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@Astyx Not clear.
I have no idea what you're asking for then
Let $R$ be the ring of casual power series
@Astyx See: We have three dimensional graph of time, position and velocity right?
Now, on this graph how do I multiply time with velocity to obtain displacement graphically?
astyx
what math did you self study
you french genius
19:07
I'm not a genius (That's so true that I almost wrote "I'm not french" instead :p)
Manifolds mainly, although that's not finished yet
@Astyx Are you from France?
@Astyx what do you do to let the vector space $L(V)$ to become an algebra? (I do not know algebras). I used to see vectors in vectors spaces, and polynomials in polynomial rings e.g. $K[x]$, but it seems that you have all this together in $L(V)$.
Some topology
Yes @Abcd
@Abcd He is
19:08
I have to consider $f\circ g^{(1)}$
so never mind!
@AkivaWeinberger Say $A, B$ are 2x2 matrices with integer entries, with $A, A + B, A + 2B, A + 3B, A + 4B$ all invertible and inverses having integer entries. Prove that $A + 5B$ is also invertible with integer entries.
@Semiclassical Greetings
hi @Semi
Some number theory and some analysis about measure theory too
@Astyx Ok. D'you have any answer to my prev. question?
Hello @Semiclassical
19:08
Nothing too advanced really, I'm looking forward to doing this next year
@BalarkaSen Hmm. Is it true for any $A+nB$ at that point?
I doubt one can do what you're asking for @Abcd
So this is the same as saying it has determinant 1 @BalarkaSen
It's not particularly hard. There's a hint that makes it really obvious.
19:09
Neat.
if it's 2x2
Yeah.
Well, or -1
b/c adjugate, yeah.
@Astyx So all these calculations are merely theoretical?
I don't follow you anymore @Abcd sorry
19:10
Thanks astyx
for your reply.
It's alright.
@Kiril You see that for $f,g\in \mathcal L(V)$, $\lambda\in \Bbb F$ you have $f+g, \lambda g, f\circ g \in \mathcal L(V)$
sorry I'm busy dying of alergies
@Astyx you define composition as a multiplication on the vector space? And then $P(f)$ also lives in $L(V)$?
19:11
Often we forget about the $\circ$ sign and just write $fg$
Note that I'm not being very specific nor formally rigorous
That's right @Kirill
@Dodsy At least die quietly :p
@Astyx so there is no polynomial ring on $K$?
haha
will do
$K$ ?
:)
If $A^{-1}\in M_2(\mathbb{Z})$, then $A^{-1}(A+B)=I+A^{-1}B$. So $A^{-1}B$ is invertibe with integer entries as well.
19:13
We can assume $A=I$, then
If I + A is invertible, that does not mean A is invertible
@Astyx haven't we set $V$ as a $K$-vectorspace/$K$-algebra?
Hrm, fair.
It does have integer entries, though.
Sure, agreed.
So we know $I$, $I+A$, …, $I+4A$ are invertible and we want to show that $I+5A$ is
19:13
I used $\Bbb F$, but $K$'s good for me
oh
you guys were talking about the Dodsy conjecture?
it is very similar eh?
since we can do that substitution
shifted up one number
@Dodsy Yeah.
that's crazy
19:14
Yeah, it's the same as Collatz @Dodsy
I mean, it depends on how you write the Collatz map.
that's crazy actually...
(I think I was the one who noticed it)
yeah, you were
Wow
Really nuts actually if you think about it
19:15
eh, it's not entirely shocking in retrospect. if memory serves, the way you got it was by modifying the Collatz map in a specific way
I randomly made up the "dodsy conjecture" (no better name to call it)
right
There is a polynomial ring on $K$ @Kirill
I moved the +1 to the other side
and flipped the even and odd
@lets use $\mathbb{F}$, $K$ denotes $\textit{Körper}$$\equiv$Field in German. So there is no $\mathbb{F}[x]$
?
sure. but note that by changing the +1, you made odd stuff into even stuff and vice versa
19:15
exactly
so that would flip even/odd on its own
We also use $K$ in France
@AkivaWeinberger Hm, what if I write $C = I + A$ and then write $I + 2A = C + A$, replace it by $I + C^{-1}A$, etc?
