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12:00 AM
"second verse, same as the first!"
 
I don't want "because the sum of two squares is always positive"
 
it's not.
it's never negative != is always positive
 
@Semiclassical ahhh yes, exclude the case $x=y=0$. Sorry
 
finally
 
So you want to prove that $x^2+y^2=0$ iff $x=y=0$.
 
12:02 AM
@manooooh if you want to prove it using axioms, note that this is true more generally in ordered fields
 
(the 'only if' direction is of course the only nontrivial one)
 
No, I want to prove that $\forall x,y\in\mathbb R^2\setminus\{0\}$ then $x^2+y^2>0$
 
ah, was reading your original version first
 
In mathematics, an ordered field is a field together with a total ordering of its elements that is compatible with the field operations. Historically, the axiomatization of an ordered field was abstracted gradually from the real numbers, by mathematicians including David Hilbert, Otto Hölder and Hans Hahn. This grew eventually into the Artin–Schreier theory of ordered fields and formally real fields. An ordered field necessarily has characteristic 0 since the elements 0 < 1 < 1 + 1 < 1 + 1 + 1 < ... necessarily are all distinct. Thus, an ordered field necessarily contains an infinite number of...
 
@LeakyNun thanks! I didn't see fields, maybe using some properties of the real numbers?
 
12:04 AM
I already told you
the relevant properties are called the ordered field axioms
 
@LeakyNun ok, I will review it and if I have doubts I will post a question
 
12:30 AM
remind me, why in complex analysis do we use the formula $e^{nlogx}=x^n$
 
-2
Q: How is the g-factor $ 2.002319 $ computed?

mickI understand a lot of math but not so much physics. So I read about the feynman diagrams and QED and I started to wonder : How is the g-factor $ 2.002319 $ computed exactly ?? Do we use matrices , differential equations , ... ?

 
because that can be used for $n$ that is not an integer
 
Help ?
 
Sniped
 
Feynman diagrams basically are a convenient tool for enumerating multiple integrals
 
12:32 AM
1
Q: Prime twins and $ f(z) = \sum_p \frac{\ln(p) \space \ln(p+2)}{p^{z/2} \space (p+2)^{z/2}} $

mickLet $p$ be a prime such that $p+2$ is Also a prime. Define $$ f(z) = \sum_p \frac{\ln(p) \space \ln(p+2)}{p^{z/2} \space (p+2)^{z/2}} $$ For $z \neq 1 $ and $re(z) > 1$ this $f(z)$ always converges. If there are infinitely many prime twins then clearly $f(1)$ diverges. If there are only fin...

 
so it's used to define $x^n$ for values of $n$ that are non integers. interesting
 
so computing the g-factor amounts to writing out a lot of multiple integrals in the right way and computing them
being more detailed than that requires a lot more know-how than I actually possess, though
(also, this applies in the framework of perturbative QED. nonperturbative QFT is harder)
 
it's the ring of regular functions on the variety yes! Let's say you're considering the variety in $\mathbb{C}^n$ defined by equations $f_1,\ldots,f_m = 0$, then if you think of the polynomial (regular) functions defined on $\mathbb{C}^n$ they're given by $\mathbb{C}[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$. Now if you restrict all such functions to the locus defined by $f_i=0$, then e.g. $g$ and $g+f_i$ will restrict to the same function on the zero locus of $\{f_i=0\}$. So the ring of regular functions is given by $\C[x_1,\ldots,x_n]/(f_1,\ldots,f_m)$.
 
so for example, the equation of a circle could be defined as $e^{nlogx}+e^{nlogy}=1$, which simplifies to $x^n+y^n=1$ right?
oh wait that's a pointless definition
it's like a pencil without a point
pointless
@geocalc
I want to ping myself I'm taking this up on META
 
1:21 AM
They don't need the "hot network questions" panel on the RHS most of the questions I see there are definitely written by people under the influence of drugs and totally not related to mathematics!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
 
@Adam is there any point in defining the equation of a circle as $e^{nlogx}+e^{nlogy}=1$
well its actually superellipses with $n=2$ being a circle
my name is Hertzcog Werner pronounced "Verner"
@XanderHenderson is there any point in defining the equation of a circle as $e^{nlogx}+e^{nlogy}=1$
 
Well, that won't generally be a circle, @geocalc33
 
drangus fandangus...
but for $n=2$
 
well, yes, that would be a circle for $n=2$
 
but why would anyone define it like that?
 
