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6:00 PM
Yes, Feynman, jeez.
 
@SirCumference I'm sure you can try to do that without calculus
but why bother
just learn calculus and then differential geometry
 
It basically assumes that parallel lines can meet
Isn't it useful for warped surfaces?
 
I don't know what that is
I know of warped products in Riemannian geometry
 
@SirCumference We're not Euclid anymore that we would think of geometry as a list of postulates about lines.
 
6:02 PM
@0celo7 That's a form of non-euclidean geometry
The other is Lobachevskian geometry
 
I've never seen that used in physics, but someone might be using it.
 
Most of what today's "geometers" do is "non-Euclidean". The plane and its subsets just aren't all that interesting.
 
So for Riemannian geometry, would I need calculus?
 
Yes.
 
Sigh...
 
6:04 PM
Geometry is basically topological space + structure that allows you to do calculus
I'm sure @ACuriousMind will tell you it's about invariants of principal bundles or some crap
 
@0celo7 coughalgebraicgeometrycough
 
@ACuriousMind That's not real geometry
 
lol
Describing a surface as a solution set of polynomials is geometric as fuck.
 
Nope
 
Calc is used in almost everything...I gotta learn it faster
 
6:05 PM
Not my fault you've been spoiled by the smooth category
 
@ACuriousMind I don't like hairy women, true.
(head hair is ok)
 
@0celo7 differential geometry
 
@Danu oh ffs
 
Many argue that topology is part of geometry in the greater sense.
 
6:06 PM
the other stuff is all fake
 
So geometry is not topology + structure
@0celo7 What, because you don't know it?
 
@Danu ok you can make your shitty definitions to counter mine
@Danu no
 
Have you ever heard of geometric group theory, for instance?
Geometric group theory is an area in mathematics devoted to the study of finitely generated groups via exploring the connections between algebraic properties of such groups and topological and geometric properties of spaces on which these groups act (that is, when the groups in question are realized as geometric symmetries or continuous transformations of some spaces). Another important idea in geometric group theory is to consider finitely generated groups themselves as geometric objects. This is usually done by studying the Cayley graphs of groups, which, in addition to the graph structure, are...
 
Yes, doesn't make it geometry
 
You not agreeing doesn't make it less geometric.
(maybe even makes it more so... ;))
 
6:08 PM
you have forgotten something, @Danu
Nov 22 '15 at 21:29, by 0celo7
@Ϻ.Λ.Ʀ. Theorem 1. I am never wrong. Proof. Follows directly from Theorem 1.
 
I have not forgotten it, rather I ignored it.
(never saw it)
 
Theorem: The less geometric @0celo7 thinks something is, the more it is. Proof. Obvious for anyone capable of elementary analysis.
 
SAVAGE
jesus christ man
Currently trying to prove the PhD level theorem $a_n\to a\Rightarrow |a_n|\to |a|$
 
lol
High school level!
 
what
you people and your fucking PhD level high schools
 
6:10 PM
I think I did that in middle school
 
You and your plebs level universities
 
My ethics teacher spent 30 minutes the other day ripping on the American education system and praising the German one, especially the vo-tech side.
 
...I don't even know if you're kidding
 
@0celo7 Good
 
I'm so excited to start working on my thesis once my exams end!
 
6:11 PM
@ACuriousMind you're mean
 
Had the first one on Gauge-Gravity Duality yesterday.
4 more to go
 
user54412
I remember having to explain to one of my newly-hired European profs that yes, most students at Ivy League schools have never taken a physics course in their lives, and don't know even trigonometry.
 
and that they bought their way into the degree? ;D
 
user54412
Or life-experienced their way :p
 
Actually, I'm curious to know what % of people actually get in by "cheap tricks" like heritage, etc.
 
6:13 PM
@Danu Nice to see your enthusiasm is back :)
 
I can't wait to finish this homework
so I can do more homework
 
user54412
@Danu Less than the general perception. But the university openly admits that intelligence and academic merit are hardly even considerations.
 
