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10:00 AM
what do elements in $\Bbb{R}/\Bbb{Z}$ look like? I knew for $\Bbb{Z}/n\Bbb{Z}$ the elements has the form $x+mn$ where $m$ is any integer
 
I want to draw some drawing
 
That's not the form of an element of $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$...
 
to illustrate this
but how to do that
online
 
They're fibres of the fractionnal part function
 
let me do it
 
10:01 AM
Such element has the form $z + n\mathbb{Z}$.
 
But I often heard that $x+mn$ can be interpreted as x mod n?
 
That's the form of a representative of the equivalence class.
 
It's not a ring though, it's not compatible with multiplication
 
but the elements are the equivalence classes themselves.
 
Let $$f: \begin{cases}\Bbb R \to [0,1[\\x\mapsto x-\lfloor x\rfloor\end{cases},$$ then an element of $\Bbb R/\Bbb Z$ is of the form $f^{-1}(\{y\})$ where $y\in [0,1[$
 
10:07 AM
 
And that is...?
 
let me tell
black ones are x
 
$\dot{x}(t) = 1 \pmod 1$ does not imply periodicity in $t$.
 
red ones are y
there is some thingy in that problem related to unit circles
like they repeat again
$\dot{x} = 1$
implies
$x(t) = t +c$
and $y(t) = \omega t + d$
 
Yes...
 
10:10 AM
so we see the graphs as linear
 
and adding $\pmod 1$ to those differential equations means $x(t) = at + c$ for some integer $a$.
 
how
 
Because that's literally what modulo is!
 
ok
 
$\dot{x}(t) = 1 \pmod 1$ means $\dot{x}(t) = 1 + m$ for some integer $m$.
 
10:12 AM
ok
so $x(t) = at + c$
and $y(t)= \omega t + d$
when x incresing upto 1
then it goes to 0
because of mod 1
 
No...?
 
but again it starts repeaing the pattern
ok
 
The derivative being some value modulo $1$ does not imply the function itself has to be taken modulo $1$
$x(t) = at+c$ for some integer $a$. Then $\dot{x}(t) = a \equiv 1 \pmod 1$.
 
ok
 
If you "go to $0$ and repeat the pattern" you're creating a disconinuous function
which means there's no derivative defined in $0$, which kind of defeats the purpose of having differential equations in the first place :P
 
10:16 AM
but actually
its not discontinuous
but appears to be
here where the circle comes to play
 
Why?
Does the question ever mention you're working on a circle?
 
Study the equation x ̇ = 1(mod1); y ̇ = ω(mod1) analytically and what

are the conditions on ω such that

(i) there is a time T such that x(T)= c and y(T)= b

(ii) there is no time T such that x(T)= c and y(T)= b

(iii) analytically solve the map for the following values of ω = 2/5, e, 1/7, 7/1
actually this is the question
if (i) is satisfied then it is periodic
and if (ii) is satisfied then it is quasiperiodic
solution
 
Yeah, well... whatever is meant by "mod" in that question isn't what "mod" means. Nor do I see $b$ or $c$ defined anywhere.
Can't be bothered with this anymore...
 
Ok
thanks for looking
 
10:46 AM
[Integral symmetries]
$\textbf{Integral conjecture # 001}$ (May be related to Rische Algorithm)
Given any integral where $f(x)$ is any integrable function $$\int f(x) dx$$. If there exists a change of variables $f(x)=g(u)$ such that the integral took the form $$\int \frac{g}{g'}du$$ then no elementary antiderivative exists for this integral without the specific details of $f,g$ being considered
[The notion of bypass]
It is possible that a lot of integrals contains antiderivatives (and definite integrals having closed forms) not because of change of variables, linearity of the integral operator and integration by parts, but because of the various functional equations and identities that the integrand obeys
That means, in a hypothetical mathematical world where all such identities and functional equations are nonexistent, we claimed no integrals except the standard integrals have antiderivatives
In pictures, that is what I think is happening:
 
Hello! I am given a linear projection $\varphi$ and have to show that the trace of $\varphi$ equals to the dimension of $\varphi$. is there any way to estimate the dimension of the kernel of $\varphi$ (evtl. using eigenvalues)?
 
A linear projection is diagonalisable
And its eigenvalues are 0s and 1s
 
@Astyx with what reasoning?
 
What's your definition of a linear projection ?
 
@Astyx the function equals its' own square
idempotent
 
10:56 AM
So if $f$ is a linear projection, we have $f^2-f = 0$, thus $X(X-1)$ cancels $f$, does this make sense to you ?
 
