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14:00
$$\int \sqrt{\tan x}dx = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\left(-\ln\left((u+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})^2+\frac{1}{2}\right)+2\tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{2}u+1\right)+\ln\left((u-
\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})^2+\frac{1}{2}\right)+2\tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{2}u-1\right)\right)+C$$
Ah, OK, got it, I see @BalarkaSen
@Secret No good can come of this
It's like a lens space description of S3 I guess
or something
(and yes, I have actually differentiate it and it is indeed the antiderivative. However integrating this is not my main aim)
My aim is to illustrate the following: (and I guess I learnt a valuable lesson today on how important identities are. This is kinda almost a minimal example where I have used the least number of non polynomial identities to integrate, and we can see how ugly it is)
Oh wow that description of $EG$ is obviously the same as the piecewise linear function description
Contrast this with the first answer of the following:
17
Q: Evaluating the indefinite integral $ \int \sqrt{\tan x} ~ \mathrm{d}{x}. $

A is for AmbitionI have been having extreme difficulties with this integral. I would appreciate any and all help. $$ \int \sqrt{\tan x} ~ \mathrm{d}{x}. $$

The first answer integrates this much quicker and with a less ugly expression
and he/she did so because of at least 3 uses of trigonometric identities are being exploited
This then brought us to the following conjecture:
14:05
Oh wow
Hm, how do we write $\cosh^{-1}$ in terms of logs?
'Cause there is a way (using the quadratic formula)
log(x + sqrt(x^2 - 1)) something something
$\textbf{Integral conjecture # 002}$ The length of an integration pathway for an integral that has a closed form is inversely related to the number of function specific identities used
something
I know differential Galois theory is a thing that exists, though I know nothing about it. It looks like it might be related to all this, though @Secret
woo my guess was right
14:09
@AkivaWeinberger I am not sure either (I guess I really have to read that up in detail), the thing is, differential galois theory cannot handle those integrals that have closed form because of the existence of special function identities, it can only handle elementary antiderivatives. Whether there exists a generalisation that can handle special functions I am not sure
Diferential galois theory, if I recall can tell us from the Galois group of the field of functions whethe a given integrand has an elementary antiderivative and if yes, find it
this is analogous to galois theory in solving radicals
well, special function identities typically come about because they satisfy certain differential equations.
There's also something called Rische algorithm, though I don't remember which comes first, but it can be derived as a consequence of differential galois theory from one of the online lecture note on the topic that I read some time ago when discussing typhon's periodic constant ODE system
In symbolic computation (or computer algebra), at the intersection of mathematics and computer science, the Risch algorithm is an algorithm for indefinite integration. It is used in some computer algebra systems to find antiderivatives. It is named after the American mathematician Robert Henry Risch, a specialist in computer algebra who developed it in 1968. The algorithm transforms the problem of integration into a problem in algebra. It is based on the form of the function being integrated and on methods for integrating rational functions, radicals, logarithms, and exponential functions. Risch...
but I imagine the place of special functions in diff. Galois theory would be analogous to extending a field by including a particular root in standard Galois theory.
Hmm, I am thinking about something similar. The issue however is I need to read up how series in general behave in a galois group since a lot of special functions (such as the hypergeometric functions) are basically infinite series, while others are defined in terms of an integral such as erf(x)
well, hypergeometric functions also satisfy ODEs with three regular singular points
erf is weird, though. so i wouldn't be surprised if that one provides an exception to what I'm saying
14:19
One thing I notice when Waiting, Cieo, MNCE, robjohn, Lucian etc. when they solve for closed forms of integrals and series is the huge number of identities they exploit in the simplification
The recent test using the $\sqrt{ \tan x}$ seemed to confirm my suspicion that without the existence of these identities, these integrals may be unable to have a closed form
yeah, there's a huge amount out there. the glories and riches of classical mathematics, you could say
The question, I suppose, is to what extent solving such examples is an art versus a science.
Guys, does anyone know what the commenter in my post means in his last comment? I'm not sure what relations he's talking about, but I feel like our discussion is already getting too long in the comments; math.stackexchange.com/questions/2335694/…
Speedsolving a Rubik's cube also uses an insane amount of identities.
Seriously, the amount of memorization of what algorithms to use in which cases is insane.
The best I can do with a Rubik's cube is color two concurrent faces.
I am actually starting to wonder, whether the general question on the existence of closed form is whether there exists at least one pathway consists of rewriting expressions and using functional identities that can lead to some finite combination of functions and elements from a field

