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4:27 AM
Hi all, I need to understand the following group theoretical statement (which is made in the context of chemical applications but is of course independent of those):"According to Group Theory the existence of an $n-1$ fold degeneracy* is related to the existence of a set of n identical sites which form a doubly transitive orbit of a symmetry group."
*)degeneracy here means dimensionality of the irreps over $\Bbb R$ (which in turn can of course be anytime translated into language of irreps over the algebraically closed $\Bbb C$ in observing that pairs of complex conjugate irreps are to be subsumed under 2-dimensional irreps.) Any help appreciated!
 
Hey anyone able to help me with this seemingly obvious measure theory problem?
Trying to show that a line in R^2 has Lebesgue measure (in R^2) zero.
Let's write the line as L = {x + tv, t in R}
WLOG we can assume x = 0, since Lebesgue measure is translation invariant
So we just need to show that for unit vectors v, span(v) has measure zero.
 
Isometry invariant, in fact, so may as well let L be the x axis
 
Yeah, it's easy if isometry invariant
because then you just fit rectangles of size eps/2^n around the intervals (n, n+1)
 
Yup
 
which sum to eps, and your done.
 
4:30 AM
Certainly volume of cubes is an isometry invariant! So that argument then applies to any line by rotating the sets you choose
 
Yeah, I assume that's what Cohn was looking for.
Same argument for a circle in R^2, I guess.
Reduce to S^2 (scaling translation)
Then take B(0, 1 + \eps) \ B(0, 1 - \eps).
oops, I guess, S^1
my bad.
 
Hi @TobiasKildetoft maybe you could have a look at this chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/46383712#46383712 ?
 
4:51 AM
seems its called "Hall theorem" as well.
 
5:21 AM
Hey, anyone able to help me with this measure theory problem?
Suppose m is Lebesgue measure on the real line. Find a Borel set B such that 0 < m(B \cap I) < m(I) for all bounded open subintervals I \subset \R.
I bet it's some sort of equivalence relation/aoc construction, but not quite sure.
hint would be nice.
 
Does balarka hang around here anymore?
 
It's kinda annoying because it can't be R \minus a set of measure of zero
 
@DrewBrady There's no AC needed here
Think about how to make such a set in $[0,1]$ rater than $\Bbb R$
 
5:36 AM
fat cantors
but anything more exotic than fat cantors?
 
hm you can't remove any interval
 
True, but you can fix the removed intervals later
 
maybe you can do some kind of refinement thing.
you do like (0, 1/3) \cup (2/3, 1) and then add (3/9, 4/9) and (5/9, 6/9)
but at this point your still screwed, because you can't have a complete interval either.
it's gotta have measure less than 1, else you're screwed by the interval (0, 1) also.
 
5:52 AM
is B a subset of R or a subset of I?
 
and I is just one fixed interval or we need it to hold for all possible I s?
o wait I misread
It's $B \cap I$, not $B \setminus I$
 
all I
 
How about a fat cantor that tiles the space, like for every gap, place a fat cantor, then you will always be left with some gaps, but they are never large enough to form intervals thus every bounded open interval will guarantee to intersect with it
 
6:08 AM
You can do this with any nowhere dense of positive measure, the fat Cantor set being the most intuitive example: you start with it, then for every interval disjoint from the set you fit a smaller copy of the set inside that interval, iterate this process
 
Hm does the following work?
Let R = \cup_n (p_n, q_n) where p_n, q_n are rational
Now let B = \cup_n ComplementOfFatCantor(p_n, q_n)
Basically, you write R as a disjoint open rational cover
then you stick a complement of fat cantor inside each one
 
The complement of a fat cantor set contains plenty of intervals
 
oh right...
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Important: if you start with a fat Cantor set of measure $1/2$ and do this iterative construction to construct a set $A$ it might look like that for all intervals $I$ we have $m(A\cap I)=\frac12 m(I)$, but this can't hold
 
I see, so I can just enumerate rational intervals. Add cantor to the first one
why not?
oh never mind. if m(A \cap (0, 1)) = 1/2 m((0, 1)) then obviously it cannot also satisfy m(A \cap (0, 2)) = 1/2 m(0, 2)
oops nevermind
 
6:16 AM
Why not? $A=(0,1/2)\cup(1,3/2)$ does
The problem is in all intervals, it contradicts the Lebesgue density theorem
 
so How about this.
we enumerate all rational intervals, (p_1, q_1), (p_2, q_2), .. etc
we start by putting a fat cantor in p_1, q_2.
call this set B_1
*p_1, q_1
then we check if m(B_1 \cap (p_2, q_2)) = 0
If it is, then we take B_2 = B_1 \cap a fat cantor set on (p_2, q_2)
If not, B_2 = B_1.
Proceed.
Take B = \cup B_n.
 