(sorry typo_)
 
@Astyx it is, but: $\varphi(v)(\varphi(v)-1)=0$. How can I know, that there is no $v$, e.g. $9$ such that $\varphi(9)=0$?
 
You're confusing two things, what does $\phi(9)$ even mean ?
 
@Astyx there is some vector $v$ that gives me 0. That is why I am asking about the kernel. Maybe there are vectors, the function of which gives me zero.
@Astyx 9 is an example if $V=\mathbb{R}$.
 
11:01 AM
No, you really are confusing two things
 
@Astyx will be happy to know what exactly
 
The fact that $X(X-1)$ cancels $\phi$ does not mean that for every $v$ $\phi(v)(\phi(v)-1) =0$, first of all because this makes no sense
You can multiply vectors, and 1 is not a vector
So $\phi(v)^2$ makes no sense and $\phi(v)-1$ makes no sense
 
does 0 make sense?
 
What is means is that $\phi\circ(\phi-id)$ (where id is the identity) is the zero linear application (it sends every vector to 0)
So when you compute the image of any vector $v$ through it, you get $\phi(\phi(v)-v) = 0$
ie $\phi^2(v) -\phi(v) = 0$
It's not th same 0 as before though, here it's a vector
 
you mean I read the square wrong?
 
11:05 AM
The square for linear composition means (and can only mean) function composition
That is, $f^2 = f\circ f$
 
oh God
 
(and more generally $f^{0}=id$ and $f^{n+1} =f\circ f^n$ for any integer $n$)
 
that is a nice fact. Thank you, I didn't know that
 
Multiplying linear maps and vectors is never possible
(at least not without defining clearly what you mean by it)
 
I am used to think about compositions only if I have some space where the composition is defined as a group/space operation.
 
11:08 AM
That is the case for linear maps :
For a vector space $V$, the space of linear maps from that space onto itself (these are called endomorphisms), generally denoted $\mathcal{L}(V)$, is itself an algebra, that is, a vector space with a "multiplicative law" (an operation that behaves nicely with the usual vector space operations)
This multiplicative law is composition
 
on the page for eilenberg maclane spaces it says "Saunders Mac Lane originally spelt his name "MacLane" (without a space)", which makes it seem that Mac Lane originally wrote his name the "space" at the end
 
\('-')/ @s.harp
 
I must go now, see ya
 
@Astyx question: what the $X$ means in your first sentence and what does it mean that the it cancels the function? (not pretty cool in English yet)
 
(Peter May told us about them very recently)
@Astyx darn
 
11:11 AM
Bye/hi s.harp and Dami
 
See you!
 
@Astyx bye, thank you
 
good bye
 
I'll answer your question when I come back @Kirill
 
@Astyx ok
 
11:21 AM
Is there a way to prove that localization commutes with finite products and infinite direct sums by universal property?
 
11:52 AM
hello everyone
I have a formula which I don't really understand how to interprete
I am trying to use it to construct a matrix. However I am not sure on how to correctly interprete the formula:

$\chi_i = \mu + [\sqrt{(n+\lambda)\Sigma}]_i$ for i=1...n

$\chi_i = \mu + [\sqrt{(n+\lambda)\Sigma}]_{i-n} $ for i=n+1...2n

source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/0By_SW19c1BfhSVFzNHc0SjduNzg/view page 361/503 chapter 10.10.2

Could somebody show me what form the matrix will have?
It looks to me like those indexes don't make any sense for the second formula:

assume n = 4

if e.g. i = 4+3
 
@Kirill Do you know about polynomials ?
 
rubs hands Ooh this is gonna be fun
 
@Astyx characteristic ones?
@Daminark this explanation?
 
If we're talking about polynomials and linear algebra this is gonna be very fun
 
@Daminark hope so
 
11:59 AM
No, polynomials in general
 
@Astyx yes. We have had them like $\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_ix^i$ and like the sequences of coefficients, but I am not cool with the last one
back in 2 min
 
@Dami How's it going ?
 
here
 
Does anybody have an idea about my question?
 
Everything's doing alright, how about you?
 
12:04 PM
I guess I'm alright
 
@Astyx my ears(eyes) are all here
 
So you're all ears(eyes) ?
 
Yes, @Kirill's ontology has become merely that of ears(eyes)
 
So you know about polynomials, multiplication between them etc
 
@Astyx Yes, I am the attention myself
 
12:05 PM
The ring of polynomials, euclidean division, degree
roots, the complex field being algebraically closed
 
@Astyx yes
 
(Are you heading the direction of ideals?)
 
Kinda @Dami
You mentionned the caracteritic polynomial earlier, what do you know about it ?
 