I knew that feeling, one Rubik cube guy demonstrated to us how the identities are put into action. and one of them is based on one of the commutator of the rubik cube group in the ability to rotate tiles anticlockwise for each 3 moves)
14:22
I can solve it, but not speedsolve it
I'm able to color all but the top third of a Rubik's cube correctly
which is not great.
Mathologer has a good video that describes a way to find your own solution
The secret is conjugation
I have done 3 faces but coincidentally. My algorithmic approach just does 2, generically
Oh yes there is a lot of conjugation business popping up
So far, finding closed form is mostly an art due to no-go results such as nonexistence of antiderivatives (and possibly by extension, nonexistence of antidifferences for series), and the art is basically the intuition of recognising these pathways via experience and other means. But I suspect, if we can map the space of all functional identities and convert that into a manifold somehow, then maybe we will get the science of finding closed forms out of it
But the point is, solving integrals quickly depends on how many identities you know, even if these identities could all be theoretically be derived from a much smaller set of identities
14:25
Technically you can always solve a cube by rotating top third, pushing down front third, ad infinitum repeatedly
but that's not the best strategy :P
@secret You might find Wilf's A=B interesting: math.upenn.edu/~wilf/AeqB.html
@ShaVuklia The relations $\rho^3=\sigma^2=1,~\rho\sigma=\sigma\rho^{-1}$
@BalarkaSen That only touches two faces?
Oh, wait, by pushing down from third you mean rotating the whole cube?
Huh, interesting. I didn't know that was a generator
@AkivaWeinberger I am not sure whether it is an open question on whether the space of all functional identities (which is countably infinite based on discussions between me and Leaky since it still depends on a finite alphabet) forms an algebra with a finite generating set
14:28
Just to clarify, it's like: Take the front face, rotate a quarter clockwise. Rotate the cube by pi/2. Take the front face, rotate a quarter clockwise. Etc.
Mar 11 at 16:23, by skill patrol
Straight out of Webster's Note - Authors have not always been careful to use the terms art and science with due discrimination and precision. Music is an art as well as a science In general, an art is that which depends on practice or performance, and science that which depends on abstract or speculative principles. The theory of music is a science; the practice of it an art.
@Astyx I tried a lot to get how you concluded that $E(e^{tX}) \le e^{t^2/2}$ for all $t\in \Bbb R$ by convexity of the exponential but couldn't get it
could you explain it to me in a bit more detail? Sorry my basics in probability in Markov stuff are a bit rusty
@Semiclassical Downloaded, it seems it is not just about identities, but approaches on how computers do proofs in general
@Secret indeed
Yeah I skipped the details, sorry @SoumyoB
14:36
@SoumyoB It may be useful to rearrange that to $E(e^{tX})e^{-t^2/2}\geq 1$
@Astyx and @Semiclassical is any probability distribution given for $X$?
Since expectation is linear, you can pull that factor inside $E$. That in turn suggests completing the square.
So prove for $x\le 1$ that $e^{xt} \le {1-x\over 2} e^{-t} + {1+x\over 2} e^t$
Could not tell you, tbh. I'm just following my nose :)
14:38
Just that $E(X) = 0$ and $|X|\le1$ almost certainly
Huh, nice.
So when taking the expectancy you get $E(e^{tX})\le\cosh(t) \le e^{t^2/2}$, directly from comparing the terms in the taylor series
@Secret cool
[Integral symmetries] Btw, below are what I suspected to be no-go forms:

$$\int \frac{f(x)}{f'(x)}dx, \int \left(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right)^n dx, \int \frac{f''(x)}{f(x)} dx$$