Zee
What are you guys trying to do
 
we're trying to construct a Borel B such that 0 < m(B \cap I ) < m(I) whenever I is a bounded open interval
 
6:32 AM
@DrewBrady Yup, this works
 
Zee
The right side is obv trivial
 
It's a strict inequality
 
Zee
Oh I see
This sounds fun , I hope am not too drunk for this
Are we on the real line ?
 
yup
 
Zee
Good to see you again
 
6:35 AM
I wish we have uncountable data visualisers, because it will be quite cool to see how spongy these sets are
(Yeah, had been busy in PhD)
 
I see. So with this construction m(B^c \cap I) > 0 since I contains an interval (p_n, q_n) for q_n \neq p_n, and B \cap (p_n, q_n) <= (q_n - p_n)/2.
thus m(I) = m(B \cap I) + m(I \ B) > m(B \cap I) >= m(B \cap (p_n, q_n)) > 0, with the last inequality by construction.
*and m(B \cap (p_n, q_n)) <= (q_n - p_n)/2.
 
Zee
Is there a hypothesis that I and B need to contain some fixed x?
 
6:56 AM
2
Q: Prime twins and $ f(z) = \sum_p \frac{\ln(p) \space \ln(p+2)}{p^{z/2} \space (p+2)^{z/2}} $

mickLet $p$ be a prime such that $p+2$ is Also a prime. Define $$ f(z) = \sum_p \frac{\ln(p) \space \ln(p+2)}{p^{z/2} \space (p+2)^{z/2}} $$ For $z \neq 1 $ and $re(z) > 1$ this $f(z)$ always converges. If there are infinitely many prime twins , and prime twins grow like $O (n * ln(n)^2 ) $ as i...

Any ideas ?
 
Zee
This should work , take the intervals [0,1] and so on . Then do the cantor construction except you remove 1/4 at each step
wait
Never mind
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I think something is wrong
 
7:22 AM
Why? @DrewBrady
 
Well, here's the construction right: Let Q_n denote an enumeration of the rational endpointed-open intervals. Let B_1 = fat cantor on Q_1. Let B_n = B_n-1 if m(B_n-1 \cap Q_n) > 0, else B_n = B_n-1 \cup fat cantor on Q_1.
Let B = \cup_n B_n,
right? @AlessandroCodenotti
Then if I is an open interval bounded then for some n, Q_n \subset I, right?
So then m(I \ B) >= m(Q_n \ B) = m(Q_n) - m(B \cap Q_n) >= m(Q_n)/2 > 0, right?
Then m(I) = m(B \cap I) + m(I \ B) > m(B \cap I) >= m(Q_n \cap I) > 0, right?
Agree?
 
@DrewBrady how do you get the last inequality here?
 
which inequality
 
>=m(Q_n)/2
 
^@AlessandroCodenotti
Oh, yah, that's not necessarily true...
sorry I was thinking that there was some sort of ordering on the rational open intervals so that m(B \cap Q_n) = m(Fat cantor set on Q_n) or m(set strictly smaller) but that's not necessarily true.
like there could be a lot of intervals before which contribute a little which add up to more than m(Q_n)/ 2.
 
7:45 AM
PROGRESS!
 
7:59 AM
> One way of overcoming the difficulty of undecidable questions is to extend the
theory ZFC, to obtain a richer theory which provides more information about
sets. (An alternative solution is simply to accept as a fact of life that some questions
have no answer.)
I like this way of life
 
Zee
8:21 AM
@AlessandroCodenotti @DrewBrady this is a little hand wavy but you construct a cantor set in each interval of size 1/4 then take the the complement in each interval and then again construct a cantor set of size 1/16 and then so on , your gonna have a set of measure 1/3 in each interval which would also have positive measure when intersected with an interval but also smaller
 
8:51 AM
Is every action of a connected Lie group $G$ on an oriented manifold $M$ necessarily orientation preserving? The argument I have in mind is that $G$ maps to a (path-)connected subgroup of the group $Diff(M)$, every element of which is connected to the identity by a path and hence must preserve the orientation. Is this correct?
 