For Corps
very strange
19:16
so in doing it a second time you effectively reversed it
right.
What do you mean there is no $\Bbb F[X]$ ?
well that could actually lead to some deeper insights into the collatz conjecture, though it remains to be seen.
Tomorrow my exams start, not sure how I'm supposed to feel
still kinda funny that you modified it in just the right way to get collatz back.
19:16
haha yes.
Which exams?
Ummm... try feeling relaxed?
it was completely by chance.
Oral exams for schools I applied to
i am by no means a genius.
19:17
Ah ok
I will have to meditate on this for some time.
@Astyx you say $P \in \mathcal{L}(V)$. Why not in $\mathbb{F}[x]$?
No no no
pretty sure no one in here is actually a genius, we're just good at temporarily pretending to be such.
$P(f) \in \mathcal L(V)$
while $P\in \Bbb F[X]$
I hope I'm not a genius for the sake of humanity
19:18
Same.
@Astyx now perfect. I get it.
I am a pretentious hipster. Pretending is what I am good at.
Has anyone read the construction of tensor products of modules in Dummit and Foote?
@ShaVuklia done with a physics for a bit?
It's interesting that it technically is the collatz conjecture though
really.
this is freaky.
I could be famous!
19:20
So you get what the kernel lemma is stating ?
@Astyx so the kernel of that endomorphism is a direct sum of the kernels of $P_i(f)$.
That's right
seems fair
Just to make explicit what's going on:
Now write $P = \prod_{i=1}^p (X-\lambda_i)^{\mu_i}$
19:21
Collatz says $k\to 3k+1$ if $k$ is odd, and $k\to k/2$ if $k$ is even.
Where the $\lambda_i$ are distinct and the $\mu_i$ are integers
@Astyx should I interprete lambdas as zeros of the polynomial or take them as eigenvalues?
note, though, that if k is odd then 3k+1 is even. so I know that the next step would be $3k+1\to(3k+1)/2$.
zeros of the polynomials yet
19:23
Then if $P(f) = 0$ (as an endomorphism), we have $V = \bigoplus_{i=1}^p \ker(f-\lambda_i id)^{\mu_i}$
So I can equivalently take the Collatz map to be $k\to (3k+1)/2$ if $k$ odd and $k\to k/2$ if $k$ even.
Which means the eigenvalues of $f$ are among the $\lambda_i$ (however not every $\lambda_i$ is an eigenvalue in general)
For the Dodsy map, I instead have (writing $j$ instead of $k$ to make things convenient in a bit) $j\to 3j/2$ if $j$ is even and $j\to (j+1)/2$ if $j$ odd.
That last statement is true for the minimal polynomial and the caracteristic polynomial (which cancels $f$ by Cayley Hamilton)
...I feel like I've mixed something up, though. hang on a bit
19:26
Now if a polynomial of which all the roots have multiplicity 1 cancels $f$, then $f$ is diagonalizable since $V = \bigoplus_{i=1}^p \ker (f-\lambda_i id)$
(In particular for $f$ a projector, $X(X-1)$ cancels $f$, so $f$ is diagonalizable)
@Astyx there is a basis of $V$ composed of the eigenvectors of $\varphi$?
of $f$, but yeah
At least if the field is algebraically closed
For instance, in $\Bbb R$ you could have an endomorphism of which the minimal polynomial is $X^2+1$
It is therefore not diagonalisable
Dodsy: 19 -> 10 -> 15 -> 8 -> 12 ->18...
Collatz: 18 -> 9 -> 14 -> 7 -> 11 -> 17...
19:29
The rule is : If the minimal polynomial is spearated and has simple roots, you can diagonalize it
If it is separated you can trigonalize it
If I take $j=k+1$ and plug this into the statement of the Dodsy map, that becomes
@Astyx wht does separated means?