and for that, I formulated a conjecture # 001 which states that any integral that can be brought into these forms (and possibly more) cannot have a non infinite series closed form if suitable functional identities are not used to manipulate the integrand
That A=B and other books on special functions may help me to check this conjecture
@Astyx be right back from the market
14:44
in particular, when evaluating integrals, I especially hate to see this form:
$$\int \frac{f(x)}{f'(x)}dx$$
because it often signals simple integration techniques (IBP, partial fractions, change of variables) often don't work at least for all the integrals I have done so far in the past, like in my studies, readings etc.
If conjecture #001 is true, then it will mean that whenever a change of variable give you this, it signals you to use functional identities
@Secret Counterexample, $f=\sin$
Or any polynomial
For $\sin$, well I guess $\tan x=\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}$ is pretty much a definition more than an identity, For polynomials, yes........
O and also $f(x)=e^{ax}$ as well, because of the special role that $e^x$ is an eigenfunction under the integral operator
I suppose it depends on your definition of closed-form. Are you allowing the use of any constants? Or only the ones expressible in terms of integers and elementary functions?
Hello if I know vertex cover is NP complete and I want to show that Set cover is also NP complete, I should reduce Set cover to Vertex cover or in other words finding Set cover is the same as finding Vertex cover of a graph ?
@AkivaWeinberger My idea of a closed form is slightly more general than the notion of finite combination of elementary functions. For me, a closed form is either a number (for series and definite integrals) or a finite combination of special functions and elementary functions (thus there will be numbers e.g. in linear combinations)
user84215
14:54
Why is any compact and connected surface in R^3 with constant Gaussian curvature a sphere ?
So in general, no infinite series will be considered a closed form unless it happens to solve some (at least 3?) functional equations (and thus often make them have a name)
similarly, no expresisons contains integrals will be considered a closed form unless it is famous enough to get a name
In TeX I want to write $ff$ where both fs are close to each other so that it looks like one symbol, how can i do that?
actually in light of this, I think I will consider $\tan x=\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}$ a functional identity, since if you imagine replacing all the functions with e.g. $f,g,h$ then $f=\frac{g}{h}$ does not always hold, making it quite specific to trigonometric functions
@BalarkaSen hi
@s.harp How about f\!\!f $f\!\!f$?
15:03
As for polynomials, I am not sure, since if you go into the way of considering its various properties as identities then suddenly a lot of algebraic identities become specific only to polynoamials
@AkivaWeinberger nice!
@AkivaWeinberger hi
Test: $f\!\!\!f$
thats too close
Oh, no, that's too far
@Liad Hi
$\fortissimo$
Oh, that's too much to hope for
15:06
im trying to find $f:X \to Y$ where $X,Y$ are path connected and the induced homomorphism is not trivial nor the identity.
user84215
Why is any compact and connected surface in R^3 with constant Gaussian curvature a sphere ?
Also, $e^x$ is pretty much the only family of functions that satisfy $f'=f$, so I think we can consider it as a functional identity

I think the conclulsion is that we can relax or modify our condition so that the only counterexample to conjecture #001 are the polynomials

More rigorously, functional identities are relations that holds only for soem functions f,g,h

