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8:00 PM
Bon appétit!
 
bon appetit (I think there belongs an apostrophe somewhere, but as just established, I took Latin, not French, so it's ok for me to mess that up)
 
you're ticking the french people off
 
the french people are ticking their e's off
 
すいません
 
I know, that was the pun
 
8:01 PM
Ahahahaha, that they are!
 
you were one step ahead of me
 
@Semiclassical long time no see!
 
hi
been a while
 
How's it going? :)
 
oh, alright. just trying to finish some things up
 
8:05 PM
Is everybody striking in France today?
 
dunno
 
Ah maybe my memory's betrayed me. Are you not from France?
 
Damn. Who am I thinking of? :0
 
astyx, maybe?
 
8:07 PM
THAT MIGHT BE IT!
Thank you!
That was actually bothering me for a while :p
 
@TedShifrin I figured out how to derive the functional equation for that one ? I'm on about. Or, at least, I know formally how to do so---I strongly suspect it can be made rigorous, but I definitely don't know how to justify it.
It comes out like this. I have a mapping $g:\mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}^2$. I want to find $(x,y)$ such that iterating $g$ converges to the (unstable) fixed point at the origin.
 
That reminds me of the contraction mapping theorem!
(I think Ted's gone out for some lunch btw)
 
oh, I'm sure
It seems that, for the present problem, there's a one-to-one mapping between such $x$ and $y$. So let $y=f(x)$ be that mapping. The asker's method amounts to assuming that, if $g(x,y)=(x',y')$, then $y'=f(x')$
So $g$ preserves the functional relation between $x$ and $y$.
 
Now that reminds me of the Implicit Function Theorem
Wow, it's been a while since I've done any maths
 
I don't think that's justified in general. But I think the requirement that $(x,y)$ iterate to zero might do it?
I'm sure I don't know how to make this rigorous tho
 
8:15 PM
Everytime I come to this chat Semi is talking about me
 
lol
not my fault this time
Attempt at formulating that better: Let $h(x)=(x,f(x))$. Then the claim is $g(x,f(x)) = (g\circ h)(x) = (x',f(x'))=h(x')$
still not happy with that
I feel like I need a function mapping x -> x' for this to make sense.
 
yeah, I don't quite follow that set-up
 
I mean, I don't either. That's why I say I understand it formally
It feels like it's missing some ingredient to justify it
I also shouldn't be using $h$, since the author of the question I have in mind already uses it
I'll switch to $q$, because why not
 
Do you have a link to the original problem/question, @Semiclassical?
 
it sounds like you want some kind of uniqueness assumption
 
8:24 PM
9
Q: Solve functional equation $ h(y)+h^{-1}(y)=2y+y^2 $

NemoI was trying to solve a certain physics problem, and encountered the functional equation that contains a function $h$ and its inverse $h^{-1}$: \begin{equation} h(y)+h^{-1}(y)=2y+y^2.\tag{1} \end{equation} Q: Does $(1)$ have a unique solution and is it possible to find it in closed form? Eq...

@Thorgott yeah. I mean, the assumption that g iterates (x,y) to (0,0) is very strong in this case
so that is presumably a huge part of this
 
what is $g$ in this question?
 
Ew physics
 
@Kari lol
i deal with all the physics at the top
@Thorgott $g(x,y) = (x-y,y-(x-y)^2)$
so nonlinear
 
ok, that does look un-nice
 
So in this case we're assuming a solution of the form $y=f(x)$ and $y-(x-y)^2 = f(x-y)$.
from some numerical work, it actually looks like it works when you choose (x,y) converging to (0,0)---a rather delicate task, since any finite-precision input will ultimately not converge
If I could find $H(x,y)$ such that $H\circ g=H$, then I think this would be easy
 
8:36 PM
So you're looking for a $H$ such that $H(x-y, y-(x-y)^2) = H(x,y)$.
Hey, @MikeMiller!
 
Right.
I'm rather sure it's not polynomial H, alas
 
Is there any restriction on the kinda $H$ you'd like to find?
 
not really, no
I think I may see a physics-y approach, though
and as I think about the physics approach, it starts going down renormalization-group territory...so that's 'neat'
nm, physics approach recovers what I was already doing.
 