You can write it as a product of degree 1 polynomials
Not sure about terminology, at all
Say we have topological spaces $X$ and $Y$, a continuous function $f:X\to Y$, a sheaf $\mathcal{F}$ on $X$ and a presheaf $\mathcal{G}$ on $Y$. Let $f^{-1}\mathcal{G}$ denote the inverse image of $\mathcal{G}$ under $f$, and let $f_*\mathcal{F}$ denote the direct image of $\mathcal{F}$ under $f$.
We said in our lecture that $f^{-1}$ ($f_*$) gives raise to a functor from the category of presheafs on $Y$ to the category of sheafs on $X$ (from the category of sheafs on $X$ to the category of sheafs on $Y$)
$k+1\to 3(k+1)/2=(3k+1)/2+1$ if $k+1$ is even and $k+1\to (k+2)/2=k/2+1$ if $k+1$ odd
19:32
I don't really understand how these functors map morphisms
@Astyx I have heard this rule only according to the characteristic polynomial
or, if I shift the input/output down by one for each and write the conditions in terms of $k$ itself:
$k\to (3k+1)/2$ if $k$ odd and $k\to k/2$ if $k$ even. Which is the collatz map.
Actually these are equivalences for the minimal polynomial @Kirill
So Dodsy and Collatz are equivalent.
and I'm also wondering, are these functors inverse to each other?
19:34
@Astyx why $P(f)=0$ implies $V=$[direct sum]?
@Astyx where does the $id$ comes from?
What's $\ker P(f)$ then ?
We have $f^0 = id$
$f-\lambda$ wouldn't make any sense
@Astyx all the elements that goes to 0 under $f$
@Astyx the set of all these elements
$id$ is the unit of the algebra $\mathcal{L}(V)$
@Kirill I meant what is it when $P(f) = 0$ ?
@Astyx then $\prod_{i=1}^{p}(f-\lambda_i)^{\mu_i}=0$, but further?
What do I have to do in order to reduce problem A to NP-complete problem B ?
19:37
Are you sure you understand what $P(f)$ is ? @Kirill
@Astyx no.
@Astyx it is an element of $L(V)$ first
If $f\in\mathcal L(V)$, you agree $f^0, f^1, f^2,\dots$ are all elements of $\mathcal L(V)$
@Astyx if it is held by the definition of the algebra, then sure
Same for $\lambda f$
No no no
It is just composition
@Daminark I'm learning the proof of Whitehead theorem.
19:40
@Astyx the composition of linear maps is also linear, yes
I'm just saying if you compose two linear maps from $V$ to $V$, you get a linear map from $V$ to $V$
Therefore you can make sense of $a_0 f^0 + a_1 f^1 + \dots + a_n f^n$ right ?
(note $f^0 = id$)
Are path spaces always contractible as long as the base is path connected? Ie is Hausdorff important?
@Astyx is it like $f \circ 0$ or how can you write it analogous to $f^2=f \circ f$?
No, $f\circ 0 = 0$
You just define it as such
19:42
Just like you define $n^0 = 1$
so , it makes sense, yes.
You want $f\circ f^n = f^{n+1}$ meaning for $n=0$ $f\circ f^0 = f$
So you'd want $f^0$ to be the identity
Anyway, so if we have $P(f) = 0$, what's $\ker P(f)$ ?
@Balarka that only a homotopy equivalence between CW complexes can induce isomorphisms of all the homotopy groups?
whole $V$ @Astyx
Why ?
19:46
@Daminark Yup, weak homotopy equivalence <=> homotopy equivalence for CW complexes.
@Astyx as I see there is nodieffference what $v \in V$ I take, as it is always 0. Or - i am totally wrong again.
I once mistakenly called whitehead theorem the white-man theorem
Yes, we have for all $v\in V$ that $P(f)(v) = 0$
I'll have to go to bed soon
Noice
wanna jump in? :P
19:48
I'm going through Concise rn actually (though I'm still like, on chapter 1)
Oh sure, yeah
Now would be the right time to figure out exactly what a CW complex is
@Astyx me too. ok, it is independent from $v$, but why $V$ is a direct sum?