That way, $f=f$, $0f=0$ is not considered a functional identity since it holds for all functions and thus is due to the underlying algebraic structure
This together with the above definition for closed forms, should make it specific enough
so i took $X= S \ ^1 , Y = S \ ^ 1 \times S \^ 1$ and $f(x) = (x,-x)$ im trying to show that the induced homo' is $f(n) =(n,-n) $ for $n \in \Bbb Z$
@Liad Induced homomorphism on the fundamental group?
@aminliverpool there should be a theorem that a surface of genus $g$ cannot be embedded into $\Bbb R^3$ with curvature $≤0$ everywhere
15:07
@AkivaWeinberger yea. i know that $\Pi_1(S \ ^ 1 ) = \Bbb Z $
@AkivaWeinberger any chance you know how can i show that the induced homo' is indeed $n \to (n,-n)$ im a bit stuck on that
@aminliverpool no compact negative curvature surfaces in $\Bbb R^3$: "throw planes at your surface from very far away. At the point of first contact, your plane and the surface are tangent. But the surface is everywhere saddle-shaped, so it cannot be tangent to your plane without actually piercing it, contradicting first contact."
@Astyx just understood your steps, that was very clever I must say
It is tricky, and this is why I'm surprised it works so well
@Liad I'm not sure, maybe use the covering space of the torus
15:40
are path spaces $C([0,1],Y)$ Hausdorff? google only tells me things about path connected spaces that are hausdorff
Surely you need $Y$ to be Hausdorff?
Pretty sure path space of the, say, Sierpinski space is not Hausdorff.
The path space of an indiscreet topology cannot be Hausdorff, it is also indiscreet
so it is likely that you want $Y$ to be Hausdorff
Right.
im trying to see whether the evaluation map defined as a map $Y^I\times I\to Y$, $(\omega,t)\mapsto \omega(t)$ is continuous. With the exponentiation law this is super easy, but that requires $Y^I$ to be Hausdorff
What's the topology on $Y^I$?
Is this homotopy classes of paths?
15:47
Compact-open.
I think if $Y$ is Hausdorff $Y^I$ is Hausdorff but I'm a little slow and lazy today. Maybe Akiva would want to help
I forgot what compact-open means
its true and hte proof is trivial my bad^
looks it up
@Akiva if $K\subset X$ compact and $U\subset Y$ open then $K(X,U) = \{f:X\to Y\mid f(K)\subset U\}$ defines a subbase
this subase gives the compact open topology
to see why the proof is trivial let $\gamma\neq\omega$, so you have a point $a$ with $\gamma(a)\neq\omega(a)$, choose two disjoint neighbourhoods of $\gamma(a)$ and $\omega(a)$ and call thenm $U,V$. You have that $K(\{a\},U)$ and $K(\{b\},V)$ are disjoint and one contains $\gamma$ the other $\omega$
the first set is the set of all maps that send $a$ into $U$, the second set is all maps sending $a$ into $V$, since $U$ and $V$ are disjoint it is obvious that the two sets must be disjoint too