8:59 PM
@BalarkaSen is there a simply connected 4-manifold with $H_2 = \Bbb Z^3$? I couldn't do this on the exam
 
Is double torus Z^4?
(as in, a sphere with two handles)
 
that's $H_0 = \Bbb Z$, $H_1 = \Bbb Z^3$, $H_2 = \Bbb Z$
 
oh, second homology group
okay, I think see the physics justification of that question
 
what is it?
 
the physics problem is linked earlier in the history ("solve functional equation...")
 
9:06 PM
oh I thought you were talking about my question
 
and I think the interpretation should go like this: Suppose I draw a circle around every resistor and nonlinear element except for the first pair
then what I have should again be an infinite chain, just with a different voltage and current
but it's the same chain, so the relationship between voltage and current should be the same regardless
hence $j_k=f(u_k)$ regardless of $k$.
 
@LeakyNun What about $3\Bbb{CP}^2$
 
what is that
simply connected?
 
Connected sum of three CP^2's
 
does that work?
I don't know anything about connected sum
 
9:09 PM
Just Mayer-Vietoris it out
 
suspicious
I guess it works
 
$H_2(S^3) \to H_2(M) \oplus H_2(N) \to H_2(M \# N) \to H_1(S^3)$
No problemo
 
cool
are $S^2 \vee S^4$ and $\Bbb CP^2$ homotopy equivalent?
 
No
The Hopf map is not null
 
I guessed correctly
yeah but that's the wrong direction
 
9:11 PM
Essentially the same idea, cup square isn't 0
This is the Hopf invariant
 
oh, the cup product!
hey @loch
 
Hi
 
@BalarkaSen by "cup square" did you mean the cup product?
 
Cup suqare of the unique degree 2 generator
That's zero in the former, nonzero in the latter
 
aha
understood
 
9:14 PM
Even $\Sigma \Bbb{CP}^2$ and $\Sigma (S^2 \vee S^4)$ are not homotopy equivalent I believe but this should be harder to see.
We'd have to use the Pontryagin square
 
hmm
 
@MikeMiller knows this cold
On the other hand, $S^1 \times S^2$ and $S^1 \vee S^2 \vee S^3$ are not homotopy equivalent but become homotopy equivalent once you suspend it once. The attatching map is just the lollipop map $S^2 \to S^2 \vee S^1$, which is nullhomotopic if you suspend it once.
This was pointed out to me by Dennis Sullivan once in his only appearance in MSE I think
 
maths is weird
@BalarkaSen have you played choker?
 
haha no I can't play poker
 
me neither
 
9:22 PM
i saw that video recommended to me
 
but it's fun
 
well. i don't know how to answer the question that I've been on about, but I do finally understand -why- that's the question. so...progress?
 
$\frac{1}{f(x)} = f\left( \frac{1}{x} \right)$
 
@LeakyNun Regarding earlier example: It's exactly analogous to $S^1 \times S^1$ and $S^1 \vee S^1 \vee S^2$ not being homotopy equivalent, but after suspension being so. The commutator map $S^1 \to S^1 \vee S^1$ becomes nullhomotopic once you suspend it.
 
cool
 
9:36 PM
Essentially since $\Sigma(S^1 \vee S^1) \simeq S^2 \vee S^2$ which has abelian $\pi_2$. There is no such thing as a commutator
 
aha
 
I hadn't actually noticed $\Sigma T^2$ is $S^2 \vee S^2 \vee S^3$ before. Shame on me.
 
that's a nice decomposition
aha
so stable homotopy theory is all about decomposition into wedges :P
 
Yup
Stable homotopy class being zero would tell you an appropriate cell complex breaks up into a wedge of spheres after suspending for a long time
 
reasonable
 
9:43 PM
@BalarkaSen Oh I think Hatcher has a general exercise here which says if $X$ is union of $n$ contractible spaces then cup of any $n$ element dies.
 
Say I want to visualise a transformation matrix acting on some points in the plane. What's a good way to do this?
 