@ACuriousMind Yupyup!!!
@ChrisWhite Really?
I'd guess that mostly holds for undergraduate
 
user54412
There was a civil rights investigation recently that concluded that Princeton admits undergrads primarily based on race, and secondarily on geography, and that this is just fine because it's the only way they can achieve the goal of being racist.
2
 
@ChrisWhite wut
"the goal of being racist"?
 
6:16 PM
^I second that wut
 
(btw that PhD level theorem was trivial)
(don't think I'm that dumb pls)
 
user54412
> Here, OCR examined the University’s assessment of whether race-neutral alternatives were sufficient to achieve its diversity goals, of which race was a single though important element. [...] in OCR’s view, there were no race-neutral alternatives that would have worked about as well.
 
Sigh...
Btw @ACuriousMind about your earlier ping...
I think it improves the title.
Also the rest of the post.
 
@Danu Both versions are perfectly grammatical. All changes are purely stylistic, and it introduces a spacing error. I don't think we should approve such edits.
 
6:23 PM
I didn't catch the spacing error, obviously.
I significantly prefer the wording of the second version.
I also don't think that posts with which nothing is really wrong should not be edited; maybe that's where we start disagreeing.
 
Well, I think that formatting into a better format is fine (such as taking advantage of the text editor's inherent list capabilities), even if you don't correct any errors. Mere rewording, however, seems to me to be too subjective to be a useful edit. Some people prefer that way of wording it, others prefer another. I'll not roll back such an edit, but I'd also not approve it.
 
non-negative or nonnegative
 
anti-negative, obviously
 
I've never heard that before, thanks
 
@0celo7 Use the hyphen, IMO.
 
user54412
6:29 PM
co-operate -> coöperate -> cooperate
 
I hate when people write co-ordinate system
 
user54412
non-negative -> nonñegative -> nonnegative?
 
@ChrisWhite you drunk
 
@0celo7 I also don't like that.
 
@Danu Dude, don't agree with me
People might get the wrong impression
 
6:31 PM
It reflects badly on me, I know.
 
I'm just looking out for you
 
@ChrisWhite What's the tilde on the n?
 
@ACuriousMind Some Spanish thing?
 
I know the trema for vowels, but I've never seen that
 
like piñata
 
6:33 PM
@ACuriousMind It's not a thing, in English.
 
user54412
i wanted an umlaut to keep the pattern but that was harder to come by
 
@Danu Well we have it in our Leiwörter from Spanish.
is there an h in that, btw
I can't into German spelling of words I never use
 
It's Lehnwort, not Leihwort.
 
well then
you got the meaning
is leih even a german word
 
@ChrisWhite I see, I thought it was some fancy notation I'd never seen before :/
@0celo7 Yes, leihen means lend/borrow
 
6:36 PM
@ACuriousMind Dude it's used in Spanish
 
@0celo7 Not with this meaning, dude
 
wtf is happening
what meaning
 
Chris wanted to denote that the second n is spoken distinctly from the first, not that it is the Spanish "nj" sound
 
what
how is anyone supposed to figure that out
 
Well..I did :P
 
6:38 PM
whatever
stupid and forgetful, jesus
 
user54412
Anyway, the point is we are somewhere between non-negative and nonnegative, so we should invent an intermediate word in the evolution
 
what is up with my analysis prof randomly putting periods on the stuff written on the board
he'll write (ii) and put a period, talk a bit
then write something
put another period
I've even seen him write (Sentence.) and put a period outside of the parenthesis
my ODE prof did that too.
 
@ChrisWhite anegative?
 
@yuggib Can the sum of a convergent and divergence sequence converge?
 
@ChrisWhite If you co-operate I'll co-ordinate the e-mail of a list of non-negative numbers for you.
 
