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4:01 PM
I made G = 1 / 60
and that helped
 
Anonymous
If $\psi(x,t)$ (in Schrodinger's equation) is written as $\phi(x)T(t)$, then what is the physical significance of $T(t)$ which comes out to be $e^{\frac{-iEt}{\hbar}}$ ? If there were no imaginary term involved I could have thought of it as representing the time-evolution of $\phi(x)$. But then, we can write $e^{iz}=\cos(z)+i\sin(z)$. Does the imaginary part of $T(t)$ represent the time evolution of the imaginary part of $\phi$ ? Or something else?
 
@Blue it's the time evolution. What has it being complex to do with anything?
 
@Tobi Try modelling a circular orbit i.e. start with a tangential velocity $\sqrt(GM/r}$. My guess is that you'll find your orbit spirals outwards or inwards because your algorithm doesn't conserve energy.
 
i did that, let me show you
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Time evolution of "what" exactly. I think of a wave function's real part being a vibration/wave in the vertical plane (say) while I think of the wave function's imaginary part as the vibration/wave in the horizontal plane. $T(t)$ represents the time evolution of both the vertical and horizontal displacements?
 
Anonymous
4:05 PM
Aug 5 at 14:11, by AccidentalFourierTransform
real part=vertical displacement; imaginary part=horizontal displacement?
 
@Blue Displacement of what? It's a QM wavefunction, not an actual wave.
Do not think of a QM wavefunction as representing any sort of "vibration"
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Matter waves?
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind uh
 
Anonymous
I think I'm thinking of wavefunctions the wrong way :/
 
4:07 PM
@JohnRennie PC made it into the new apartment in one piece
 
@Blue Yes, it's a wavefunction that represents matter, but the only significance it really has is that its squared modulus gives the probability density to detect the particle at a given location
 
Gonna have a pretty sweet setup
Going to Best Buy later. Good chance I'll have a new keyboard
 
$\psi(x)$ itself has no direct physical significance - it's not something "vibrating"
 
@Tobi it's hard to tell with an elliptical orbit, though at a glance that doesn't seem too bad. It doesn't obviously precess or change the maximum and minimum distances.
@0celóñe7 Cool :-) You back at university?
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Ah. So we can't visulize it or simulate that wavefunction $\psi(x)$. I see. Difficult to digest it though
 
4:08 PM
@Blue Now if it were a single wave function, the phase term would drop out. But if there were a superposition of different wavefunctions, then the T term comes in the probability
 
@Blue Why wouldn't we be able to simulate it?
 
@Blue You can plot the probabilities, $|\psi|^2$ (remember what you did in jee qm :P?)
 
@Tobi you might want to Google runge katta orbit or something like that. The Runge Katta method is not a symplectic integrator but it's fairly simple and quite accurate.
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind By "simulate" I meant making a computer model of it. Like we can plot $A\sin(wt-kx)$ as a plane progressive wave on Desmos :P
 
Anonymous
Is there any similar way to "plot" $\psi(x,t)$ ? I hope not
 
4:10 PM
in The Nineteenth Byte, 1 min ago, by user3200293
"In the game of golf, you win by minimising the number of strokes to complete the game. "

Now where I'm from we call that a game of non-reproductive sex, not golf.
 
Anonymous
@PrathyushPoduval Yeah, but that's not what I'm asking
 
Some spoilsport just flagged that :-)
 
@Blue Well, you can plot a wavefunction, too. It's a function, you can plot functions regardless of whether they have any physical meaning
 
@Blue Well, you can imagine it as a vector if you want to
 
what's wrong with velocity += M/r^2
 
4:12 PM
The sum of all the different vectors is a superposition
and the length os the vector is the probaility
 
@Tobi That you're treating the acceleration as constant over the duration of the frame when it isn't.
 
@JohnRennie mhm
 
@Tobi you are assuming the acceleration is constant but of course it isn't. That means you over or under estimate the real velocity change.
 
@Blue people.fas.harvard.edu/~djmorin/waves/interference.pdf He deals with complex functions, and shows it geometrically, could be helpful
 
what if i average it?
 
