@TobiasFünke That's not true; if the system microstate multiplicity increases sharply enough with energy, then there can be macrostate probabilities above ground state that is higher than ground state.
well doesnt that depend on what the conditions are
how many energy states are available, what temp were at, etc
my textbook said in many cases it can be a reasonable assumption that there will be enough energy states available that at a high enough temperature the overlap is minimal
It is important to understand the difference here because it will be the important difference between microstates and macrostates multiplicity and how canonical ensembles give rise to the seeming stability of macrostates
FD and BE stats are coming from symmetry of the wavefunctions as required by CCR/CAR. It is slightly different from this point.
@ACuriousMind Im not sure how much of that we can agree upon. Nobody complains that positions and vector components depend upon the coördinates chosen, and that it takes some effort to focus strictly upon actually invariant physical quantities, yet somehow it is different when we come to QFT renormalisation.
@naturallyInconsistent Fair point, but coordinates are also treated confusingly and strangely when they get into focus ;) (see all the confusion about the nature of GR)
@TobiasFünke In the topic of directional derivatives of functions and functionals, that we talked about. I have a question, which is mostly related to math, but I'd like to know the answer to it for personal reasons. I believe I can consider the total differential of a function f(x) as
the directional derivative in some arbitrary direction of an infinitesimal vector dx ? If the total derivative is taken to be zero, that would imply that the gradient of the function and the vector dx are perpendicular to each other. But at the same time the gradient points at the steepest change and the differential df(x)=0 gives the value, for which f(x) has an extrema. So how is it that they are perpendicular (gradient and infinitesimal vector dx) and not parallel?
I was able to figure it out. If you are in a level contour and the infinitesimal vector dx is tangent to it, then the total derivative is zero, because the gradient is perpendicular to dx. If you are in an extremum point in that case df(x)=0 because the gradient itself is zero
And one cannot talk about projection
because in the infinitesimal region close to the extream point, there is flatness, and as such the gradient is zero
@ACuriousMind yes, but that only strengthens myow point. People freak out over the myriad manifestations in inconsistent manners, so what are we supposed to do?
And the functional we consider the the action. When we say that we want the first variation of it to be zero and at the same time the first derivate as such, you'd get an extrema. The function that corresponds to the extrema value of the functional is found out by solving the EL equation @RyderRude right?
I was under the false idea that the action says that the system chooses the shortest path, because in the example that we were given on the topic, it was that of a ball going from a to b, and the fact that the path taken was the shortest. So I related $\delta S=0$ with the shortest path. Wrongfully of course
@RyderRude You are right.
@RyderRude One more thing I want to ask, because of something you said, which was: ""length" is usually not well defined for paths in the configuration space" But isn't the 3D Euclidian space such a space? Don't we talk about paths in this space?
@imbAF the 3D space is the physical space. for $n$ particles, u need 3n dimensional configuration space. this is the space (+ time) on which the path of Hamilton's principle lies
e.g. for two particles, u would consider a path in 7D space (6 dof for the particles and 1 time)
@imbAF the configuration space is usually defined without time
paths of the systems lie on $\text{configuration space}\times \text{R}$
@imbAF the phase space usually has twice the dimension of configuration space
this is because the configuration space only encodes positions, while phase space also encodes momenta
u can do a Legendre transform to go from Lagrangian to Hamiltonian mech. this will translate the physics from the configuration space to the phase space @imbAF
@naturallyInconsistent Despair :P I think you perhaps read my response to SillyGoose as agreeing/supporting this common view, but I was more just trying to explain what that view is. I'm not really agreeing with it - but as I said I'm not comfortable enough with my own understanding of renormalization to have a strong opinion either way
@RyderRude In configuration space of a system, a points represent what/interpreted as what? I am asking this because, I read the following about action functional S : "Action principles start with an energy function called a Lagrangian describing the physical system. The accumulated value of this energy function between two states of the system is called the action." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Action_principles#:~:text=Action%20principles%20start%20with%20an%20energy%20function%20called%20a%20Lagrangian%20describing%20the%20physical%20system.%20The%20accumulated%20value%20of%20this%20en…
@imbAF what the point represents depends on the system. also, wiki shouldnt call it "energy" to avoid confusion
@imbAF the general idea is that, if $q$ is a point on the configuration space, then $q, \dot {q}$ should correspond to a state of the system
this is analogous to phase space where $(q,p)$ represents the state of the system
@imbAF for particle mechanics, what the point represents is an aggregate of the positions of all the particles, which is why the space is somethign like $R^{3N}$ when we have $N$ particles that each each move around in $R^3$
u might also learn tangent bundle and cotangent bundle. the cotangent bundle is how the phase space relates to the configuration space
as in , the phase space is the cotangent bundle of the configuration space
@RyderRude For a particle in $R^{2}$ the set of configurations, that need to satisfy mathematical constrains, give a manifold, right? Would this manifold in this case, be a surface in $R^{3}$ ?
