmitting question

SRawesIf my question was marked as unclear and I have reworked it what needs to be done to either: Get it approved Or Resubmit it.

 
@Slereah I made a discovery though
One wants $x=\tan(\chi)y$, not the other way around
that means the angle $\chi$ is to the $y$-axis
But the polars are measured wrt. the $x$-axis
 
Well yes
It's the angle from the time axis
That way its range spans all causal vectors
 
5:47 PM
So if you know all of this then why have you been encouraging my wrong thoughts?
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 Did you make Mathematica work?
 
Yeah, I actually made a really good plot.
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 To take over the world?
 
It describes the smoothing at a corner between two timelike geodesics
 
I'll show you the smoothening of my corners
 
5:49 PM
...why?
 
@Slereah Dude
 
wot
 
$\theta_c=\pi/2-\chi$
That's the intersection in polar coordinates
 
5:51 PM
Hm, what does that give
 
But $\alpha(R=1)=\pi/4$ so $$\frac{\theta\pi}{\pi-2\chi}=\frac{\pi}{4}\implies \theta=\pi/2-\chi$$
That's exactly right.
So the curve does indeed connect the two endpoints.
 
Well that is good
 
Now to prove it is smooth...
 
I think the derivative in $R$ should be easy enough to do
First derivative will just be $\cos \alpha = - 2 R \sec \alpha \exp ...$, which is also 0
And then higher ones are just powers of $\sec \alpha$ and zero on the LHS
 
Wait what are you doing
 
5:56 PM
Well the tangent vector is $(\partial_R f, \partial_\theta f)$, with $f = R\cos \alpha - \exp (-R^2 \sec^2 \alpha)$
Wait, should it be $0$ for $R$
I'm pretty sure it will be for $\theta$
 
It should be zero for $\theta$ because its transitioning to a line...
But I don't know what the polar equation for a line through the origin is
You might have issues computing the derivative
 
I think it might just be $1$ here
 
How do you plan to check if it's timelike lol
it's clear from the picture
 
i guess compute the tangent and find its norm?
 
Christ....
 
6:02 PM
Well
i don't need its norm
Just a bound on it
Showing that it's $<0$ should be doable
 
@AmagicalFishy the problem is that for the moving observer one event is rotated into the future while the other is rotated into the past. While the length is indeed contracted it turns out to be surprisingly complicated to explain why.
For a detailed, and necessarily somewhat tedious explanation of exactly what happens see this answer of mine:
2
A: "Reality" of length contraction in SR

John RennieLorentz contraction is easy to understand once you realise that it is not a contraction at all. Instead it is a rotation and the length of the object, or more precisely its proper length, doesn't change at all. To see this take the usual example of a rod of length $2a$ aligned along the $x$ axis...

 
@Slereah There's something we don't understand about that $\pi/(\pi-2\chi)$...
It somehow folds up the bump function
 
it's a scaling yeah
 
Guys, is the choice of the author to pick this "negative" (downward) direction for $da_2$ arbitrary?
Or is it "normal" to do this? as in, is this convention?
In the case of the sphere, I can see that our perpendicular unit vector has to be $\hat r$. However, in the case of the $xy$ plane, I'm wondering if there is some "right-hand" rule (or something like that) which explains the direction of $da_2$
 
@Slereah eh, not really a scaling
@ShaVuklia no
 
6:10 PM
Instead of the "line" of the bump function having angle $\pi$, it's mapped to an angle of $\pi - 2\chi$
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 so it's arbitrary?
 
I'm just saying no to you
 
oh.. you mean i can't ask questions?
 
not until I understand this
 
6:12 PM
@Slereah I find it hard to believe we can't write it in terms of $x,y$
 
I really need to diagram the situation by hand to really grasp it
 
it sure doesn't seem that strange
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 well you could
 
@Slereah You have my mathematica code
 
I'm not sure it would be that good looking, though
 
6:12 PM
You can slide chi to get different angles
 
@ShaVuklia the direction is arbitrary and a matter of convention.
 
Question is
 
It doesn't matter what direction you choose for your area element as long as you are consistent.
 
Is there a good bump function outside of the truncated gaussian one?
 
huh? Gaussian isn't bump.
 
6:14 PM
@John i see, thanks
 
@ShaVuklia see:
1
Q: What is the Direction of area vector?

Ananyo Bhattacharya In case of closed surfaces the area vector is directed outwards the surface. But what is the direction of the area vector in case of an open surface e.g. A thin lamina type of surface. Does it depend upon the curvature of the surface i.e. concave or convex side.

 
I guess not
 
@John ah right, that makes sense. I understand your dual answer now
 
@ShaVuklia a top tip is to search the Physics SE using Google not the builtin search. Google does a far better job - it found that question immediately.
 