So $\Sigma X$ always has trivial ring structure, eh
That's why it's hard to see $\Sigma \Bbb{CP}^2$ and $\Sigma S^2 \vee S^4$ are distinct I think
Ring structure tells you nothing, you have to go to higher cohomology operations
Anyhow Mike told me something about Steenrod squares from time immemorial but I never read this story
 
maybe I'll study it next term
 
Teach it to me if you do
 
sure
 
9:49 PM
@Ultradark map a shape that you already know under the matrix?
I think there's also a way of decomposing a matrix into a composition of basic operations (like translation, rotation and scaling)
 
Long rambly answer to what's really a simple question! Thoughts?
0
A: Solving $f''(x) = -f(x)$ without using Euler's formula

Akiva WeinbergerSay you've computed $f$ numerically (using, say, Euler's method). That is, you don't know a formula for $f$, but you know some values of $f$ to some decimal places. If you graph $f$ you'll see a wave, but let's say you don't recognize that graph. One thing we can do is plot the configuration spa...

 
Q: For $F$ be a free $R$-module, is the functor $X \mapsto X \otimes_R F$ both left and right exact?
 
Yup
 
@AkivaWeinberger the usual way I do this is sorta the reverse of what you do: Multiply $f''(x)+f(x)=0$ by $f'(x)$ and note that what you get is a total derivative
and therefore $f'(x)^2/2+f(x)^2/2$ is constant.
 
On a sort of philosophical level, this is similar to iterated distillation and amplification
 
10:01 PM
Moreover, that's got a nice physics meaning: $ma=mx''(t)=-k x(t)$ is the equation of motion of a harmonic oscillator, whereas its first integral $\frac12 mv^2+\frac12 kx^2$ is just the total mechanical energy
which, is conserved
 
(Re: distillation/amplification) We learn from computation, which is slow but is better at revealing patterns
Those patterns then are "distilled" into faster tools
and then we can "amplify" again by using those tools in our new slow computations
 
the main reason to do it this way, though, is that it works for other equations of motion where it's now anywhere near as obvious what to do
for instance, try 'guessing' the solution for $f''(x) = -\sin f(x)$
(good f'ing luck)
 
Is that actually doable?
 
yep. you get elliptic functions iirc
in brief:
 
Oh so it's not, like, elementary
 
10:04 PM
definitely not
If you take a first integral, you get $f'(x)^2/2 = \cos f(x)+C$
typically you'd pick $x=0$ so that $f'(x)=0$, so $C=-\cos f(0)$
therefore $f'(x)=\pm \sqrt{2\cos f(x)-2\cos f(0}}$
 
> The philosophy here is iterated distillation and amplification. Computation is slow, but it "amplifies" our powers because it lets us see new patterns. We then "distill" those patterns into new tools in our toolbox. Now we can iterate the process again, using those new tools in our computations. This is why mathematics has gotten so far.
Posted this as a comment
 
which, annoying $\pm$ aside, is solved as $$x = \int_{f(0)}^{f(x)} \frac{df'}{\sqrt{2\cos f-2\cos f_0}$$
 
if you do a bunch of finagling, that's an elliptic integral
 
Is it okay to say that a transformation matrix "acts" on the space of points in the first quadrant of the two dimensional euclidean plane?
 
10:07 PM
(Re: What I just posted) 'Cause, like, I believe it. Euler wouldn't have solved the Basel problem if he didn't use tools like Bernoulli summation (IIRC), and he wouldn't have had tools like Bernoulli summation had no one done the annoying computations that derive it
 
@Leaky: Are you at MIT for spring as well?
 
Sorry I'll read what you wrote now
 
and if you invert it to get $f(x)$ in terms of $x$, you get an elliptic function solution
 
Your MathJax is broken
 
It is?
 
10:08 PM
$$x = \int_{f(0)}^{f(x)} \frac{df'}{\sqrt{2\cos f-2\cos f_0}}$$
Fixed
 
Oh, Semi's mathjax.
 
derp
I'm on a computer where it'd be inconvenient to enable mathjax atm
 
Yeah I see it
 
so I probably borked it somewhere
 
re: integral and also computer troubles
Although, since it's an elliptic integral, maybe you can geometrically related it to an ellipse somehow?
 
10:10 PM
I'm glad to see your proselytizing for the energy trick, @Semiclassic.
 