1:32 AM
define what?
 
like you could just write $x^s+y^s=1$
instead of using the exponentials
 
A circle is typically defined to be the set of points that are a fixed distance from a distinguished point called the center.
 
$e^{nlogx}+e^{nlogy}=1$
 
It can be shown that that the set of solutions to the equation $(x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2$ is a circle.
 
i know that
 
1:34 AM
Okay, but that isn't the definition of a circle (usually) any more than the equation $y=mx+b$ is the definition of a line.
 
in complex analysis you define $x^n$ as $e^{nlnx}$
 
And just as we can write $Ax + By + C = 0$ or $y-y_0 = m(x-x_0)$, you could also write $\mathrm{e}^{2\log(x)} + \mathrm{e}^{2\log(y)} = 1$ if you wanted.
@geocalc33 Do I?
 
yes that's a common definition
i read about it
 
Do you understand why one might want to do that?
And do you also understand how that definition works if $n$ is an integer?
 
to extend $n$ to non integer values?
yeah you can differentiate $x^n$ and you get $nx^{n-1}$
 
1:38 AM
I mean, another possible definition of complex exponentiation is that $x \mapsto x^s$ is the unique analytic continuation of the the usual real valued exponential function on $(0,\infty)$, continued to $\mathbb{C}$ (minus, perhaps, a branch cut).
Where we can define the real exponential as the unique continuous extension of the rational exponential, and the rational exponential can be defined in terms of integer roots and powers.
 
okay so what does all that mean in terms of the equation $e^{2logx}+e^{2logy}=1$
 
(where by "exponential," I really mean "power functions"; I should be more careful in my use of language)
@geocalc33 I don't understand what you are trying to get at with that equation.
The set of real solutions to that equation is a circle.
 
what about complex
 
And so?
It is more complex in complex land, since the exponential possesses some periodicity.
A circle in $\mathbb{C}$ is typically written like $|z| = 1$ (or, more generally, $|z-\alpha| = r^2$).
 
i don't know it's just a really interesting equation
 
1:43 AM
@geocalc33 WHY is it interesting?
It is the usual equation for a circle, complexified, and written in a kind of funny manner.
 
because the domain and codomain vanish outside the unit square
for non negative $n$
so it basically gets rid of the other part of the circle
and just gives you the part that passes through the unit square
 
@geocalc33 are you referring the question I just posted?
 
which one is that?
 
You haven't defined any functions. You have given an equation. What domains and codomians are you talking about???
 
No it's just that you were talking about the unit circle and I did post a question that involves the typical identities that ends up having something to do with that
and you asked me specifically so I assumed it was for that post since it's probably my least effort one in a while so there is likely to be something stupid in ir
mainly it's because maple wont share their inbuilt code for how they compute floating point approximations, so every time they have inbuilt code that contradicts other inbuilt code, I'm just going to somehow find a way to complain about it as stack exchange question until they let me debug inbuilt code, so I no longer have a blind spot
its very frustrating to 85 percent of the time be able to trust that the approximations are accurate, and then all of a sudden have it tell you what you have done is false, when you are right, or vice versa
I got a free large iced coffee frappe from maccas drive thru this morning.
 
2:04 AM
cool
 
it was a good day overall
 
nice mine was too
 
I did not think to coldbrew last night, and ended up getting terrible, terrible coffee on campus at Charbucks this morning. That sucked. :\
I need to get a second coffee maker for my second office so that I don't have to drink terrible coffee.
 
@XanderHenderson I was just trying to understand that equation
it seems it's not really that interesting
 
@geocalc33 I get that you are trying to understand the equation. I just don't understand what aspect of it you aren't understanding. It is just the equation of a circle, complexified, and written funny.
 