9:44 AM
> but any extension of ZFC will necessary involve a lot more impredicability, as well higher and higher levels of infinity that is even less likely to have a real life counterpart
 
@Perturbative here you have changed the condition $\exists i_0,\forall j\in I \Omega_{i_0}\cap \Omega_j\neq \emptyset $ by $\bigcap_{I\in I}\Omega_i \neq \emptyset$
 
10:34 AM
@Secret I always thought maths is about what can be thought and not about what you actually find in "real life" (whatever that might be).
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum scheena dog
 
@LeakyNun meassi dia aa
(whoa perfect dialect!!)
 
wat betekent dit?
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum that is true, but higher order infinities are so localised in the domain of set theory that they don't have practical uses even within pure mathematics
 
@LeakyNun meassi = "merci", dia = "dir", aa="auch"
 
10:38 AM
:o
wat sprikst du, franzoesisch?
 
baierisch
Its a common lean word in Bavaria, we have quite a few of them
 
you mean loan word
 
paraplü, plafond, duchet
yes, sry
 
what do those mean?
 
umbrella, ceiling, bed blanket
 
10:41 AM
in which language does plafond mean ceiling?
 
I thought French?
 
indeed
ik heb een neuer franzoesisch woorde gelerd
 
I maent to say Baierisch (especially the Bayern brand) has many French loan words.
 
I've heard that a speaker of an Alemannic dialect met a speaker of Baierisch
and communicated in English instead
 
@LeakyNun Well for the one Alemannic and Bavarian are more closely related than both to the Hochdeutsch (we call actually "Schriftsprache"). So keeping in Dialect would be one option. That requires a bit of practise. But often strong dialect speakers are not that good in the HOchdeutsch, then English might be better.
I know for sure my Grandma could not understand my wifes grandma (who is from close the Danish border). And I have to admit I did the same sometimes in northern Germany (use English...)
 
10:49 AM
I personally think that they should all speak plaatduutsch instead
because plaatduutsch is beautiful
 
@LeakyNun yes it is
but my all-time fav. Germanic language is Frisian
 
how non-germanic do you need to get to say "ich"
"ik" is so much more germanic
@Rudi_Birnbaum Gothic :P
 
but its a natural shift somehow for Germanic
 
sure
the un-germanic "high germanic consonant shift"
that softens virtually every consonant
 
There are quite a few brands of frisian and I like the eastern brach which is almost extinct
yes
 
10:52 AM
you might as well eald aenglisc specan
 
@LeakyNun :-) yes thats also cool!
@LeakyNun Whats your mother tongue? English I suppose?
 
Cantonese
 
Oh!
Can you speak any other Chinese languages?
 
Mandarin
and a very little bisschen of Hokkien
 
How closely are those three related?
 
10:56 AM
they are mutually unintelligible
they branched off like 2000 years ago (or more)
 
Like German and Italian?
(though these brached off a bit earlier I think)
 
right
 
How many languages do you speak?
 
but Cantonese and Hokkien borrowed a lot of words from what would be Mandarin 1000 years ago
(so did, you know, Japanese and Korean and Vietnamese)
 
11:00 AM
@Rudi_Birnbaum no idea
 
What about the intersection between Sanskrit and Mandarin? I heard both (though not related) borrowed quite a bit from each other is that true?
@LeakyNun :-)
 
well just the terms related to Buddhism, I would suppose
 
Ah Ok.
 
I don't know how much Sanskrit borrowed from Mandarin
 
Linguistics is fascinating. I am intrigued by the idea that all languages could be related. Though linguists commonly accepted zero-hypotheses seems to be nothing is related with nothing unless there is valid proof.
which is conservative and makes sense scientifically but can be boring as well.
 
11:03 AM
I'm more intrigued by the idea that every living organism is related lol
 
Me too! Just recently thought about it!
I think that we are related to trees is more or less a fact.
 
sure
 
But I don't know what the current Lehrmeinung in gerenal is.
 