6:53 PM
@0celo7 if you rearrange the divergent sequence maybe
 
No rearranging
I don't think it can converge, but I can't come up with a proof.
@ACuriousMind Is that for all $(x,y)$ or just $(0,y)$? I'm confused by the order in which the limits are taken, sorry.
 
@FenderLesPaul any news?
 
@GBeau no sir
 
@FenderLesPaul Let me know....
I'm still in disbelief
I thought I was only going to get into my fallback
I'll probably end up only getting into Stony Brook... :P
 
hopefully chicago and ucsb send out admissions next week
so I can at least know my fate for sure
 
6:59 PM
@0celo7 I am not sure it is true
but probably is
 
@GBeau Applications didn't pan out as hoped?
@yuggib I think it can maybe converge, but I'm not sure.
I thought about some harmonic series shenanigans but it's not so easy
 
@Danu if there's rearranging, it's possible
 
@Danu I was accepted to Stony Brook!
 
if not, I am not sure
 
We haven't done series yet.
 
7:00 PM
@yuggib Sure but that's easy.
 
So I doubt you need one of those.
 
@Danu I bombed the PGRE....
 
@Danu Also not allowed.
 
you sum a convergent series and what?
 
@0celo7 Just 0,y
 
7:01 PM
a divergent series or sequence
?
 
sequences $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$, where $(x_n)$ converges, $(y_n)$ diverges, and $(x_n+y_n)$ converges;
Either prove this cannot be or produce an example.
 
sequences
not series
 
Did I say series?
 
I read series sorry
 
if I have a 2-form $\beta_{ab}$ and an integral $\int_{\Sigma}d\beta$ then by Stokes' theorem this is $\int_{\partial \Sigma}\beta$ and I have to pullback $\beta$ to the boundary $\partial \Sigma$ correct? So if $\beta_{ab} = v \wedge n$ where $n$ is normal to $\partial \Sigma$ then I can conclude $\int_{\Sigma} d\beta_{ab} = 0$?
 
7:03 PM
@FenderLesPaul It's the pullback by the inclusion.
 
yeah but isn't $i^{*}n = 0$?
 
@FenderLesPaul Yes. You can conclude what you want.
 
@ACuriousMind sweet
thanks!
 
why
 
@0celo7 The proof should probably be the triangle inequality with the difference
 
7:08 PM
you get something like $i^*n(v)=g(n,di(v))$
 
In 3D this is just the statement that a vector field everywhere tangent to a (closed) surface has zero integral over that surface
 
for $v$ a vector on $\Sigma$
 
@0celo7 The pullback commutes with the wedge, i.e. $f^\ast(v\wedge w) = f^\ast v\wedge f^\ast w$.
 
@ACuriousMind I know
I don't see how $i^*n=0$
So I'm trying to compute it
 
@0celo7 Because the image of $\mathrm{d}i$ are the vectors tangent to $\Sigma$, and $n$ is normal to it, so $g(n,\mathrm{d}i(v)) = 0$ regardless of $v$.
 
7:10 PM
Right, that's what I just calculated. But why are those the tangent vectors to $\Sigma$?
 
Oh... sequence
Then I think it's not possible (something by triangle inequality, like yuggib said)
 
@0celo7 Is it obvious to you, and you just want a "proof", or do you not see that they are?
 
@ACuriousMind A little bit of both.
 
Then keep thinking about it.
 
@yuggib huh
 
7:13 PM
@ACuriousMind oh wait just to clarify, $n$ is normal to $\partial \Sigma$ and I have $\int_{\partial \Sigma} \beta$ but the conclusion is the same I suppose since it's pullback to $\partial \Sigma$
 
@0celo7 $\lvert a+b\rvert\geq \bigl\lvert \lvert a\rvert -\lvert b\rvert\bigr\rvert$
 
@ACuriousMind $\Sigma$ was the hypersurface for which I had $\int_{\Sigma}d\beta = \int_{\partial \Sigma}\beta$ with $\beta = v \wedge n$
hopefully that doesn't change the conclusion :p
 
@FenderLesPaul Yes, and from $i^\ast n = 0$ you get $\beta= 0$ so $\int_\Sigma\mathrm{d}\beta = 0$. Seems fine to me.
 