4:13 PM
go to the diffraction part
 
of somehow find average
with like integration
or some maths
 
John already told you the correct solution, it's called a symplectic integrator.
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Ok. So we can write $Ae^{i(kx)}.e^{-\frac{iEt}{\hbar}}$ and plot it to get the time evolution of horizontal and vertical displacements even though that has no physical significance. I get it. Thanks
 
@Blue ...why is there both an $\omega t$ and an $Et$ term in there?
 
@Tobi I have done that in the past and it does help. Take a at your start point and calculate the end point, then calculate a at the end point. Now average the two values of a, then go back to your start point and recalculate the velocity change. Repeat this until the value of a converges.
The only problem is that this isn't a very efficient algorithm.
 
Anonymous
4:15 PM
@ACuriousMind Oops...typo
 
@ACuriousMind to be fair symplectic integrators are not beginner friendly ...
 
can't I use integration/differentiation, as opposed to brute force
 
Well you are using integration. You are performing a numerical integration of the equation of motion.
You can calculate the trajectory analytically by solving the equation of motion, but that's surprisingly painful for orbital motion.
 
Anonymous
@PrathyushPoduval Ah, I was looking for the "physical significance" of the $T(t)$ separately I guess. But thanks. I look through it
 
Anonymous
As ACM said, $\psi$ doesn't have any physical significance by itself
 
Anonymous
4:18 PM
I think I get it
 
im confused again
i havent been to university
only a level physics
 
@ACuriousMind what?
 
if i plot a graph of a / t, the area under graph is change in velocity, correct?
I could integrate the equation relating acceleration and time
between two intervals
 
I've never heard of that
 
@Blue Yes there is no significance. But, the vector analogy has gotten me thinking now......
 
Anonymous
4:22 PM
Vector analogy is just to make the math easy...I don't think it contributes much to the logic.
 
connected rates of change!!!!
a-r r-v v-t
 
@Tobi yes, but unless you can do the integration analytically you typically calculate the area by using small strips of some width $\Delta t$.
 
can't you find exact forumla
instead of strips
i.e: area under 2x = x^2
instead of using strips under graph
 
Yes, for orbits you can solve the equation analytically and get a precise formula for the position and speed as a function of time. But the equations are pretty complicated.
 
complicated to a human
 
4:26 PM
@Blue Just because something doesn't contribute much doesn't mean it's not worth taking a look into it :P
 
they're single expressions for a computer, as opposed to a function involving segmenting graph
 
@Tobi I think you're talking about symbolic integration but that's pretty hard.
Programs like Mathematica and Matlab can do it, but thoise are big and expensive apps.
 
what are you talking about? i thought that was normal integration
 
Yes, but you're asking the computer to do it aren't you?
 
i can figure out the formula on paper, and hardcode it
 
Anonymous
4:29 PM
@PrathyushPoduval I never said that. I'll take a look at it. (I think I did read that article you linked sometime earlier...in grade 12)
 
Anonymous
Thanks though :)
 
@Tobi Ah OK, we are talking at cross purposes. Yes, you can do the integration yourself on paper. But for orbits involving only two bodies it's complicated and for three or more bodies you can't do it at all.
 
@0celóñe7 Well, have you dealt with numerical solutions of differential equations to simulate physical systems?
 
the change in velocities are individual
you run the formula for each pair
 
@JohnRennie Indeed they aren't, but as far as I know there's no better solution to the "not conserving energy" problem
 
4:32 PM
@ACuriousMind Runge Katta is pretty good and fairly simple to implement
 
@Tobi Of course you can, but then you're not doing what one would call a "simulation", you're just plotting analytical results
 
what do you mean
 
I suspect we are talking at cross purposes again.
 
for each interval, you grab each pair ( O(n^2) ) and calc change in velocity, due to gravity
what do you mean by cross purpose?
 