Linguistics is pretty amazing. I'm still awestruck by the mere existence of language. Imagine an existence without communication this precise (as imprecise as it is). Much stock is given to fire, agriculture, and the wheel, but I'd argue that the development of language is pretty directly responsible for the success of mankind.
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum I think virtually every biologist believes in common descent
 
11:05 AM
I mean there are like Archeae and stuff, and I don't think we have a complete tree.
 
In gross and general sure. But there might be alternative ideas for the very origins.
Say when life was not really life already.
What if the "soup" was divided then
Just my thoughts.
 
> The standard hypothesis states that the ancestor of the eukaryotes diverged early from the Archaea,[78][79] and that eukaryotes arose through fusion of an archaean and eubacterium, which became the nucleus and cytoplasm; this explains various genetic similarities but runs into difficulties explaining cell structure.[76] An alternative hypothesis, the eocyte hypothesis, posits that Eukaryota emerged relatively late from the Archaea.[80]
 
I see!
@Fargle Is of course possible. Though we have really just one example of such a species.
 
There's also the fact that bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes not only have the same chemical to code their genetics (DNA), but the code itself is almost entirely identical as well (e.g. thymine-adenine-thymine almost always means "put tyrosine in this protein").
 
11:11 AM
And then it depends how you define "success"
 
Yeah, absolutely. I don't know that a language in the abstract would necessarily always have the effect it has had upon us.
 
@Fargle I have been talking to a colleague of mine who does DNA research on a chemical bases. And we came up with the hypothesis that it might be the case that DNA indeed is optimal in a sense, that any small chemical variation might spoil its properties such that it would be useless for encoding biological structures.
That would mean its at least some "local minima" but would be also in agreement with the spectacular idea, that its without alternative ... Though highly unlikley but the more fascinating
 
That's possible. In which case the fact of the similarity of the "programming languages" across species wouldn't any longer be evidence of universal common descent
But would be heuristic evidence of the fact that evolution, despite not (necessarily) being guided by an intelligence, is most certainly not random.
 
Yes and it would make the tree of life more opaque ...
in particular concerning the beginnings (which where RNA not DNA btw).
 
Right.
 
11:20 AM
@LeakyNun can try to explain inaccessible cardinals better if you want.
 
There may have been multiple forms of "ur-life" which didn't have the same origin, but came about in the same circumstances with the same available elements, and so had the same structure. These could have developed into domains we know today, and may have intermingled both before and after becoming "actual" life (wherever we draw that line). And it becomes much harder to know for certain at that point.
 
@SimplyBeautifulArt sure
 
@Fargle Yes, exactly.
 
That's thought-provoking. I hadn't considered that.
 
@LeakyNun any particular place?
 
11:23 AM
@SimplyBeautifulArt what do you mean
 
Any particular place you would like me to explain in?
 
here if you want
we need to indoctrinate everyone with inaccessible cardinals
3
 
(I'm sure Asaf will approve :P)
 
Well they are regular limit cardinals
Their ordinal counterpart being regular limits of omega ordinals.
 
11:27 AM
and by that you mean they are cardinals c such that cf(c) = c and c=aleph_lambda for some limit ordinal lambda
 
do you have an example? :P
 
You can't really write one out in terms of smaller ordinals (hence the term "inaccessible")
 
fair enough
 
Essentially $\alpha$ is regular if for any $\beta<\alpha$, there is no sequence of ordinals $\alpha[\eta]$ such that $\alpha[\eta]<\alpha$ for all $\eta$ and $\sup_{\eta<\beta}\alpha[\eta]=\alpha$.
 
11:30 AM
is every successor cardinal regular?
 
Yes
But to be inaccessible, it has to be a limit cardinal
For this to occur, it has to be an aleph fixed-point ($\mathfrak c=\aleph_{\mathfrak c}$)
 
why?
well we know many aleph fixed points there are... exactly as many as the ordinals
 
These are the only points where there are $\mathfrak c$ cardinals below them.
 
is c also the c-th fixed point?
 
Yes, it must also satisfy that
 
11:34 AM
what the hell
how meta does this go
 
Since those are the only points with $\mathfrak c$ aleph fixed-points below them
 
ok go on then
 
It must also be the $\mathfrak c$-th fixed-point of the $\alpha$-th aleph fixed-point.
 
no i mean go on with the inaccessible cardinal
 
Well that's just about most of the interesting bits
It must be this really big fixed-point of fixed-points of fixed-points of fixed-points...
 