MAGIC^^
15:54
?
empty line
how did you do that
i'm cofnsued
Soft hyphen doesn't render
alt-0173
you submit a unicode character that doesnt hve width or height or something
15:55
It's a common way to troll on the internet :P
@Astyx I saw the remaining steps you had posted earlier, I didn't get how you arrived at the last step
Which one is that ?
Like, If I ask an MSE question and I just put that char down a few times
the one where you said you used the Bernoulli law
15:56
Then the question title will be empty, so no link to click on :D
Oh you linked it
I'm not too sure anymore. You'd probably have to apply Bienaymé-Tchebychev to that inequality to get bound it from above by $nV(Y)\over \epsilon_n^2$ where $Y+p$ follows Bernoulli
@AkivaWeinberger Magic
Magic indeed @Akiva
16:04
$U+2028$
ok I have no idea how to type unicode
@BalarkaSen Hi, future
@BalarkaSen Hi, past
So you get ${n p(1-p)\over \epsilon_n^2} \le {2\over \sqrt n}$ so $$\epsilon_n \ge \sqrt{n^{3/2}p(1-p)\over 2}$$
Lemme double-check that
@Akiva Fixed.
:38357941 Taking a gamble
gamble some more
16:07
Oh actually I guess you could get a better bound using what's just been done
47 boo
Gah.
How are these numbers even generated?
@AkivaWeinberger Hi
Hey, 64
16:09
Woo! Wait
But it didn't work
So you want to bound from above $P(\left|{\sum{X-p}}\right| \ge \epsilon_n n)$
The X-p satisfy what's just been done
@BalarkaSen Edit it and do nothing?
Now we make a case distinction wether $p\ge 1/2$ or not
16:10
@BalarkaSen It still gets that marker next to it that says it's been edited :(
Yeah I don't like it
:00000001 Test?
Hrm.
Maybe that's not from this room
@ChaoXu Test!
If it is, then $P(|\sum X-p|\ge \epsilon_nn) \le 2\exp\left({-\epsilon_n^2n^2 \over 2np^2}\right)$
So you want $-{1\over 2}\ln n \ge {-\epsilon_n^2 n\over 2p^2}$
Voyage to past.
Oldest message!
:9999999 Final message!
Probably that won't be in the room either.
So $\epsilon_n \ge p \sqrt{\ln n\over n}$ which is a way better bound
I'm surprised
That can't be right
Oh wait it can
That's the law of big numbers for bernoulli variables
I'm confused by how good this result is
@SoumyoB
16:20
Hey!
Hi
In cross product of vectors through components we only get a magnitude because $icap. icap = 1 (same for j and k)$ so how is that possible that we ain't getting any direction?
Please let me know if you don't understand the question.
You might want to add some $ there
@Astyx I don't know how to represent i cap through math jax
$\cap$
\cap
But I was reffering to your "$sameforjandk$"
16:25
Hi @Daminark
If two power series $\sum a_k x^k$ and $\sum b_k x^k$ coincide on any open set $U$ inside of the intersection of their disk of convergence, are they necessarily equal ? (even if $0\notin U$)
How do you prove that efficiently
In cross product of vectors through components we only get a magnitude because $\hati . \hati =1$ (same for y and z compoents). How is it possible that we ain;t obtaining any direction?
@Astyx I don't want this cap.
@Abcd Check this
Can you ping yourself ?
@Astyx Why?
@Abcd check this. //Test message
No we can't @Astyx.
How do you do that ?
Okay answers my question then
Thanks
16:51
WTF?
In mathematics, integrals of inverse functions can be computed by means of a formula that expresses the antiderivatives of the inverse f − 1 {\displaystyle f^{-1}} of a continuous and invertible function f {\displaystyle f} , in terms of f − 1 {\displaystyle f^{-1}} and an antiderivative of f {\d...
Nice proof without words
In mathematics, integration by parametric derivatives is a method of integrating certain functions. For example, suppose we want to find the integral ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e − 3 x d x . {\displaystyle \int _{0}^{\infty }x^{2}e^{-3x}\,dx.} Since this is a product of two functions that are simple t...
That, I guess, will only work if you can differentiate under the integral sign
17:09
Could someone please explain why $ \hat{i} - \hat{j} $ lies in the third quadrant?
According to me it should lie in the 4th Quadrant.
if $\hat{i}$ is in x direction and $\hat{j}$ is in y directon thenit must lie in 4th quadrant
@BAYMAX My book said it's in 3rd Quadrant therefore I got confused.
You want \hat{\imath} $\hat\imath$ and \hat{\jmath} $\hat\jmath$ (curly braces optional), by the way
\imath $\imath$ and \jmath $\jmath$ are like $i$ and $j$ but without the dots.
17:44
Hey @Balarka!
Yo Dami
my alergies are so bad today :C
Hello :) $A$ is compact,$ B$ is closed $ \Rightarrow A \cap B $ is compact ?
How's it going @Astyx?
Darn @Dodsy