Well we stated that $V = \ker P(f) = \bigoplus_{i=1}^p \ker(f-\lambda_i)^{\mu_i}$
oh man am I slow
x386
Don't say that, it really is quite a conceptual shift from what you're used to do in linear algebra
@Daminark Suppose $X$ is a space constructed as follows. Start with a bunch of dots with discrete topology; this is the 0-skeleton $X^0$. Glue intervals so that the endpoints of the intervals are glued to the dots in $X^0$.
The resulting thing is a graph; this is the 1-skeleton $X^1$
Glue disks $D^2$ to $X^1$ by consider loops $\partial D^2 \to X^1$ in $X^1$, and gluing the boundary of $D^2$ along those loops. The resulting thing is a cell-complex; this is the 2-skeleton $X^2$.
Inductively construct $X^{k+1}$ from $X^k$ by gluing $D^{k+1}$'s along maps $\partial D^{k+1} = S^k \to X^k$ (representatives of $\pi_k(X^k)$, I guess you could say).
19:55
@Astyx i think i get the plot, but not the details, as I cannot re-tell them myself. I do not see still, why the eigenvalues of $f$ should be among the $\lambda$-s. And why did we use the kernel lemma, actually.
Note, I did not prove anything
The resulting "CW complex" is the "limit" of the diagram $X^0 \subset X^1 \subset X^2 \subset \cdots$, which is easy to describe: $X = \bigcup_{k \geq 0} X^k$
@Astyx for what stood $X$ in $X(X-1)$ by the way?
I think the eigenvalue thing is something you can do youself
@Kirill The unknown of the polynomial
@Astyx sure, I hope so. As I have learnt a lot of new things with you today, I hope they will accumulate somewhere in the back part of my brain. I still have to use all thes to get the equation from a trace of $\varphi$ to the dimension of the kern.
@Astyx thanks a lot!
19:58
Glad to share
OK so wait just to be clear about the next level of this construction, we'd get as a 2-skeleton something like, let's say a filled in square? @Balarka
@Astyx was it enough to show that the eigenvalues are 1 and 0?
No
@Daminark Right. In the second step you are filling in various loops in the graph.
@Astyx I mean do you think I can show it using the things we have discussed?
19:59
You needed to show that we had $V = \ker f \bigoplus \ker (f-id)$
Not sure I understand what you mean by that
Here's an exercise, @Daminark: Can you describe the torus as a CW-complex?
Bye chat
Of course, it'd be a cell complex, because there would not be 3-cells in it.
Bye @Astyx
@Astyx you said that the projection has the eigenvalues 1 and 0. I want to show it on the paper. That is it.
@Astyx bye, Astyx. Thank you again!
Hello :) I have a questions :) We have euclidean metric. A is connected $\rightarrow $ A is path connected. It is true?
20:02
We can be selective about what we fill in, right? And in that way get a union of a discrete set, a graph, and a 2-skeleton
Yeah, of course, fill in a specific set of loops.
As you want
Well, dimension 2 CW complexes are called "cell complexes", rather
in general if $X$ is already a CW complex, the truncations $X^n$ are what we call the $n$-skeletons
Oh I thought a cell complex was 2 and up
Ah, no. A cell is a disk of dimension 2 :)
n-cell is D^n, which is what you use to fill in stuff in X^(n-1)
But alright, so I'm thinking we can do something like, take maybe 8 points?
Use 4 to draw a circle apiece, then connect each point to its corresponding one in the other circle and fill those in
That works. Can you give a CW complex structure with 1 vertex?
That is $X^0$ is exactly a singleton? :)
20:06
For the torus? Or just in general?
For the torus.
Basically I want the simplest possible CW structure.
@Daminark Maybe I should explain this one; think about the fundamental square description of the torus, alright?
Maybe thinking about it as a square?
damn snipd
Sniped
sniped!