11:37 AM
can you go even more meta?
 
You mean like how ZFC cannot prove/disprove their existence?
 
\o! This conversation reminds me of SBA teaching ordinals :P
 
no, like you said fixed point of fixed point of fixed point
 
11:39 AM
I’m wondering if you can do the c-th description
 
Well you know the Veblen function?
 
Veblen's functions is the keyword
 
:P ninja'd
 
no
 
Damn what a ninja
 
11:40 AM
ouch
So essentially we could make a function
$\varphi(0,\alpha)=\aleph_\alpha$
$\varphi(1,\alpha)$ is the $\alpha$-th fixed-point of $\varphi(0,\alpha)$
$\varphi(2,\alpha)$ is the $\alpha$-th fixed-point of $\varphi(1,\alpha)$
etc.
$\varphi(\mu,\alpha)$ is the $\alpha$-th cardinal which is a fixed-point of $\varphi(\eta,\alpha)$ for all $\eta<\mu$.
 
I see I asked the right question
 
Inaccessible's are fixed-points of all of these
Also $I=\varphi(I,0)$
($I$ denoting an inaccessible cardinal)
 
what?
 
ok
how about a double veblen function
 
11:43 AM
You can generalize this to a 3 variable Veblen function
 
you win
 
xP
$\varphi(0,\alpha_1,\alpha_2)=\varphi(\alpha_1,\alpha_2)$
 
You might find this old question I asked interesting math.stackexchange.com/questions/2405052/…
 
$\varphi(1,\alpha_1,\alpha_2)$ is basically the same thing, except instead of starting with $\phi(0,\alpha)=\aleph_\alpha$, you start with $\phi(0,\alpha)=\varphi(\alpha,0)$
(i.e. build the same hierarchy off of the old one)
and you continue constructing in this manner
The inaccessibles are fixed-points for like all of these
and any recursively built extension of fixed-points of these
 
how about the c-th veblen function
 
11:47 AM
(gonna go eat)
Not entirely sure what that's supposed to mean
but if you can build it recursively
then yes
 
why is V[k] a model of ZFC?
 
The idea is that $V_\alpha$ already models most of the axioms (for $\alpha>\omega$ a limit), regular limit gives replacement and strongly inaccesible powerset
 
Note that I've described weakly inaccessibles. Strongly inaccessible cardinals are regular cardinals that are limits of beth cardinals instead of aleph cardinals.
 
I see
does L[k] model anything then
 
ZFC implies V[k] is a model of ZFC
ZF implies L[k] is a model of ZFC
 
12:00 PM
I see
 
(according to wikipedia)
 
why dont we all just assume V=L
do you have statements independent of ZFC+(V=L)
 
12:15 PM
V = L is the axiom of constructibility and it implies things like GCH is true
 
so i’m asking if you have independent statements
 
well idk
But it appears to be inconsistent with certain large cardinal axioms, so I dunno if I really like it ;P
 
> In this chapter we define the constructible universe and develop its elementary
theory
proceeds to spend 52 pages talking about it
 
extensionality, union, infinity, power set, foundation, comprehension, collection
which of them are satisfied by a transitive set?
> One form of the reflection principle in ZFC says that for any finite set of axioms of ZFC we can find a countable transitive model satisfying these axioms.
I don't see how this can be true
 
12:47 PM
In sentence "SAT-based Sudoku solver" What abbreviation "SAT" stand for?
 
Standardized admissions test
 
@user1732
 
@vasili111 Super Advanced Troll.
3
More seriously, it refers to the NP-complete problem called boolean SATisfiability.
In computer science, the Boolean satisfiability problem (sometimes called propositional satisfiability problem and abbreviated as SATISFIABILITY or SAT) is the problem of determining if there exists an interpretation that satisfies a given Boolean formula. In other words, it asks whether the variables of a given Boolean formula can be consistently replaced by the values TRUE or FALSE in such a way that the formula evaluates to TRUE. If this is the case, the formula is called satisfiable. On the other hand, if no such assignment exists, the function expressed by the formula is FALSE for all possible...
 
@user21820 Thank you :)
 
@vasili111: But I'll say that directly writing a sudoku solver is so easy that it is quite pointless to solve it via a SAT-solver.
 

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