@Tobi I mean we are taking about different things
 
4:34 PM
Also, as soon as you have more than two objects, you can't hardcode the analytical solution anymore because the n-body problem doesn't have a general analytical solution
 
what im doing is updating velocity at regular intervals
if you have 3 objects, you run the gravity change on every object twice
so it accounts for every other gravitational field
 
@Tobi but your calculated change in velocity is an approximation
 
how so?
lemme show you what i mean
 
Because when more than 2 bodies are involved there is no equation that exactly describes the velocity change
 
4:37 PM
Yes you can calculate the acceleration at a moment in time. But as soon as your objects move the acceleration changes.
 
hence integration of a/t, for delta v
 
So if you assume a constant acceleration for some small time $\Delta t$ and use that to calculate the motion your calculated motion will be wrong.
And when three bodies are present there is no equation to calculate exactly how the acceleration changes with time
 
@ACuriousMind It's poorly worded. The text reads like it is identifying a particular so—this one electron decayed after 80ns—so the reader has to infer that this is a typical lifetime before they can even begin.
Or take a Baysean stance that the one observation represent their best current knowledge.
But either way that is a unecessary sticking point.
 
@JohnRennie you use the resultant vector, of the change in velocity, calcuated via integration, not constant acceleration
 
When three bodies are present you can't do the integration
 
4:40 PM
Certainly the physics connection between lifetimes and width is important.
 
@Tobi Point is you can't "calculate via integration" for more than two bodies.
 
In physics and classical mechanics, the three-body problem is the problem of taking an initial set of data that specifies the positions, masses, and velocities of three bodies for some particular point in time and then determining the motions of the three bodies, in accordance with Newton's laws of motion and of universal gravitation which are the laws of classical mechanics. The three-body problem is a special case of the n-body problem. Historically, the first specific three-body problem to receive extended study was the one involving the Moon, the Earth, and the Sun. In an extended modern sense...
 
maybe i just solved a physics problem
cos it makes sense in my head
 
Then you should write to the Nobel committee immediately
 
Isn't that a bit arrogant
is ur proposal to use smaller time intervals
 
4:43 PM
My proposal is that you should use a more sophisticated way of calculating the motion. The Runge Katta method is good and still reasonably simple.
Symplectic integration is best, but there is some scary maths involved - I would hesitate before attempting to implement a symplectic integrator.
 
What the hell are you people talking about
@ACuriousMind yes
 
then you should know what the hell we are talking about :P
 
i hate physics
 
What are you doing in a physics chat, then? :P
 
@ACuriousMind I just do RK and put the step size small
I have a good COU
@Tobi good man
 
Anonymous
4:54 PM
@ACuriousMind Even @0celóñe7 hates physics but yet he lives here :P
 
Because I love the people here
 
Anonymous
This chat is for both who love physics and hate physics. Not for those who don't care about it :D
 
@ACuriousMind is forgetting that stack exchange is a social network
 
Anonymous
@0celóñe7 awww :'D
 
@Blue His superficial hatred is but a mask for a deep-seated love.
 
4:56 PM
I won't deny a love for parts of physics
 
how can you love it
its unnecessary brain strain
 
Are you a mathematician?
 
5:12 PM
@Blue Oh sorry, i must have misunderstood then. I never though of the wave function having any physical meaning, and your questions got me thinking
 
@Tobi if physics were easy it wouldn't be a challenge and there wouldn't be any sense of satisfaction when you finally understood some part of it.
 
@0celóñe7 nope, CS
 
Anonymous
@PrathyushPoduval What does Feynman say about that? (Did you read his lectures on that topic?)
 
@JohnRennie everything was solved 100 years ago
todays physicists are theorists
 
Anonymous
lol.
 
5:15 PM
not really, wait until you touch astronomy and condensed matter
you will found out how deep this rabbit hole is
 
Or quantum optics. That's a scary deep rabbit hole :-)
 
@Blue Nope, i didn't read his book on it. I got bored when I read it, since he went on about electron beams and all. I prefer a (somewhat rigorous) mathematical treatment on the topic (a.k.a Griffiths :P)
 
@Tobi ::facepalm::
 
Anonymous
In physics most often experiments help to point out faults in theory. And then the theory is modified (or atleast people try to do so).
 