20:09
Darn
But yeah you take the square, roll it into a tube, and then roll that into a torus, I'm just trying to think of how to formalize that precisely
Do we have to have just a graph for $X^1$ or can it be a multigraph?
Formalizing, as in? The square description can be formalized by saying $T^2$ is a quotient space of $[0, 1]^2$ by an appropriate relation.
Oh, it can be a multigraph.
That means you have edges with the same endpoints, right? Like loops starting and ending at the same vertex?
Yeah
Because then you can sorta draw a square, but then double each edge and that should do it
Yup. It's basically a bunch of points with edges going between them in whatever way possible.
Not sure if I understand that.
20:13
Wait I dunno if that works now
Hello can someone clarify how to prove that a problem X is reduced to NP-hard problem Y ?
@Daminark Here's a small hint. Suppose you take the square, identify pairs of opposite edges in the same orientation. The "interior" of the square (the open bit) is an open disk. What is the "boundary" of the square, as a subspace of the torus?
What do you get from the boundary of the square after all the relevant identifications?
So wait are we taking just a raw square?
Yes, just a $[0, 1]^2$
Oh weird, I thought you needed more than that
20:18
You actually don't. The answer to my question should explain why.
This puzzled me when I was thinking about CW complexes actually.
But alright, so now we're giving it the orientation where the vertical edges both point, say up, and the horizontal ones to the right, as opposed to the normal orientation
Oh god so we've upgraded to digraphs. Well, will the boundary give you like, two circles on the torus which intersect at a cross or smth?
Yes! A longitude + meridian on the torus.
Which is a figure 8
Wait what? I don't see the figure 8 yet
Oh I mean
I guess yeah if you allow it to move off the torus
Sure
20:22
Yup.
So torus is a 2-cell (interior of the square) glued to the figure 8
And this, folks, is precisely a CW decompositon of $T^2$
Wow, this is bizarre
What confused me a lot in my Hatcher Ch 0 days: 2-cell has boundary $\partial D^2 = S^1$. What is the loop $S^1 \to "\infty"$ that we are gluing the 2-cell along?
Can you explicitly describe this loop?
O lawd
That's... one way of saying it, I suppose
lol
BTW, $S^2$ has a dumb CW complex structure. So does $S^n$.
(with a single point as 0-skeleton)
I'd say take two points, draw an equator, then fill both sides?
That's the first easy one
20:29
There's a dumber one.
Oh right wait a second I forgot you're allowed to have a loop
I wonder how much you'd lose if you forced it to strictly be a graph
No loops, no multiple edges
Not much, I don't think. If you have a loop, you can just draw a point somewhere in the middle to get no loop there. So any graph is a no-loop graph.
=> any CW complex can be given a CW decomposition with no loops in $X^1$
So like, you are just marking off a point on the loop to get two vertices there, and two edges are glued to the two vertices like this: ()
That checks out
20:34
So, did you get the CW complex structure on $S^n$ with a single vertex/singleton as 0-skeleton?
Given that a vector $|\psi \rangle$ is not in the span of the basis vectors $|p \rangle$ which diagonalize a density operator given by $\rho = \sum \lambda_p | p \rangle \langle p |$ with corresponding eigenvalues $\lambda_p$, it apparently follows that $\langle \psi | \rho | \psi \rangle = 0$.
How do we show this? I thought that maybe we can use that $\langle \psi | \rho | \psi \rangle = \sum_p \lambda_p|\langle \psi| p \rangle|^2 = 0$ and if $\psi$ is not in the span $|p \rangle$ then $\langle \psi|p \rangle =0$ for all $p$ but I'm not sure this is true, that would imply that any vector not in the span of the $|p \rangle$s would be orthogonal to the space spanned by the $|p \rangle s$ .
Correct me if I am wrong but when solving differential equations of the form y' + yQ(x) = P(x) the coefficient to multiply by both sides is the product integral of Q, right? I could've sworn it was... and have thought that for some time. Now I'm doubting that assertion?