@ACuriousMind Now I'm just confused by what $di(v)$ actually is.
$v$ is a tangent vector to $\partial\Sigma$, right?
@yuggib dude I still don't see what you actually want me to prove
prove that there is no $N$ which satisfies $|x_n+y_n-k|<\epsilon$, etc.?
 
You should know the limit of the right hand side of the triangle inequality
 
7:20 PM
@ACuriousMind thank you kind sir
 
@ACuriousMind Ok, so if $v$ is indeed a tangent vector on $\partial \Sigma$ then $di(v)$ is just the same vector but carried along the inclusion map, so it's a tangent vector $\partial\Sigma$ now regarded as a subset of $\Sigma$, so it's also tangent to $\Sigma$.
 
Wait...I might have messed up $\partial\Sigma$ and $\Sigma$ in one of my statements up there, sorry.
 
@0celo7 like @Danu said
 
Or perhaps not. Not sorting that out now
 
@yuggib I have no clue what he meant by that.
@yuggib should I be looking at $|x_y+y_n|\ge ||x_n|-|y_n||$ or something?
 
7:27 PM
I think we gave enough hints.
 
mmm coffee
 
7:38 PM
@yuggib Suppose $\lim(x_n+y_n)=k$. We must thus show that $\forall \epsilon >0$, $\exists N\in\mathbb{N}$ s.t. $\forall n\ge N$, $|x_n+y_n-k| <\epsilon$. From the triangle inequality, $|x_n+y_n-k|\le |x_n-x|+|y_n-(k-x)|$. Since $x_n$ converges, we may find an $N_1$ such that $|x_n-x|\le \epsilon/2$ $\forall n\ge N_1$. But since $y_n$ does not converge, we cannot find a suitable $N_2$. Thus there exists no $N$ such that the desired inequality $|x_n+y_n-k|<\epsilon$ holds for all $n \ge N$.
Thus the limit of $x_n+y_n$ does not exist.
 
you should use an inequality that gives you an estimate on the other side
but the idea is there
 
@0celo7 Not a correct proof
 
use the inequality I gave you with the same idea
 
@yuggib I don't know what $a,b$ are.
 
lol
facepalm
 
7:41 PM
@0celo7 If you suppose that $k$ is the limit, why are you after that stating you have to show that it is the limit?
 
Be helpful or say nothing at all, @Danu.
 
$a=y_n - (k-x)$, $b= x_n -x$
 
@0celo7 I don't think I'm under any obligation to help you do your homework.
 
@Danu Then don't say anything at all.
Pretty simple.
 
@0celo7 That's up to me.
Pretty simple, too.
But I won't tease you any more, don't worry :)
 
7:43 PM
Bye. No reason to talk to you.
 
Bye
 
@yuggib I tried that, I don't get anything useful.
 
Are you not also in an exam period right now, @ACuriousMind?
 
@ACuriousMind Because I show that $k$ cannot exist?
 
If you subtract something that has a lower bound, can you tell something about the upper bound of the (absolute value of) the difference?
 
7:45 PM
@Danu Yes, but I got only one exam, and its date isn't fixed yet. I mentioned I'm lazy this semester, yes? ;)
 
Only one? Lol!
What else are you doing?
 
@yuggib Uh, what
 
@0celo7 The sentence still doesn't make sense. You're saying "Suppose X. We must thus show X."
 
@Danu So have you chosen if you will show up to see some real mathematical physics on wednesday ;-P
 
If you suppose X, there is nothing to show. Then X is true by assumption.
 