@Astyx complex fields being algebraically closed only in theorie. I mean I know this as a theorem, without a proof
@Astyx the zeros of that polynomial are the eigenvalues of $\varphi$
 
You want to hear the proof? eyes light up
 
12:07 PM
Yes, there is another polynomial that is intrinsincally linked to $\phi$, that is its minimal polynomial
 
@Daminark oh that guy. I haven't get him in the lecture.
 
Huh? Which guy?
 
@Daminark the minimal one
 
The algebra of polynomials over a field $\Bbb F$ is usually denoted $\Bbb F[X]$, $X$ is said to be the unknown.
 
Oh lol I thought you were talking about FTA
 
12:10 PM
Formally polynomials are almost zero sequences (that is sequences of elements of $\Bbb F$ of which only a finite amount of terms are non-zero)
 
if $A \in K^{n \times n}$ is a matrix, then the minimal polynomial is the normed polynomial $g \in K[x]$ such that $g(A)=0$. Well,
that is nice, but how one should "cook" it ot get some results in the exercise
oh, I was reading
 
No, I was diverging too far from what you are asking, my bad
Do you know about the kernel lemma ?
 
maybe, but I do not know such a name in German
 
The name is probably specific to french anyway
 
Yeah I've never heard of it
 
12:14 PM
Is that Cayley-Hamilton?
 
No
 
$dim(V)=dim(kern(\varphi)+dim(im(\varphi)$?
 
So it states that if $P_1,\dots, P_n$ are coprime polynomials and if $f$ is an endomorphism, then $$\ker P_1\dots P_n(f) = \bigoplus_{k=1}^n\ker P_k(f)$$
@Kirill That's rank theorem
 
I refer to your "Grassman's formula" as "Rank-nullity theorem"
 
the product of kernels of polynomials is the direct sum of polynomials? Have never heard about it. (also do not know what coprime means)
 
12:17 PM
In $\Bbb F[X]$ there is a unique factorisation of any polynomial as a product of irreductible polynomials
 
And yeah I've never heard of this as the kernel lemma
 
The same way there is one in $\Bbb Z$ : $35 = 7\times5$ for instance
 
Though this is a generalization of what I know
 
@Astyx ok. Like prime polynomials.
 
(The version I heard is when the product of the $p_i$ is the minimal polynomial)
 
12:19 PM
Coprime means that if you take the gcd of $P_i$ and $P_j$ (with $i\ne j$) it's 1
 
ok
 
Now you can always decompose a polynomial (modulo going in an algebraically closed field containing $\Bbb F$) as a product of degree 1 polynomials $P = \prod_{k=1}^p(X-\lambda_k)^{\mu_k}$
Product indeed
brb
 
I'm going to repost an earlier question of mine in case someone here can answer it:
18 hours ago, by LegionMammal978
Is $\sin(r\pi)$ algebraic for all $r\in\Bbb Q$? If not, what would be a counterexample?
It's reducible to the case where $r$ is a unit fraction, but I'm not sure where to go from there
 
Back
So this means that $\ker P(f) = \bigoplus_{k=1}^p \ker(f-\lambda_k id)^{\mu_k}$ (we consider the $\lambda_k$ to be distinct)
So if $P$ cancels $f$, we have $$V = \bigoplus_{k=1}^p \ker(f-\lambda_k id)^{\mu_k}$$
 
@Astyx Why do you use $\mu$? What does it mean (besides power)
 
12:25 PM
$\mu_k$ is the algebraic multiplicity of $\lambda_k$ in the polynomial $P$
 
ok
but I am thinkg about the formula
 
Which one ?
 
P cancels f means $P-f=0$, right?
 
Oh no, i should have emphasized on that
So you know $\mathcal L(V)$ is an algebra, this means we can apply polynomials on it
For a polynomial $P = \sum a_k X^k \in\Bbb F[X]$, we define $P(f)$ to be : $$P(f) = \sum a_k f^k$$ for $f\in \mathcal L(V)$
 
@Legion I think the answer is yes
The logic is this
$\cos(\pi/n) + i\sin(\pi/n)$ is a root of unity
 
12:28 PM
Note that this is an element of $\mathcal L(V)$
 
@Astyx I can hardly follow starting from "back"
 
We say "$P$ cancels $f$" when $P(f) =0 \in \mathcal L(V)$, that is when $P(f)$ is the zero endomorphism
Do you follow my last 4 messages (they are not dependant on the rest) ?
 