I mean probably not
 
@TedShifrin yes
 
@LeakyNun Very cool. I trust you've enjoyed it.
 
sure
 
In any case I kinda just wanted to put that philosophical idea out there (albeit in a place where no one will ever read it)
 
10:11 PM
I don't know if you ever said hi for me to various people.
 
@TedShifrin it's an oldie but a goody
 
@Leaky These Naka vs Duda games are next level
 
notably, the use of elliptic functions in this way goes all the way back to Legendre
so it's definitely classical math
 
@BalarkaSen I haven't watched that
 
it also links up to Gauss's arithmetic-geometric mean, which is all kinds of great
 
10:15 PM
@BalarkaSen have you watched Hansen vs Carlsen?
 
a @Balarka: Does this interest you?
 
@Leaky Yeah those are good
Eric is actually surprisingly good
 
does PL interest Balarka?
 
@TedShifrin Hm, yes
I would be surprised if the stated result in the title is true
 
I think the OP would be, too, based on his last sentence.
 
10:21 PM
@Semiclassical Is that where you iterate $(a,b)\mapsto({\rm AM}(a,b),{\rm GM}(a,b))$ 'til they converge
 
why should "maximal number of points in a fiber" be the degree?
 
and through magic find an integral that tells you what the limit is?
 
Pretty much
 
@LeakyNun Because it's going to be constant along the top stratum
 
10:22 PM
That was actually an extra credit on one of the P-sets we had a while back
 
It's a PL map
 
And by "extra credit" I mean "for fun" - I don't think he gave actual points for them
I didn't think very hard about it
No wait
There was an actual question (not "for fun") which was, show it converges
 
In the physics context, the agm gives you a fast way to compute the frequency of a mathematical pendulum for a given amplitude
 
and the "for fun" was to find what it converges to
@Semiclassical Oh so it's a neat algorithm for that
Cool
 
For small amplitudes, you have agm of 1 and 1-epsilon, so basically just 1
Hence you get small amplitudes having the same oscillation frequency
 
10:26 PM
I see
 
@TedShifrin I was thinking that maybe you could compose the map $T^4 \to \Bbb{RP}^4$ with the 2-sheeted covering map $T^4 \to T^4$. Then the composition $T^4 \to T^4 \to \Bbb{RP}^4$ is certainly zero on $\pi_1$ because $\pi_1 \Bbb{RP}^4$ is $2$-torsion, which then lifts to $T^4 \to S^4$.
 
A more sophisticated version of the $\sin\theta\approx\theta$ argument
 
If you do large amplitudes, you take agm of 1 and a number closer to 0
 
$\sin \theta = \theta = \tan \theta$
 
So you get a smaller frequency (longer period) at higher amplitudes
 
10:27 PM
Oh no, it won't be zero on $\pi_1$.
 
@Leaky fact
 
@LeakyNun Those are all odd functions
 
If you invert a pendulum perfectly, that’s technically agm of 0 and 1 which converges to zero
 
which means they all equal 1 mod 2
 
@Balarka: I get it on $H_4$, not $\pi_1$.
 
10:28 PM
thus they're almost equal QED
 
If I took the $16$-sheeted cover $T^4 \to T^4$ corresponding to the subgroup $(2\Bbb Z)^4$ then we can guarantee that.
 
fields medal awarded
 
Corresponding to the fact that an inverted pendulum is an (unstable) equilibrium
 
@Semiclassical I see
 
0
Q: How to show that $\lim_{n\to\infty}\mathbb{P}\left(\bigg|\frac{1}{n}S_n-f(n)\bigg|>\varepsilon\right)=0,\quad\forall\varepsilon>0$

johnny09Consider a collection of independent random variables $(X_i)$ with $\mathbb{I}_{X_i}$ being the indicator random variable for $X_i$. Let $$f(n)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\mathbb{P}(X_i)\quad\text{and}\quad S_n=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\mathbb{I}_{X_i}.$$ I'm interested in showing that $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\m...

 
10:30 PM
@Balarka: The interesting thing to me is where you're going to invoke PL. A non-PL map has to be nuts.
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Woot
 
any help would be greatly appreciated!
 