Kinda good, you ?
17:51
Yes @Pawel
@Daminark Thanks :)
Do you know that a closed subset of a compact set is compact?
@Daminark I think I'm gonna study Serge Lang's Basic Mathematics before I go to school, what do you think?
And I'm doing alright, thanks! @Astyx!
if I have enough time I'll study spivak's calculus too
17:54
@Daminark Yes, I know, but Is the true in every topology ?
Anyone else know about serge langes basic maths?
or does anyone have better recomendations?
I'd like to gain a better foundation.
recommendation for what?
books to read before university
How would you describe your math level?
are you bored when you hear stuff like uniform continuity?
for analysis my favourite book eva is "Foundations of Modern Analysis" by Dieundonné
[The Weird Integral manuscript] this is so weird, I guess I need to wrote more definitions to clarify...
18:03
its not for a beginner, but if you are already a little bit acquainted with analysis its greatg
Can someone please tell me how to approach this problem (not the entire solution)?
Not a homework question ( I practice problems ...) . Secondly, it might be a basic question but I am new to this topic...
What have you tried ?
@Astyx Distance covered = 24 m
If a particule is at vector position $\vec{OM}$ at some point and it goes with velocity $\vec v$, where is it after some time $t$ ?
18:19
@Astyx velocity vector*t
Not quite
@Astyx $v_{avg} = (r_2 - r_1)/ \triangle t$
Not what I asked
@Astyx hello Astyx! Do you wish to continue?
Make a drawing
18:21
@Astyx I have it.
@Kirill Sure, where was I at ? What did you understand/misunderstand ?
@Abcd Show it to me
@Astyx let me summirize it in TeX for a minute
what was the symbol for $L(v)$ in Tex?
@s.harp I feel like I have problems simplifying sometimes.
\mathcal L(V)
18:24
I know how to make both sides equal in an equation to solve for x most of the time
but that's a little bit of a hang up
I'd like to review trig
and geometry
You can use $L(V)$ just as well, I just enjoy fancy typefonts :p
@Astyx So, what I got: there are many mysterious things :) But, first of all there is a space $\mathcal{L}(V)$ of linear functions, where composition is defined as a group/space operation. Then, we can define algebra on it. Then we spoke about the minimal polynomial but I couldn't get it all together.
It is the space of linear functions from $V$ to $V$
@Astyx what I do not understand is the way from projection to the diagonalization, eignvalues and why did you speak about the minimal polynomial.
18:29
That second part is important
why does fact that $c $ not belonging to $A_0,B_0$ contradicts the fact that $[a,b] = A_0 \cup B_0$ ?
@Astyx it was a direct sum of the kernels of prime polynomials, right?
And what $P(f)$ is when $P$ is a polynomial and $f$ an endomoprhism right ?
That second question is more important
@Astyx yes, though I do not have a formual now.
$P(f) = \sum a_k f^k \in \mathcal L(V)$
18:33
and $f^i \in \mathcal{L(V)}$, too?
Yes @Kirill
It's $\underbrace{f\circ f\circ \dots\circ f}_{i \text{ times}}$
Which is a linear application from $V$ to itself (check it if you doubt it)
Ideally, you should be confident enough about this for it to seem obvious to you
Hey, I'm back
@Astyx linear applicaton $\equiv$ linear map?
18:36
rehi
@PawełKusz yeah it is, try proving it
So now the minimal polynomial of $f$ is the unique nonzero unitary polynomial of minimal degree such that $P(f) = 0$ (we know it exists because $\{P\in \Bbb F[X]\mid P(f) = 0\}$ is what we call an ideal (ie a group that's absorbant for multiplication) ... and we'll see it's not trivial later)
@Kirill Yes
@Dodsy I don't know that Lang book much, Spivak is quality
@BalarkaSen Got anything clever upon your sleeve?
Although, actually, that's a strange way of putting it
I don't have much on my sleeves
I don't have sleeves
18:38
Anything upon your sheaves then?
No, but I have something beneath the fold of my collars.
@Astyx ok
Where does the king keep his armies?
Military bases.
Anti joke
"I don't need an army; I have an atom bomb on my arsenal."
18:39
…On?
Yep, right on top
Easy to dispatch.
Now the kernel lemma states that if $P_1, \dots P_n$ are coprime (their pairwise gcd is 1), then $$\ker P_1\dots P_n(f) = \bigoplus_{k=1}^n \ker P_k(f)$$
(The word you're looking for is "pairwise")
Thanks
18:41
@Astyx Nevermind...
@AkivaWeinberger I'm wondering if we can relate $\pi_n(X, A)$ with $\pi_n(X/A)$.
Found the solution ? @Abcd
But that's not particularly clever.
(Prepare for chat explosion)
[Integral symmetries: Attempt to formalise]
Definition