@dmckee you god damn theorist
@Tobi has spoken
 
Anonymous
5:19 PM
@PrathyushPoduval An interesting set of comments (researchgate.net/post/…)
2
 
Classroom physics is mostly theory, and the physics in poop-sci books is mostly theory.
 
pooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooop-sci book
 
But physics in the real world is complicated, messy, and very much bothered with the real wolrd.
 
@Blue Most of them are saying "no,no,no....":P
 
@Secret ::chuchles:: I've made that typo twice recently. A Freudian would say my subconscious is trying to tell me something.
 
Anonymous
@PrathyushPoduval Check Malcolm White's comment
 
well, they are quite terrible at communicate the more abstract experimental results accurately like quantum weirdness and particle physics stuff
but then, it is practically impossible to teach high level group theory to a toddler
 
@Blue That does make a lot of sense
Your asking for the physical meaning of something which describe our notion of "physicsal meaning"
 
Quantum fundamentals is where physics careers go to die.
2
Which is funny because we're all interested in the subject. But smart people do it after tenure or as a retirement project.
 
Anonymous
Quantum computing seems to be a career path with lot of scope though.
 
5:25 PM
And it will doubtless throw much fuel on the fire of quantum fundamentals.
We should be making popcorn or something.
 
vzn
@dmckee (lol) and do you think Bell or Bohm had careers that "died"?
@PrathyushPoduval try eg Cavalcanti/ Fedrizzi (et al) for more recent ideas newscientist.com/article/…
 
@vzn Thanks, going through it
 
Everybody in physics seemed to be looking forward to larger commericial quantum computers by the end of this year, as far rumors has it
 
If two objects are receding
 
and we computational chemist too, for an enzyme reaction pathways can be speed up to take just minutes to done on a quanutm computer
 
5:34 PM
will they eventually meet, due to gravity
 
vzn
@PrathyushPoduval so what are your thoughts then?
 
@vzn Well, I dont contest the fact that the wave function is real
It was just, whether you can get some physical meaning of it
 
vzn
@PrathyushPoduval huh, freudian slip? you seem to have phrased that incorrectly?
 
For me, I am psi ontic and agnostic on the interaction that lead to measurement, but I am perfectly fine working with psi epistemic models if need to. I am also learning some Qbism
 
@vzn Nope :P, its like how wave function(not QM) gives you the position of particles vectors give you the displacement of the particles.
So when blue asked the question whether it had any physical meaning, I thought about the wave function being imagined as a rotating vector in 2d
 
vzn
5:38 PM
@PrathyushPoduval the copenhagen interpretation seems to inherently deny the "reality of the wavefn". are you a student? physics? india?
@PrathyushPoduval a very worthwhile/ substantial/ significant question! have some (new) ideas along those lines if you want to hear them. :)
 
@vzn Oh no, I t was just an idea, nothing serious
@vzn I would very much like to
 
no, cophenhagan is agnostic of the reality of the wavefunction, it neither denies nor embrace it
 
vzn
@PrathyushPoduval ok, am working out details, but there are (many) other physical/ classical waves that can be represented with complex fns. unf this is rarely taught or emphasized.
 
@vzn The thing is, I saw a similar thing in optics
 
Anonymous
@PrathyushPoduval By optics you probably mean wave optics(?)
 
5:40 PM
@Blue yup
The handout i sent you
 
vzn
speaking earlier of rabbit holes, personally think the ultimate rabbit hole is reinterpretation of QM wrt reality of wavefn etc...
 
@vzn What do you mean?
 
@vzn It's taught all the time in E&M, though the first time it is introduced it's hidden behind the word 'phasor'.
 
Yeah it is
 
And electrical engineering. Like, all the time.
Impedance is a complex number exactly for this reason.
 
vzn
5:44 PM
@DanielSank something along the lines of Cavalcanti just cited. ok, am just gonna come right out and say it, theres such a thing as space waves and mainstream physics is in simultaneous massive embrace and denial of it. (love/ hate relationship as they say!)
 