@TedShifrin I assume you just use the result that a PL branched covering T^4 -> S^4 is at least degree 4
I don't think I know how to prove such a thing at all
Classic Edmonds stuff
 
@TedShifrin the true/false part has a lot more true than false
 
I know none of this.
 
10:35 PM
What's $\mathbb{P}(X_i)$ or $\mathbb{I}_{X_i}$?
 
probability of event $X_i$ and indicator function for same event.
 
but $X_i$ is supposed to be a r.v.
hence I'm confused
 
Ah, maybe he means $\mathbb E$?
I apologize for answering without reading.
 
no problem
 
OK, no: if $\pi_* f : \pi_1 T^4 \to \pi_1 \Bbb{RP}^4$ is nonzero then just take the cover corresponding to that index 2 subgroup. That is also going to be a torus, so we have a degree 2 covering map $T^4 \to T^4$ such that composing with $f$ gives $T^4 \to \Bbb{RP}^4$ which induces zero on $\pi_*$
 
10:39 PM
There you go :)
 
It only tells us that degree of $f : T^4 \to \Bbb{RP}^4$ is at most $4$ though
 
degree doesn't actually make sense ...
 
Because the lift $T^4 \to S^4$ of the composed map has degree at most $4$, so pushing down $T^4 \to \Bbb{RP}^4$ has at most $8$ but this is composition of the original $f$ with a degree 2 cover of $T^4$, so back to $8/2 = 4$ again
 
When you have a non-orientable thing, I don't see how actual degree is well-defined.
Counting number of preimage points is certainly not a homotopy invariant.
 
Yeah, you have a good point.
 
10:43 PM
I was just being confuzled.
 
This is some oddball thing about maximum fiber cardinality. I was going to argue why that agrees with the usual notion of homology degree for a PL map $f : M \to N$ of $n$-dimensional compact closed orientable PL-manifolds.
 
Yes, but that's not what these guys are doing.
 
@BalarkaSen What does 'That is it say, my left isn't right' mean?
Seems like such a broken sentence :0
 
that is to say
 
10:47 PM
Bad joke, I was wondering if a certain thing I said was left exact is indeed left exact and not right exact
 
Ahhhh
 
"Am I right that it is left? So left is right? Wait, but that means left isn't right"
 
oh oh ... we've had a name transmogrification.
 
Ah it's finally changed!
It actually did that on its own for some reason when I edited my bio.
I'm technology illiterate at this point.
 
What do you need
 
10:53 PM
Heya @MikeM
 
I brought this to Balarka's attention, Mike.
 
I tried a bit but the best that comes from using the theorem directly is degree of any PL branched cover $T^4 \to \Bbb{RP}^4$ is at most $4$, I think.
Dunno how to push for $8$
 
What a bizarre question
 
Not remotely my bailiwick
 
11:04 PM
Edmonds proves if $p : M \to N$ is a branched covering map then $\deg p \cdot l(N) \geq l(M)$ where $l(-)$ is the cup-length
 
Do we know what degree means yet in the non-orientable case?
 
is there a degree when it is non-orientable?
 
@anakhro: ordinarily, only mod 2.
 
I like the mod 2 intersection theory.
That was my favourite part of G&P.
 
Yes for PL branched covers it's the maximum cardinality of some fiber, as given in the question! This satisfies the usual multiplicativity properties
 
11:06 PM
I was worried that it wouldn't be a homotopy invariant.
 
Probably not, but do we need that?
 
Ah, but with PL things are rigid.
 
The issue is it's hard to do any top homology argument with it
@TedShifrin It's constant on top stratum, like I pointed out earlier
 
Yes, right, I get it, @Balarka. Thanks.
Well, assuming the top stratum is connected :P
 
Does PL always mean piecewise linear?
 
11:07 PM
yes @anakhro.
 
Great, I am understanding.
Time to cook.
 
Hmm, I'm not cooking for hours ...
 
It's 6:09 here.
So I am a little late.
 
Yup.
 
It's also a concordance invariant of branched covers, which is probably a good notion of homotopy. A concordance is a branched cover over the cylinder.
 
11:10 PM
Can max fiber cardinality not reduce during concordance
Reduce by 2 say
I don't see why
 
Branching should occur over a codim 2 subcomplex, no? Even in a concordance. So the non-branched set is connected.
 