7:46 PM
@yuggib Would you even recognize me? ;)
@ACuriousMind You have endless patience ;)
 
@ACuriousMind Fine, let $k$ be the limit. For this to be the limit: Insert proof here. Thus $k$ cannot exist.
 
What course is the one exam btw @ACuriousMind
 
$k$ is just shorthand for $\lim(x_n+y_n)$.
 
@Danu Ah, well, mostly non-physicsy (or mathy) stuff
@Danu sheaf cohomology
 
@0celo7 $b=\lvert x_n -x\rvert\leq \varepsilon/2$, then $\lvert\lvert a \rvert - b\rvert \geq \lvert\lvert a\rvert -\varepsilon/2\rvert$
 
7:47 PM
Whoa you guys have a special course just on that?
Nice.
 
@Danu you would recognize me...
 
@yuggib Perhaps :P
 
@yuggib ...what
I still don't get where this is going
or how to prove that
 
@Danu Yes, and it will be continued next semester (although it is then called Topologie singulärer Räume because that's what we're gonna apply it to after we finished building the abstract theory)
 
now substitute $a$ with $y_n - (k-x)$ and use the fact that it is bigger than $\varepsilon$
 
7:50 PM
@ACuriousMind That's some 10/10 shit right there.
The mathematics curriculum is not that well-developed here, sadly.
There isn't that much geometry to do :(
 
why is it bigger than $\epsilon$
 
because $y_n$ diverges
 
I'm so confused
what's the motivation for any of this
we haven't done anything this complicated in class
 
After next semester I'll have done all the courses that have "geometry" or "topology" in their names, except algebraic geometry.
 
that you want to show that it is absurd to have $x_n+y_n$ converging
 
7:52 PM
@Danu Well, it's not a regular course in the curriculum, it's happenstance that it is given this time
 
yes, so $|x_n+y_n-k|<\epsilon$ cannot be true
but I don't see how you're getting to your crazy inequalities from that
(or how to prove your inequalities)
 
Many of the interesting lectures here are not regular parts of the curriculum, but just something the lecturer wanted to talk about at least once
 
@ACuriousMind I see.
 
@0celo7 mine are not crazy inequalities
and you need to think a little bit about that
 
The guy who does "cool shit" lectures is taking a sabbatical this semester, I think.
He did stuff like low-dimensional topology earlier
 
7:54 PM
to show that something is not $<\varepsilon$ means proving that it is $\geq \varepsilon$
 
There is so much mathematics I'd like to learn :(
@yuggib Stop using that damn $\varepsilon$ shit :P
$\epsilon$ or nothing
 
yes
 
$\varepsilon$ looks cuter, though
 
@Danu $\epsilon$ is awful, it seems $\in$
 
Naw
$\epsilon$ is life
$\epsilon$ is love
(beat you to it, ACM)
 
7:56 PM
Ok so we want $|x_n+y_n-k|\ge \epsilon$
 
use the inequalities
 
We also have $|(x_n-x)+(y-(k-x))|\ge ||x_n-x|-|y_n-(k-x)||$
I know how to prove that.
So at this point I suppose $|x_n-x|<\epsilon/2$?
 
yes
 
ok, then I get lost
do I then have the above $\ge |\epsilon/2-|y_n-(k-x)||$?
 
$\lvert a-b\rvert\geq \lvert A -b\rvert$ if $0\leq a\leq A$ right?
 
7:59 PM
I guess, I don't know how to prove it.
 
brb, someone reminded me just in time it is Saturday and I can't shop tomorrow.
 
user54412
@Danu Surface area of a sphere: $4 \varpi r^2$
 
@ACuriousMind One of Germany's only faults tbh.
 
@ChrisWhite Unholy symbols!
 
@yuggib I'll try to prove that later, what next
I guess $|y_n-(k-x)|\ge \epsilon/2$ or something?
 