So that expression is a solution to $z^{\frac{1}{2n}} - 1$, and then playing with conjugates should do it
 
@Astyx I do not know what an algebra is. But I can be ok since I know that if it is an algebra, it is also a vector space. And, I am confused about setting polynomials in polynomials.
 
setting polynomials in polynomials ?
It requires a lot of abstraction to grasp this concept, but it really is worth the effort
An algebra is a space in which you can add, multiply elements together, and multiply by scalars
 
12:33 PM
Does anybody have an idea about my question?
 
Examples are $M_n(\Bbb F)$, $\Bbb F[X]$ etc
 
Hello

To make a long story short, I have a formula I am trying to use to construct a matrix. However I am not sure on how to correctly interprete the formula:

$\chi_i = \mu + [\sqrt{(n+\lambda)\Sigma}]_i$ for i=1...n

$\chi_i = \mu - [\sqrt{(n+\lambda)\Sigma}]_{i-n} $ for i=n+1...2n

source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/0By_SW19c1BfhSVFzNHc0SjduNzg/view page 361/503 chapter 10.10.2

Could somebody show me what form the matrix will have? e.g.:

[ 1,1 1,2 1,3 1,4 1,5 1,6 1,7 1,8 1,9;
 
@Astyx You said $P$ is our polynomial that consists of prime polynomials. Now $f$ is a linear map, right? So, yes, setting linear maps in polynomials, not polynomials in polynomials
 
I said we defined $P(f)$ as $\sum a_k f^k$
Do you understand what this means ?
 
@trilolil I have no idea @Astyx What are you doing?
 
12:35 PM
the value of $P$ at $f$ is the sum of WOW no
 
@Akiva Explaining some concept about polynomials and vector spaces
 
Ideally, he intends to talk about the minimal polynomial
 
@Astyx the sum of compositions multiplied with scalars?
 
Yes
For instance if $P = 1 + 2X + 5X^3$ then $P(f) = id + 2f + 5f^3$
 
@AkivaWeinberger ok thanks.
Does anybody else have any idea?
 
12:36 PM
I don't @trilolil
 
@Astyx ok thx
 
Guys, say we consider $D_3$ (set of congruences that leave a regular triangle invariant). Say we first reflect the triangle (say with $\sigma_{\pi/3}$), and then we rotate it by $2\pi/3$ degrees (so we apply $\rho_{2\pi/3}$). I tried to construct the according permutation to this rotation.
If we use a triangle that hasn't been reflected (with the vertices numbered 1,2,3 in the counter-clockwise direction), we get $(132)$. However, if I consider the permutation for the reflected triangle, I get $(231)$, so that can't be right. Any ideas on how to find the according permutation when there has already been applied a permutation?
 
I have to go, I'll be back in an hour at most I think @Kirill
 
@Astyx I have to go, too. I will be here in 6 hours, will be glad to continue if you will be here!
 
@BalarkaSen I think we can make a ring of formal power series in two noncommutative elements $x$ and $y$
so that each element is a formal series of $ax+by+cx^2+dxy+eyx+fy^2+\dotsb$
Like, a term for each possible expression of the form $cx^my^nx^oy^p\dotsb$
In any case, suppose we have the quotient of some ring like that.
Theorem: If $w$ commutes with $x^2+2x+1$, then it commutes with $x$.
Proof: We can write $x+1=\sqrt{(x^2+2x)+1}=\sum_{n=0}\binom{1/2}n(x^2+2x)^n$. So anything that commutes with $x^2+2x$ commutes with $x+1$; everything commutes with constants, so QED.
(I like that the Taylor series of the square root still works in the formal power series setting)
 
12:50 PM
This is SOOOO UGLY, Now to check whether it actually recovers the question when I differentiate it...
$$\int \sqrt{ \tan x} dx=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\left(-\ln \left((\sqrt{\tan x}+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})^2+\frac{1}{2}\right)+2\sqrt{2}\tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{2 \tan x}+1\right)+\ln \left((\sqrt{\tan x}-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})^2+\frac{3}{2}\right)+\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\sqrt{\tan x}-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\right)\right)+C$$
 
@AkivaWeinberger What set is this in ?
 
@Astyx In a quotient of that sort of ring
 
Oh I don't know how to read
 
in which we can have any formal power series in $x$, and in which for any $y$, we can write $y\sum a_nx^n=\sum a_nyx^n$
I believe that commuting with $x^2$, though, does not necessarily imply commuting with $x$.
The difference being that $\sum_{n=0}^\infty\binom{1/2}n(x^2-1)^n$ doesn't exist—the constant term would be an infinite sum
 
12:58 PM
So if $w$ commutes with $x^2+2x$ really
 
Yeah
I mean, commuting with $x^2+2x$ is the same as commuting with $x^2+2x+1$
 
I don't know why but that feels like cheating to me
 
Is it always true that $\sqrt{y} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} {1/2\choose n} y^n$ ?
 