Yeah, I am trying to understand, geometrically what a manifold is, the same way that if I tell you a vector in $R^3$, you imagine a arrow in some direction
@RyderRude Yes, because of constrains, you get a set of configurations, which give the manifold
So, I simply wanted to visualize a manifold, the same way I can, for a vector
And i considered the simple case of 1 particle in $R^3$
i think what ur book is saying is that, e.g. if the particle movies in $R^2$, but the particle is confined to a sub-space of $R^2$, then the set of configurations that the particle can take is a submanifold of R^2
@imbAF If you don't know what a manifold is but the text you're reading is using that word as if you should know what it means, you're simply reading the wrong text for your level.
what i can tell is that. e.g. say, the particle lives in 3D space. but say, the particle is confined to move in a circle. then the space of configurations becomes a cirlce which is a sub-manifold of $R^3$
If you want to understand what a manifold is, you should read an actual text on the topic, i.e. either some GR physics texts or math texts on differential geometry. If you want to understand classical mechanics, you should read a classical mechanics textbook. Whatever you're doing currently, these questions reveal it is not working at all.
I am reading about configuration space. That is a concept present in mechanics. And as to how a set of configurations of the system is defined, it involves the use of manifolds. And I don't know what that is. I simply wanted to know whether my hunch about what it looks like (visually) was correct. But I don't want to invest much on it, since as @ACuriousMind said, that is beyond my level at the moment
But I am taking a course which involves manifolds, topologies etc. So once I reach these concepts, things might be clearer
@RyderRude the whole point is that they're doing that and this has led them to the misguided idea that $\mathbb{R}^n$ is not a manifold - that's where the strange question about constraints and surfaces above comes from
@imbAF I'm sorry, how are you attending a differential geometry course and don't know what a manifold is? The definition of a manifold should be the first thing you learn in such a course.
"this has led them to the misguided idea that $\mathbb{R}^n$ is not a manifold - that's where the strange question about constraints and surfaces above comes from"
@ACuriousMind Logic -> set theory -> topology -> Topological manifolds -> differential manifolds -> Bundles -> Geometry (simple and metric)-> applications in CM,EM,QM,SP ,SR & GR this is the structure of course
@qwerty They asked about whether the "configuration space" is a surface in $\mathbb{R}^3$ because they didn't realize that the normal $\mathbb{R}^3$ is a perfectly fine manifold on its own (and hence an admissible configuration space) because the visualization is that we always draw manifolds as these little embedded surfaces/shapes.
@ACuriousMind ohhh :S I see. I would not have thought this was a pitfall, since you usually say it has n dimensions. Like the way a mathsy book will even say 2-sphere instead of sphere.
@imbAF Not necessarily, but when you say "a differential geometry course", that sounded like a math course. If you put a pure math subject next to the word "course", the default assumption is not that it's a "for physicists" version :P
@User198 It's literally just "mechanics" but done by mathematicians/mathematical physicists :P
If you want to do rigorous formulations of classical mechanics, that's the kind of math you end up with; there no particular "choice" involved to use geometry instead of something else, differential geometry is just the right tool for the job, since the physicists are writing down differential equations on spaces mapped by real coordinates
I mean, in terms of particles all that $\delta$-function is doing is indeed momentum conservation: the ingoing and the outgoing particle (two-point function is "1-to-1 scattering") have the same momentum
probably if you want to interpret this in terms of particles there's some convention that gives you a - on the outgoing particle
I just know that in hep-th QFT (which certainly is Poincaré and hence in particular translation invariant!) you always have a $\delta$-function in the momentum-space functions that enforces total momentum conversation between the inputs and outputs
here, for instance, the difference could come from your position-space version not being time-ordered (because you're not doing particle scattering), so this momentum-space function is not a scattering amplitude
We can integrate the action of a system over arbitrary small time intervals, and hence get arbitrary small values. But does it physically have any meaning when the action of a system is smaller than $h$?
Short answer: nobody knows, but the Planck length is more numerology than physics at this point
Long answer: Suppose you are a theoretical physicist. Your work doesn't involve units, just math--you never use the fact that $c = 3 \times 10^8 m/s$, but you probably have $c$ pop up in a few differe...
> Update: Things are taking a little longer than expected, and we're still working on chat.meta.stackexchange.com. Once this one is finished, the other chat servers should still only take up to 15 minutes.
I saw on one page today (not about physics, but a page connected with education in general; some university information posts and some administration): "Schrodinger equation can be regarded as a statement of conservation of energy in quantum mechanics." Idk why they are writing about the Schrodinger equation at all. xD
But how wrong is that?
I think it is wrong, because (I guess) the person writing that thinks that $i\hbar\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}\equiv \hat E= \hat H \psi$ so $\hat E= \hat H \psi$ and that is wrong. Should I notify them that that post is wrong?
@User198 I don't understand what you mean (your equations do not make any sense to me). However, "Schrödinger equation" can mean the time-dependent Schrödinger equation, which for hermitian and time-independent Hamiltonian implies unitary time evolution and that the energy expectation value is constant: $\langle \psi(t), H\psi(t)\rangle= \langle \psi_0, U^*HU\psi_0\rangle=\langle \psi_0,H\psi_0\rangle$.
or any other similar statement regarding the Heisenberg EOM and so on.
That being said, I wouldn't state a a sentence like this (the statement you post).
@TobiasFünke Maybe I overcomplicated, disregard the equations. All in all, saying that "Schrodinger equation is a statement of conservation of energy" is not a correct statement (even meaningless), right?
aw it's tomorrow, you can do it!! I have known enough academics to know that the art of writing a talk on the plane three hours before a conference is a common one...