8:05 PM
then you use the fact that there is an $\varepsilon'$ such that $\lvert y_n - (k-x)\rvert \geq \varepsilon'$ since $(y_n)$ diverges
 
hmm
@yuggib I don't see how to continue...
and I don't see how that last statement comes about
I'll just leave it blank I guess
hope he doesn't grade that one
 
8:20 PM
so fucking good ugh
 
@0celo7 well, I don't know how to explain it differently
 
@yuggib I don't know what you're trying to explain
 
look if you like this proof better math.stackexchange.com/questions/798710/…
 
I didn't understand it.
 
@0celo7 What do you not understand about it? This might help identify the problem you have
 
8:33 PM
@ACuriousMind I'll tell you once I've done the rest of the problem set
 
I'll try the last time. Take a difference between two positive numbers $a-b$, with $a> b$; do you agree that if $a\geq A$ and $b\leq B$, then $a-b\geq A -B$?
 
@yuggib I agree, but don't know how to prove it.
 
@0celo7 the proof @yuggib links is basically the standard proof
 
$a-b\geq A-b \geq A-B$
Just implement estimates one-by-one if everything else is too fast
 
@0celo7 now, choose an $N_1$ such that $\lvert x-x_n\rvert \leq \varepsilon$ for any $n\geq N_1$ (you can by definition since $x_n$ converges)
then, choose an $N_2$ such that $\lvert y_n -(k-x)\rvert\geq 2\varepsilon$ for any $n\geq N_2$
again you can by definition otherwise $(y_n)$ would converge
$k$ is a supposed limit of $x_n+y_n$, and is an arbitrary number
do you agree it is possible up to now?
then, you consider any $n\geq \max\{N_1,N_2\}$, and look at
$\lvert x_n +y_n -k\rvert\geq \lvert \lvert y_n - (k-x)\rvert -\lvert x-x_n\rvert\rvert = \lvert y_n - (k-x)\rvert -\lvert x-x_n\rvert$
since you choose the first on the right hand side to be always bigger than the second
now you use the inequality with $a,b,A,B$ above
 
8:45 PM
@yuggib why is this possible
 
@0celo7 because if else the sequence would converge
by definition of convergence
 
I'm not convinced that that's the converse of convergence.
 
what's the converse of convergence?
 
Ah, negating quantifiers is so fun!
 
Hint: it's this logical statement
 
8:50 PM
I don't see how "there is no $N$ s.t. $\forall n\ge N$ $|y_n-y|<\epsilon$" leads to "choose $N_2$ s.t. $|y_n-(k-x)|\ge 2\epsilon$ $\forall n\ge N_2$"
$k-x$ is just some number
 
$\overline{(\exists k\in\mathbb{R})(\forall\varepsilon >0)(\exists N\in\mathbb{N})(\forall n\geq N)\lvert k-x_n\rvert <\varepsilon}$
 
I'm just too stupid for this...
 
as ACM said, it's just a matter of negating quantifiers :-P
 
@yuggib the negation of "for all" is "there exists"
 
as I always told you, logic is important
yes
 
8:52 PM
I don't see how you get a for all
 
negation of "there exists" is "for all", and you see a nice "there exists" in front of $k$ there
 
I have no idea what you're saying anymore
 
This is still going on?
Whoaaaa :D
 
I give up
 
@yuggib consider the series $(-1)^n$
this diverges
can you please show me what $N_2$ is
and what is $k-x$ anyway
 
8:55 PM
It doesn't diverge.
It also doesn't converge :P
 
divergent usually means it is unbounded
 
@0celo7 Oh...there is a mismatch of terminology here, I think. "diverges" is not "doesn't converge" but "goes to infinity".
 
@ACuriousMind Definition 2.2.9. A sequence that does not converge is said to diverge.
 
Ah, and now we know where the confusion lies!
 
so the proof above works for unbounded sequences
 
8:58 PM
@yuggib I'm not assuming anything on the boundedness...
 
@0celo7 That's a disgusting definition :P
 

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