$\textbf{Elementary functions}$: Given $f \in \textrm{L}^p(\Bbb{F})$,$f$ is elementary if it can be expressed as a finite combination of $\textrm{exp}$, $\log$, $c\in \Bbb{F}$, powers and $\frac{p}{q},p,q \in \textrm{P}(\Bbb{F})$.

$\textbf{Standard integral functions}$: Given $f \in \textrm{L}^p(\Bbb{F})$, $a, a_k,b \in \Bbb{F}$, $f$ is a standard integral function if it take only linear arguments $a*\textrm{id}+b$ and is any of the following and its derivatives:

$\sin$, $\cos$, $\tan$, $\csc$, $\sec$, $\cot$,
@Daminark thanks.
18:44
@Kirill Got it ?
@Astyx not actually, I am thinking about the right question
The right question ?
Yeah Astyx the question you were talking about was wrong. It has a truth value of z e r o
@Astyx I think that is it: what is a kernel of a polynomial if we already put $f$ in it? I know about the kernel of a linear map, but here - not yet.
18:46
@Dami :'(
The kernel of a polynomial isn't a thing, I'm talking about the kernel of "the polynomial evaluated at $f$"
@Astyx or, could you please tell the formula in words?
:)
"The kernel of the endomorphism $P_1\dots P_n(f)$ is the direct product of the kernels of $P_i(f)$ for all $i$"
but it is a multiplication on the left side, right?
What is ?
@Astyx Yes.
18:49
Glad to hear it
@Astyx $\prod_{i=1}^{n}P_i(f)$? Or $(\prod_{i=1}^{n}P_i)(f)$?
Hey everyone
Oh right, by product I mean product of spaces
@Astyx Still one confusion. We are dealing with graphs right? How can we have- time, velocity, position - all in one graph?
Actually I mean sum, sorry I'm tired
18:52
In the context of linear algebra you'd be better off calling it a direct sum of spaces
@Astyx I do not know the product of spaces
Do you no about direct sums of subspaces of $V$ ?
@Astyx yes, a bit
@Abcd A graph isn't necessarily 2d
Oh yes.
18:53
So "The kernel of the endomorphism $P_1\dots P_n(f)$ is the direct sum of the kernels of $P_i(f)$ for all $i$"
I am trying to find a counterexample to the following claim but am having trouble: Let $f : X \to Y$ be a continuous function. If $A \subseteq$ has limit point $a$, and $f(a)$ is a limit point of $f(A)$, then $f$ is injective.
Sorry for the confusion
@Astyx I still do not get the left side
You agree $P_1\dots P_n$ is a polynomial right ?
@Astyx yes, but why an endomorphism?
18:55
(God did I really write no instead of know ? :()
Because $P_1\dots P_n(f)$ is a linear map $V\to V$
That is an endomorphism of $V$, ie an element of $\mathcal L(V)$
@Astyx let me smoke about it
Smoking is bad for your health
@Astyx yes, it is like Don Juan answered to Castaneda in his books :)
@Astyx I multiplied the velocity with time in that question. How is that possible on a graph?
@Secret Do you have any idea on the $E^{1/2}$ problem?
18:57
I don't get it @Abcd
@Astyx Castaneda said he had a problem. Don Huan said that he has already smoked about it
I actually discussed an important element of the solution earlier today
Heh :p
Guys, I'm trying to generalise the Chinese remainder theorem. A couple of months ago when I tried this, I wrote down the following, and never really came back to it:

"Consider $(\mathbb Z/n_1\mathbb Z)\times\dots\times(\mathbb Z/n_{t+1}\mathbb Z)=[(\mathbb Z/n_1\mathbb Z)\times\dots\times(\mathbb Z/n_t\mathbb Z)]\times(\mathbb Z/n_{t+1})$. Denote $N=\prod_{i=1}^t n_i$.

We know that $(\mathbb Z/N\mathbb Z)\cong(\mathbb Z/n_1\mathbb Z)\times\dots\times(\mathbb Z/n_t\mathbb Z)$. So there exists an isomorphism $f\colon(\mathbb Z/N\mathbb Z)\to(\mathbb Z/n_1\mathbb Z)\times\dots\times(\mathbb
@Astyx How does time* velocity yield displacement vector on a graph?
18:58
That's a lot of $\Bbb Z$
lol it is
By graph do you mean drawing ? @Abcd
@Astyx really, I need two minutes, as I was sure we were speaking about polynomials, and now it suddenly reveals to be a linear map
@Astyx Yes. How do I do this on a graph and obtain the answer that I obtained while working on paper?

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