Oh, I really don't know. I haven't read too much of your stuff---the complex geometry notes are hard to deal with because I just can't find anything :(
Maybe I'll give the diffgeo a shot once I'm tutoring on surfaces.
I'd like to learn a bit of Morse theory and slowly work towards gauge theory on the one hand (also a bit of knot theory if possible; perhaps more symplectic geometry to be able to use it?), and on the other hand work towards complex geometry and the theory of vector bundles (slowly catching up on algebra in the background)
In mathematics, Picard–Lefschetz theory studies the topology of a complex manifold by looking at the critical points of a holomorphic function on the manifold. It was introduced by Émile Picard for complex surfaces in his book Picard & Simart (1897), and extended to higher dimensions by Lefschetz (1924). It is a complex analog of Morse theory that studies the topology of a real manifold by looking at the critical points of a real function. Deligne & Katz (1973) extended Picard–Lefschetz theory to varieties over more general fields, and Deligne used this generalization in his proof of the We...
If I describe points with homogenous coordinates, read them as coefficent of a linear equation and map points to the zero set of this equation don't I have a map sending points to hyperplanes? (this depends on a choice of basis of course and there is no canonical one) @Ted I'm probably misremembering things from last year's geometry course since we never used the name "dual space" explicitely
Looking presently at the intro physics course I'm TA'ing for (as well as my previous experience in the subject) I -know- that college physics is pretty shitty
For instance, why do we assign lab reports? At the end of the day it's not for any pedagogical purpose; it's because it means that the class counts as 'writing intensive' and therefore people are more likely to take it to satisfy that requirement.
Fix $y \in Y$ and consider the constant sequence $\{y\}$. Since $f_n \rightarrow f$ this means that $f_m(y) \rightarrow f(y)$. Since each $f_m$ is continous we have $f_m(y) \rightarrow f(y)$
Yeah, @Alessandro, if you have a linear map $V\to W$, you get an induced map $W^*\to V^*$, hence inducing one on the projectivizations. But this is not what we were doing.
How does that correspondence work, out of curiousity? For instance, if I've got a point $[x,y,z]$ in $\Bbb P^{2*}$, what's the corresponding line in $\Bbb P^2$?
Ah, I see, the fact that if $2$ subspaces are incident in the projective space their duals will be incident in the dual space is true though, right? And if $A\subseteq B$ in the projective space this inclusion is reversed when I consider their duals
@Alessandro: if you have two lines in $\Bbb P^2$, they intersect in a point, and So projective duality says that the point corresponds to the line through the corresponding points in $\Bbb P^2{}^*$.
I.e., the point corresponds to the pencil of lines through that point.
If $F$ is a field, $V$ a $F$-vectorspace and $A,B\subset V$, then the following holds: $\langle A\cap B\rangle _{K}=\langle A\rangle _K \cap\langle B\rangle _K$
My counterexample would be: R as the Field, Q as the vectorspace, and A={1}, B={2}. The span of $A\cap B$ would be the 0-vector. The span of A would be Q, the span of B would be Q. And the intersection of Q and Q is Q itself, which is not the 0-vector.
Because that particular limit could exist and have $\lim_{h\to 0} \dfrac{f(h)-f(0)}h$ still not exist, @user379685. Continuity of the function won't do it.
Are you in a calculus class or an analysis class, @user379685?
@TedShifrin I don't see what exactly you mean. I proved already that the Picard group of $\Bbb P^n$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb Z$ (so they're classified by first Chern class).
Semiclassic, I've had plenty of people whom I've helped with a sketch (as an answer) and then further hints. They then write up a solution and accept their own answer. That annoys me.