I don't understand.
 
vzn
@DanielSank lol exactly :P
 
Now there is a bit of a difference in quantum.
The equation $[x,p] \propto i$ means that there's more going on than representing a real function with a phasor.
@dmckee ^
 
Sure. But the complex exponential form of waves is used all over physics.
Occasionally you see an author switch a from the real representation to the complex for a few steps and back just because it simplifies a development.
Students hate that, of course.
 
Yes of course. That's just because $$f(t) = \int \tilde{f}(\omega) e^{i \omega t} \, \frac{d\omega}{2 \pi }$$
 
5:47 PM
I did too when I was their age.
 
Students hate it because nobody ever explains what the hell is going on.
 
vzn
@DanielSank lol because "nobody" really knows :P
 
They explained to me, it just sluiced off the first time like water over a duck.
 
@vzn False.
 
Anonymous
@DanielSank I strongly agree =P
 
5:49 PM
Am I the only one who finds "intuitive" explanations like this completely unintuitive and confusing
 
You have to find a place to take advantage of it before you pay enough attention for it to really stick. Or at least I did.
 
Anonymous
All of a sudden my electronics prof started using $Ae^{i(wt-kx)}$ as the wave function. Phew
 
Intuitive what?
@dmckee Or you need your curriculum to actually take time to teach math rather than expecting students to just magically understand it when random tidbits are crammed down their throats in a lecture.
 
Why does switching back and forth from real to complex need to be explained at all?
 
But you know, maybe I'm just bitter and have strong opinions.
 
5:50 PM
@DanielSank this
You're not bitter, I completely agree.
 
@0celóñe7 Because it's not at all obvious why it works.
I don't want to hear why you understand it.
 
There should be a class where they teach students some rigorous math. I'm not talking about analysis, just some basic set theory, notation and terminology
 
The fact is that most students don't and that's what matters.
 
And it might be helpful to know what an open set is
 
Anonymous
@DanielSank I don't think the problem is with the math really. I think the problem is that students don't understand what the imaginary term signifies (as in a "physical interpretation")
 
5:51 PM
@Blue I actually have experience with this.
 
@DanielSank Well, some places do Math Methods, but it usually comes too late for some of the earlier tricks. But a lot of students don't integrate it well.
 
One summer, I gave a two-part presentation at my college's student journal club.
I explained the Fourier transform from the point of view of linear algebra.
 
Oh god not this again
 
It was very successful. Everyone said they understood many things much better.
 
I've heard of departments waffling back and forth between having Math Methods and teaching math as they go because neither solution is fully satisfactory.
 
5:52 PM
@0celóñe7 Go away if you don't want to hear it.
 
@DanielSank huh, I never thought of that
@ACuriousMind Still putting the PC on BBS and Zee QFT >:3
 
Now, if a physics department can't spend three hours teaching their students about Fourier transforms in a not dumbass way, then they're so screwed from the beginning that I don't know what to day.
 
@DanielSank should the students get a tutorial on integration?
 
Sid
What's the difference between :P and =P ?
Longer eyes?
 
I doubt it but I don't know what you have in mind.
 
5:54 PM
Fourier transforms don't make that much sense with Riemann integrals
 
Could you possibly leave the rigorous analysis trolling for later?
 
Anonymous
@Sid ;P
 
Hey!
Could anyone explain why in an isobaric process $Q:\Delta U:V= nC_p\Delta T:nC_v\Delta T:R$?
 
Sid
Triangle? What triangle?
 
@Sid Delta :p
 
Anonymous
5:57 PM
That's by definition
 
Anonymous
Read a physics book
 
I know the first law of thermodynamics $dU = dQ- dW
$
And I know that none of the quantities is $0$ in an isobaric process
 
Anonymous
Yeah, so $dU=nC_vdT$ for ideal gases
 
@Blue But here there's work being done by the gas too
You can't consider $dU= dQ$ @Blue
 
Anonymous
For isobaric process $dQ=nC_pdT$
 
6:00 PM
@Blue That's not particularly helpful, is it?
 
Anonymous
@DanielSank Nope.
 
Anonymous
I'm trying to explain
 
Anonymous
So, $dQ=dU+dW$ where, $dW=PdV=nRdT$
 
Sid
@Abcd Who said that $dU=dQ$?
 