2:10 AM
yeah I understand that part I was just trying to find somehting interesting about it that wasn't there
 
Just like $\alpha w + \beta z = \gamma$ is an equation for a line, complexified, and written funny.
 
that's what I was plotting
 
Is it true that set of all condensation points in a separable metric space $X$ is either empty or uncountable?
 
and I was thinking that the red line could be the identity element and on either side you have your elements and inverse elements
 
@geocalc33 of course that is what desmos plotted---desmos doesn't know about complex numbers
 
2:14 AM
anyway..
okay but now I'm just talking about reals
 
could it be a group though? with identity element as $(1-x)+y=1$
 
How can you find the summation of k = 1 to infinity of 3/(4^k) via telescoping?
 
@geocalc33 What is "it"?
 
anyway it shouldn't have a problem verifying $9\,\pi \,{{\rm e}^{3}}-180\,\pi =9\,\pi \, \left( {{\rm e}^{3}}-2
\right) -162\,\pi $
 
2:19 AM
Could what be a group?
What is the underlying set, and what is the group operation.
 
Like the software does simplifications like that all the time why there would it suddenly need me change the settings
 
@XanderHenderson the set of elements consist of: $e^{slnx}+e^{slny}=1$. The set of inverse elements are those reflected about the identity element which is $e^{lnx}+e^{lny}=1$. I'm not sure what the group operation is though...hmm
addition? multiplication? composition?
 
@geocalc33 A group is defined by its elements and an operation; you don't need to specify inverse elements.
 
okay
 
Once you define the elements and the operation, you can determine the inverse elements from the definition.
 
2:25 AM
I guess I'll go with addition
when the operation is applied to any two group elements it should give another element in the group
hooray
it works
do you concur @XanderHenderson
 
3:24 AM
Anyone feeling like helping me think about a measure theory problem? :)
 
 
1 hour later…
Luc
4:52 AM
I think I've reasonably described my question, but I find it hard to think of good tags. Looking through common tags, I'm having a "mhm, I know some of these words..." moment (the math education I had, which isn't much, wasn't in English). Could someone look over the tags of my question to see if there are any missing and whether the ones I chose are correct? math.stackexchange.com/questions/2891706
 
5:06 AM
hello
@Luc
sorry I am not qualified to help you properly
 
 
2 hours later…
7:19 AM
@DrewBrady what's the problem?
 
8:00 AM
Good morning all!
When I have two groups $G,H$ and I form new group by direct product formation, I do not see immediately that $|G\times H| = |G||H|$. Because its not immediately clear to me that $(g_1,h_1)=(g_2,h_2) \Rightarrow g_1=g_2 \land h_1=h_2$ ($\Leftarrow$ is clear). The new group potentially could have a different "identification operation", no?
 
8:20 AM
@Rudi_Birnbaum By definition, just as a set, we have that those orders agree
i.e. that property of when two pair are identical are part of the definition of the direct product as a set
 
What are the equivalent definitions for a set to be nowhere dense in R, all i know is the interior of the closure of the set is null
 
Differential equation of all non horizontal lines in a plane?
Attempt:
$y = mx + c$, $m \ne 0$
$y' = m$
$y''= 0 $
But answer given is:
$\dfrac{d^2x}{dy^2} = 0 $
Why am I wrong?
 
@Shobhit not dense in any open set
But I don't know how many characterisations are there or what are you looking for
 
8:35 AM
So, if $A$ is nowhere dense in $R$ then there exists an open interval $O$ such that $O \cap A = \phi$ @AlessandroCodenotti
 
No, but $O\cap A$ is never dense in $O$
 
8:57 AM
But I have since figured it out
 
9:14 AM
@Shobhit this is right @AlessandroCodenotti
but the converse is not right
I believe a characterization is that every open set O contains an open set U such that U intersect A is empty
 
9:27 AM
thanks @LeakyNun
@AlessandroCodenotti
 
9:51 AM
@LeakyNun My bad, I wasn't clear, I meant that this is not equivalent to being nowhere dense and is not equivalent to not being dense in any open set. But it's true of course
 
10:24 AM
@LeakyNun Are you there
 
2 hours ago, by Abcd
Why am I wrong?
 