6:19 PM
yea true. i'd forgotten to google it
 
@Slereah the $R$ derivative of $$e^{\frac{1}{R^2s^2-1}}$$ is awful
 
I'll bet
But
I'm sure it goes to the appropriate number
 
$$\left(\frac{s}{2(rs+1)^2}-\frac{s}{2(rs-1)^2}\right)e^{\frac{1}{2(rs-1)}}$$
 
It should go to... 1 or -1, I think?
since the derivative of the cosine will be $0$ at the boundary
 
where $s:=\sin\alpha$
ok so we want $\alpha=\pi/4$
 
6:22 PM
Is that $s = 1$ at the boundary?
 
Wait, why $\pi/4$
Where did we get that from anyway
I thought it was $\pi/2$
 
Wait, if $s = 1$ the second term is divergent
Unless it's moderated by the exponential
 
Meaning it's gonna be Complicated
Although probably not that much
It's basically the limit of $f^2 e^f$
 
Yeah so use Hospital
Although does that exponential go to $0$?
oh shit
 
6:26 PM
that's what we've been using for continuity
 
it's actually $$e^{\frac{1}{2(rs-1)}-\frac{1}{2(rs+1)}}$$
Maybe my computer did some partial fractions actually
 
end my life
 
Maybe I should just do the derivative by hand. One sec...
How do derivatives work
$\partial e^f=e^f\partial f$?
 
yes
 
Ok, it's $$\frac{-2Rs^2}{(R^2s^2-1)^2}e^{\frac{1}{R^2s^2-1}}$$
 
6:29 PM
Chain rule
 
So we want $R=1$ at the boundary
and then $s=1$, no?
 
I think so
 
So that's coming from the negative side
so $R^2s^2-1\uparrow 0$
and the exponential $\to 0$
that's going to beat the exploding denominator
 
But then the derivative will just be $0$
Which doesn't sound right
Are we sure it's not $\sin^2(\pi / 4)$
In which case it would be... 2?
 
that's 1
 
6:32 PM
Oh
Doesn't change much the problem
True
 
I have a question that's probably contentious since @0celouvskyopoulo7 is in the room. Is it really ok to just treat differentials as fractions?
it feels wrong
 
In what formalism
 
It is very wrong
 
Well, just like standard separation of variables
@0celouvskyopoulo7 could you tell me the correct way to arrive at the same result?
 
What result
 
6:34 PM
@Phase The answer is that it works, and you can plug the result back in to verify.
There is no "correct" way to do it, separation of variables is a mnemonic.
 
So there isn't a way of just writing it so that each step isn't an abuse of notation?
 
Behold:
 
@Phase Sigh, there is. See Theorem 6.9 in Jost, Postmodern Analysis.
 
Flagging for obscenity
 
6:39 PM
@0celouvskyopoulo7 what does that sigh mean
it fills me with dread
 
@JaimeGallego Russian?
 
Because you won't leave me alone
 
oh
noted
 
@Slereah Where did you find that thing for the derivative of an implicit function
 
@JohnRennie Yes
24 hours ago, by Jaime Gallego
My parents have a display case full of Soviet pins in the back of a wardrobe
 
6:40 PM
@Phase I am in a very bad mood today
It's 2:40, Jesus Christ
 
hope things get better
 
@Phase it's wrong but everyone does it and it (mostly) works fine.
Treating differentials like fractions makes us all feel unclean at first, but you get used to that :-)
 
just another dead part on the inside
I'll chuck it on the pile
 
@0celouvskyopoulo7 the wikipedia
 
@Phase your (mathematical) conscience will just get in the way - discard it immediately :-)
 
6:44 PM
In mathematics an implicit curve is a plane curve which is defined by an equation F ( x , y ) = 0. {\displaystyle F(x,y)=0.} Hence an implicit curve can be considered as the set of zeros of a function of two variables. Implicit means that the equation is not solved for either x or y. If F ( x , y ) {\displaystyle F(x,y)} is a polynomial in two variables, the corresponding curve is called an algebraic curve, and specific...
tangent vector is just the derivative of the implicit function
 
@Slereah I'm not even sure what we need for this
@Slereah those are in Cartesian coordinates...
 
would that not translate well in arbitrary coordinates
 
@Slereah I think I would argue that all you're doing is a coordinate transformation $\theta\mapsto \alpha= \theta\frac{\pi}{\pi-2\chi}$
We know it's smooth for $\theta=\alpha$
So because that coordinate transformation is linear (hence $C^\infty$), it won't change the differentiability properties of the curve
 
Might be alright yeah
 
6:51 PM
That would probably fly
 
Now, arguing that it's timelike seems terribly hard. I vote to just use the picture.
If you really have to compute $dy/dx$, you can.
You'd have to transform the curve to cartesian coordinates (a priori not impossible)
You need $dy/dx$ because the metrix is $-dy^2+dx^2$
You could do it in geodesic polars, perhaps
But I think the formula on Wiki is only for Cartesian
 
hm, what would be the metric of Minkowski in polar
I guess it would be similar to the hyperboloid metric
 
Well, he says to use the Cartesian cone for reference
But just look at the picture...
I'm not sure this is worth spending more time on
 
Well I'll leave it as is for now
it's probably more effort than any other GR book already
 

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