The boundary of the cylinders are not part of the top stratum anymore, so the fiber cardinality their need not stay constant, is my thought process. They could be "edge cases" where the fiber cardinality is very high say
Oh ok, codim 2 is the thing I missed.
Top stratum of boundary is codimension 1 in the cylinder
 
Clever.
Hey, what ever became of PVAL?
 
Think quite sick, don't know much or mean to talk about what I know publicly. Meant to email him.
 
Please pass on my fond wishes.
 
11:18 PM
Hope he gets better soon
 
He knew about contact geometry, he was pretty cool.
 
I feel like a T S Eliot poem here.
 
"The Waste Land"?
 
Gerontion? :)
 
Love Song of J Alfred Prufrock
"People come and go, talking of Michelangelo ..."
 
11:25 PM
Aha
Although it was "In the room the women come and go, talking of Michelangelo" and it's probably a poem about sexual frustration but I got the gist :P
Love Song has always been a bit too sentimental for my taste
 
LOL, you're totally right. I just flashed on the "come and go" ... I read it 50 years ago.
I should reread it now.
 
who is your fave poet, guys?
 
Don't cry
Don't raise your eye
It's only teenage wasteland
 
You might like Gerontion, try it out if you get chance
 
@skullpetrol Who did that?
;)
 
11:28 PM
:D
 
I took a course on Baudelaire and Nerval poetry (in French) my freshman year in college, so that was quite an awakening.
 
Oh nice
 
ee cummings is my top poet
 
I have read very little Baudelaire
@anakhro bracket open
 
I liked ee cummings, but didn't study that much.
 
11:29 PM
Heh.
 
I think that's literally a title of one of his poems
"("
 
I like this one
 
He's pretty creative with his grammatical idiosyncrasies.
 
you cant beat Marinetti though
these weights thicknesses sounds smells molecular whirlwinds chains nets and channels of analogies concurrences and synchronisms for my Futurist friends poets painters and musicians zang-tumb-tumb-zang-zang-tuuumb tatatatatatatata picpacpampacpacpicpampampac uuuuuuuuuuuuuuu
from "Zang Tumb Tumb"
 
Cardamom smells so good.
That's a playful one, @BalarkaSen
 
11:34 PM
It's by the originator of fascism
zang tumb tumb stands for bombs dropping lol
 
Surprised there isn't a whistle there.
Do you like cilantro, @BalarkaSen?
 
Eh, it's ok. We curry eaters use it for curries
 
I am making a saag paneer right now.
But not paneer, since I like using feta instead.
 
Oh nice
I like that
 
So I guess saag feta.
 
11:42 PM
paneer with spinach is A+ stuff
why going indian suddenly
 
I use cilantro in all sorts of Latin and Asian cooking ...
 
$$H=\exp\begin{pmatrix} 0 & s \\ s & 0\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} \cosh s & \sinh s \\ \sinh s & \cosh s\end{pmatrix}$$
Does $H$ act on points to make them flow along curves like $xy=C$ ?
I know that this is a hyperbolic rotation matrix
 
@BalarkaSen I've always enjoyed cooking
And cooking one indian recipe is not "going indian". ;)
 
Fair :P
 
My fave spice mix is probably lebanese 7 spice
 
11:49 PM
@Ultra: Start at the point $(1,0)$ and answer your own question.
 
@TedShifrin forgot to say that $x\ne 0$
 
Huh? I don't care.
 
So I get this: $x\mapsto \begin{pmatrix} \cosh s & \sinh s \\ \sinh s & \cosh s \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x_1\\ x_2\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} x_1 \cosh s+x_2\sinh s\\ x_1 \sinh s+x_2\cosh s\end{pmatrix}$
I'm going to say: yes?
So I'm getting $(\cosh(s),\sinh(s))$
using $x_1=1$ and $x_2=0$
I'm going to say no actually
they don't flow along rectangular hyperbolas
rather rotationally transformed rectangular hyperbolas
so that the hyperbolas are in standard form
 
The whole point of hyperbolic geometry and cosh and sinh is the equation $\cosh^2 s - \sinh^2 s = 1$.
So you get the parametrization of the hyperbola $x^2-y^2=1$. Now do the orbit of a general point.
 

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