Take a point, draw a loop, fill in that loop twice
@Daminark Interesting. That works; there is a still more simple one :)
Pick a point on $S^2$. Call it $p$. What is $S^2 - p$?
Doesn't seem like a CW complex at all
20:38
Be back in a bit.
Well it's homeomorphic to a very well known object.
An open ball
2-d ball, or disk, rather. But yep.
So you get a CW decomposition of $S^2$ by taking $X^0 = \{p\}$, and gluing a closed disk $D^2$ to it by the constant map $\partial D^2 = S^1 \to \{p\}$
Well, I mean you still need to have a loop if you want to fill in a cell complex?
Oh wait a second you're allowed to glue things over multiple dimensions?
Yes [said in Dumbledore's voice]
20:41
Jeez you guys are being nice to yourselves
@Semi haha yea two more weeks of math now. I will redo my E&M test tho, so I will do physics next week on Tuesday.
I was under the impression that it was very rigid, like if you could only stick on a cell complex to a 1-skeleton
That's why this CW decomposition of $S^2$ is dumb. $X^0 = X^1$.
The 0-skeleton is the same as 1-skeleton, because there are no 1-cells.
@Daminark Right, you will soon realize that you can even glue very very high dimensional cells to n-skeletons for n very very small even by non-constant maps
That's the yoga of the Hopf map: that's a map $S^3 \to S^2$ which is not nullhomotopic.
Okay that's just cheating
shrug
And lol I remember Neves went through blood constructing that
Don't worry though, I am not teaching you definitions in full rigor. We're trying to understand the class of CW complexes via examples.
hahah
In any case, similar for $S^n$. $S^n = D^{n+1}/\partial D^n$, so you can just say $\{p\} = X^0 = X^1 = \cdots = X^{n-1} \subset X^n = S^n$ where the $n$-cell is glued by the constant map $\partial D^n \to X^0 = \{p\}$ sending everything to $p$.
Basically it only has cells in dimension 0 and dimension n.
20:56
Guys, question about a "Chinese Remainder Theorem" Algorithm. So say we have $n_1,\dots,n_t$ which are relatively prime, and $a_1,\dots,a_t$. Say we let $a=a_1$. We want to find $x$ such that
$$
xn_1\equiv 1\mod n_2.
$$
Then we get
$$
a’=a+(a_2-a)xn_1.
$$
So now we have that $a’\equiv a_i\mod n_i$ for $i\in\{1,2\}$. Now my book says that we could also replace the factor $(a_2-a)x$ by its remainder after division of $n_2$. I don’t see why this is the case. Anyone any idea?
What I do see is that
replacing $(a_2-a)x$ by anything won't affect the congruence with $n_1$
so.. oh
right I can't delete it anymore
I see it now
21:25
@Sha (removed)
Should I sleep, do more algebraic topology, or watch a movie?
sleep
and dream about algebraic topology :P
Dream that you're watching a movie that Peter May made
I'm not watching a Fifty Shades movie
Not a movie about Peter May
A movie he made
21:35
I laughed a bit too hard
The previous two messages
:-D
laughing is good
@Perturbative :P
Zee
Zee
I hate the word perturbative
21:48
I suppose we can perturb the word and get another one which you like?
Zee
Zee
Only if the end justifies the means
@Zee Eh, I'm too lazy to change my username
@Zee You are the end in that case
We are treating you not merely as a means to end, but as an end in yourself
Zee
Zee
Filthy kantian
21:55
Dami how have you been?
We don't talk enough as of late.
I am sure you are very busy though
lol @Zee
Zee
Zee
@Dodsy you sound like my ex
oh...interesting @Zee
@Zee Kek
@Dodsy True, it's been a while, I'm on the chat a bit less
eh me too dami
Zee
Zee
21:57
He's also less inclined to argue with me, which is making this place boring...
Lol, at some point we'll have a showdown yet again, fear not
Kant's name shall never be besmirched under my watch
Zee
Zee
Besmirched, wtf does that even mean
Like, damaged reputation, I guess
(Damage from the previous height of having perfectly correct moral philosophy :P)

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