@Blue Yes
 
Anonymous
6:02 PM
Actually read up the definition of $C_p$ first
 
@Blue I know it
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Then you know why $dQ=nC_pdT$ for isobaric process
 
@Blue yes, I know that
 
Sid
@Abcd I don't understand what exactly you are asking, then.
 
Anonymous
Then can you derive $C_p=C_v+R$ ?
 
Anonymous
6:04 PM
Meyer's relation
 
@DanielSank How does one do fourier transform in the view of linear algebra, are we using an inner product space here?
 
@Blue Yes. I have derived that earlier today
 
Anonymous
So, what's your question?
 
How did to get that ratio @Blue?
Should I merely substitute and obtain it?
 
Anonymous
Yes
 
6:12 PM
@Blue $dU = (R+C_v)dT - dW$.(In an isobaric process) What should be the next step?
 
Sid
...Are you sure about that?
 
Anonymous
What are you trying to do?
 
@Blue To obtain the ratio!
 
Anonymous
Just write dU,dQ and take their ratio
 
17 mins ago, by Abcd
Could anyone explain why in an isobaric process $Q:\Delta U:V= nC_p\Delta T:nC_v\Delta T:R$?
 
Anonymous
6:14 PM
$dU=nC_vdT$,$dQ=nC_pdT$
 
Anonymous
$dQ:dU=nC_pdT:nC_vdT$
 
Anonymous
What does $V$ on the left stand for?
 
@Blue How is $dU$ = $nC_vdT$
 
Is there a derivation for the Laplace transform? I asked a lecturer but he didn't know : (
 
@Secret A vector space is a set of thingies that you can add and multiply by a scalar.
Vector spaces have bases.
 
6:17 PM
no trouble.
 
$Q:\Delta U:W= nC_p\Delta T:nC_v\Delta T:R$ . Sorry @Blue
 
In other words, given a vector $|v\rangle$, you can write $|v \rangle = \sum_i v_i^e |e_i \rangle \, . $$
 
Anonymous
@Abcd $U$ can be written as a function of $T$ and $V$. $dU=\frac{\partial U}{\partial T} dT + \frac{\partial U}{\partial V}dV$. The second term is $0$ for ideal gases
 
@Phase It seems more like something that is defined than something that is derived. Unless you want to start with some properties and derive the transform that satisfies those properties....
 
Here $\{ |e_i \rangle \}$ is a basis and $v_i^e$ is the "$i^\text{th}$ component of $|v \rangle$ in that basis."
@Secret I wait for confirmation from you.
 
6:19 PM
yup
 
partial differentiation is no different from ordinary differentiation
 
Yeah ok so consider the set of functions of one real variable.
If you add two of them together, you get another one, and if you multiply by a scalar, you get another one.
 
@Blue Then?
 
Therefore, we have a vector space.
 
yup, the set of functions form a vector space
 
6:20 PM
you should use a Hamel basis, those are easier to work with
 
The very fact that we can write $$f(x) = \int \frac{dk}{2\pi} \tilde{f}(k) e^{i k x}$$ means, by definition, that $\exp{i k x}$ is a basis.
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Now think why $\partial{U}/\partial{T}=nC_v$ for constant volume.
 
@Blue But we are dealing with isobaric processes not isochoric process
 
$\tilde{f}(k)$ are the coefficients of $|f \rangle$ in the $e^{ikx}$ basis.
 
Anonymous
@Abcd In any process $dU=nC_vdT$ for ideal gases
 
6:21 PM
Here are some illuminating equations:
 
in the $e^{\cdot}$ basis you mean, right?
 