Yeah, as long as that sum exists
Oh, wait
You want $\sqrt{y+1}$, or $(y-1)^n$
You essentially only need to prove that $\sqrt{x+1}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\binom{1/2}n x^n$. The rest comes from lemmas about how composing functions in the ring of formal power series works
 
1:04 PM
Yeah +1 my bad
So through formal comutation, the resulting formal series of the product is the series consiting only of $y$ ? Interresting
 
1:21 PM
Oh crap, careless mistake...
$$=\int\frac{-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}u}{(u+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})^2+1-\frac{1}{2}}+ \frac{ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}u}{(u- \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})^2+1+!!! \frac{1}{2}}du$$
that + should be -
 
Copy/paste \frac{4}{\pi }\sum _{n=0}^{40}\frac{\sin \left(\left(2n+1\right)x\right)}{2n+1} into Desmos
The Fourier series of the square wave looks so cool
Its derivative as well, wow
\frac{4}{\pi }\sum _{n=0}^{10}\cos \left(\left(2n+1\right)x\right)
Wait, oh my god, the derivative is explicitly summable!
$$\frac4\pi\sum _{n=0}^N\cos ((2n+1)x)=\frac2\pi\frac{\sin((2N+1)x)}{\sin(x)}$$
Oh, wait, duh, of course it is -_-
But that means that the $N$th Fourier approximation of the square wave is $\displaystyle\frac2\pi\int_0^x\frac{\sin((2N+1)t)}{\sin(t)}\operatorname d\!t$.
 
@akiva mmm, dirichlet kernel
 
1:43 PM
hi chat
 
Hi
 
@Astyx Note that $\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n(x^2+2x)^n$ always exists (since every coefficient ends up being determined by a finite sum).
 
Formally yeah
 
@AkivaWeinberger This is interesting.
 
Right. You can screw with radii of convergence all you want ($a_n=n!$ and stuff)
@Astyx But I think the general rule is, $f(g(x))$ exists when $g(0)=0$.
So, in formal power series, $e^{e^x}$ is problematic, but $e^{e^x-1}$ isn't (interpreting $e^x$ as $\sum x^n/n!$).
(Which means, by the way, that the Taylor series of $e^{e^x-1}$ has all rational coefficients.)
(Which implies that the Taylor series of $e^{e^x}$ has all coefficients in $e\Bbb Q$.)
 
1:47 PM
Depending on what your formal power series ring is over.
If over R, e^e^x exists no
 
The whole point of formal power series is that you don't want to have to deal with issues of convergence.
So the moment that you realize the constant term is defined by an infinite sum, you're dead.
 
Or consider formal formal series
 
(In this case you could just define $e^{e^x}=e\cdot e^{e^x-1}$, I guess, if you really needed to)
 
And you don't care about the convergence of the sums defining the constant terms
 
@AkivaWeinberger Which makes sense only if the power series ring is over R
 
1:49 PM
@BalarkaSen OK, sure
@Astyx I think you'd end up with horrible stuff like $0=(1+1+\dotsb)-(1+1+\dotsb)=(1+1+\dotsb)-(0+1+1+\dotsb)=1+0+0+\dotsb=1$
 
That statement is obviously correct
 
I forget what join of spaces is
$X \times Y \times [0, 1]$ mod squishing $X \times pt \times [0, 1]$ on one side, and squishing $pt \times Y \times [0, 1]$ on the other side I think
 
I know a circle join a circle should be a sphere, I think
 
S^3, I think
 
Like, a torus but with a meridian and a longitude line squished
 
1:55 PM
I think that's smash
 
$X \times Y/X \vee Y$
 
Oh, you're right
Right, this is the thing what turns a line and a line into a tetrahedron.
Line segments.
 
Right, yup
 
yikes
 
1:57 PM
HUH. So $EG$ can be written as a direct limit of iterative join of $G$'s.
 
I'm having trouble verifying that circle join circle is indeed S3
 
Does the identity theorem (holomorphic function on connected domain is uniquely determined by accumulation point) hold in banach spaces/ banach algebras also?
 
@AkivaWeinberger It's like the tetrahedron with two pairs of concurrent faces identified.
 
Oh, wait, OK
 
Cut along the tetrahedron along a small square from the middle, glue each "piece of pie" individually to get solid torii, and then glue the solid torii back to get S^3.
 
1:59 PM
For some reason I thought that joining the first pair would give us something weirder than it does
 

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