@Blue Alright, I didn't know that. How? $C_v$ is for constant volume only/
 
Anonymous
$dQ=dU+dW$. For isochoric process, $dQ=dU$....so....you get the expression for $dU$
 
Wightman was alright
 
$$ \langle x | f \rangle \equiv f(x) \qquad \tilde{f}(k) \equiv \langle k | f \rangle = \int dx \langle k | x \rangle \langle x | f \rangle = \int dx \, e^{-ikx} f(x)$$
This is all exactly the same as basic linear algebra stuff:
 
6:24 PM
@Blue How can you claim that for an isobaric process too?
 
that star was a bit gratuitous, wasnt it
 
ah I see, that indeed illustrate the point of resolving a time signal into linear combination of frequency modes well

and yes, under an orthogonal hilbert basis, the above formula does result. Probably the new thing to me is the delta distribution is shown here as $e^{-ikx}$
 
Anonymous
@Abcd What is the definition of $dU$ ?
 
no, dont unstar it now
there you go
 
@Blue Infinitesimally small Change in internal energy
 
6:25 PM
$$v_i^e \equiv \langle e_i | v \rangle \qquad v_i^f \equiv \langle f_i | v \rangle = \sum_j \langle f_i | e_j \rangle \langle e_j | v \rangle = \sum_j \langle f_i | e_j \rangle v_j^e $$
 
also, $\int f(x)\,\mathrm dx$ instead of that ugly $\int dx\ f(x)$ pls
 
This is just a change of basis.
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform Hamel basis of any infinite dimensional vector space is uncountable, and often not explicitly constructible due to relying on axiom of choice to exist
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform No.
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform trol
 
6:26 PM
im overwhelmed pls stop
 
Munkres's Analysis on Manifolds uses $\mathrm{d}$ and $d$ to mean two different things, and I mean the $d$.
..especially because it doesn't matter.
 
if D wants the $d$, let him have the $d$
 
@Blue are you there?
 
I think I do recall it is bra-ket notation that taught me I can view $f(x)$ as a vector component, and hence revealing that the operation of subbing x into a polynomial map is the same as finding its xth component when treating the polyomial as a vector
 
1
Q: Could we see evidence of a past false vacuum decay?

RandomDudWe cannot see it coming. What about one or more that might have happened in the past, and engulfed the visible universe? Thanks!

That should show up as a discontinous change in the laws of physics in some region of the visible universe
 
6:39 PM
0
Q: Obtaining $Q:\Delta U:W= nC_p\Delta T:nC_v\Delta T:nR\Delta T$ for an isobaric process

AbcdI know the First Law of Thermodynamics: $dU = dQ-dW$ and I also know the following relations: $C_p-C_v= R$ //Mayer's relation $dQ = nC_p\Delta T $ //for an isobaric process Now my textbook states this relation for an isobaric process (without any derivation): $Q:\Delta U:W= nC_p\...

@Secret Hi! Wanted to tell you something...
Long back you had told me that chloride, bromide and iodide are bigger than hydride. However, I found out that only iodide is bigger than hydride :-) .@Secret
 
I see, yeah, it is not very trivial for deducing the size of hydride ion via heuristics
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Sorry. Net connection lost. So basically, you can define $dU$ in another way also. It is just the change in $Q$ when volume is constant, isn't it?
 
Anonymous
That's why you can write $dU=nC_vdT$
 
@Blue It is, but only when volume is constant, not during isobaric processes
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Yes. It is change in $Q$ when volume is constant. I'm not saying for isobaric process $dQ=nC_vdT$
 
Anonymous
6:48 PM
I'm saying for isobaric process $dU=nC_vdT$
 
Anonymous
Try to understand the difference
 
@Blue Ok, how?
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Because, by definition : "$dU$ is the change in $Q$ when volume is constant".
 
Anonymous
I'm not claiming that volume is constant in isobaric process
 
Anonymous
Just think about this for a while
 
Anonymous
6:50 PM
You'll get it
 
Anonymous
$U$ is a state function. Remember that
 
Anonymous
It doesn't matter which path you followed to reach the final state
 
@Blue Got it :-). What if I replace that $dU$ with $\Delta U$, for an isobaric process
Does the relation still hold?
 
Anonymous
Same thing...$dU$ is the more formal calculus notation and will help you when you go to the entropy part
 
Anonymous
It's the differential notation
 
Anonymous
6:53 PM
@Abcd Yes
 
okay, thanks @Blue
 
Anonymous
np
 

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