@Abcd you aren't wrong
 
2 hours ago, by Abcd
But answer given is:
2 hours ago, by Abcd
$\dfrac{d^2x}{dy^2} = 0 $
 
just express x as subject of y
ok in another sense, the given answer captures the "non-horizontal" part which your answer does not
 
10:41 AM
@LeakyNun ?
 
11:22 AM
@LeakyNun Can you please elaborate?
Can any parabola have both x^2 and y^2 terms?
 
u^2 = 4v is a parabola
substitute u=x+y and v=x-y
 
@LeakyNun Hmm, what about previous question?
 
that's a rather ridiculous question
 
:/
 
11:40 AM
Hi guys
 
hi
 
12:05 PM
@Abcd if it is f(x,y), we call that a parabloid, otherwise if it is y^2=f(x), it's something else entirely
$ax^2 + bxy + cy^2 = d$ are conics
 
@Secret Didnt you see leaky nun's example?
@Secret Is that not a parabola^?
@LeakyNun can you help me figure out mistake in my solution of a question?
 
@Abcd O, I was thinking about squared terms with negative coefficients, yes that one is a parabola rotated
 
@LeakyNun Order and degree of differential equation whose solution is: $(x-h)^2 + (y-k)^ = a^2$
Solution:
$x- h + yy' - ky' = 0 $
$\implies 1+ yy'' + (y')^2 - ky'' = 0 $
So order=2
degree = 1
But answer is:
Order 2
Degree 2
 
@Secret ^
 
12:18 PM
@LeakyNun Whats my error?
@LeakyNun Why did you ping him/her?
 
because I have no idea
 
Why is the equation being differentiated twice, are they asking for a 2nd order equation?
 
Find: Order and degree of differential equation whose solution is ...
 
if you differentiated that once, you get a 1st order degree 1 nonlinear ODE
differentiated that again, you get a 2nd order degree 2 nonlinear ODE

Order is the largest derivative, while degree is the largest exponent
 
@Secret Degree is largest exponent of highest order derivative which in this case is y'' whose exponent is 1
Never mind. Ill ask on main.
 
12:31 PM
0
Q: Question about the degree of differential equation

joe Is that the correct answer in the picture? According to the definition, The degree of a differential equation is the power of the highest order derivative in the equation, so my question is why the result is not 1 (because the first term is the highest order derivative) but 3?

and it does not help that degree is only well defined if the y form polynomials
 
@TobiasKildetoft OK, thanks! (It was not explicitly mentioned in my textbook, afaiu (Hungerford))
 
12:52 PM
-2
Q: Group under addition?

George ThomasIs this a valid group? I tried going through all the conditions. $G$ is the set of equations for $x,y \in \Bbb R(0,1); $ $G= \{ e^{s{\rm ln}(x)}+e^{s{\rm ln(1-y)}}=1; s\in \Bbb R \}$ with addition as the group operation. So for example adding two elements of the group together: $ e^{2{\rm ln...

@Rudi_Birnbaum do you understand that question
 
@geocalc33 That question it complete nonsense as far as I can tell.
 
no it isn't
.
 
@geocalc33 Ahh, you are the same person as the OP?
 
no
 
Then why are you claiming it is not complete nonsense?
 
12:55 PM
$e^{x ln(y)}$= y^x, to begin with. Then $\Bbb R(0,1)$ is odd $(0,1)$ might do as well ... I didn't read further yet
 
okay fine i am the same as the op
for some reason I'm still geocalc in the chat though
 
BUSTED!!! :P
 
Is there an identity element and an inverse, for each?
 
there is an inverse element for each element. To get each inverse element just reflect the element over the identity element
 
for $y=1$ and $s=-1$ you get division by zero ...
 
1:01 PM
y is not defined for 1
y does not include 1
$y \in (0,1) $
 
@geocalc33: How should $x^{s_1} + (1-y)^{s_1} + x^{s_2} + (1-y)^{s_2}$ be identical to $x^{s_3} + (1-y)^{s_3}$ for any $s_3$? Freshmans dream?
The freshman's dream is a name sometimes given to the erroneous equation (x + y)n = xn + yn, where n is a real number (usually a positive integer greater than 1). Beginning students commonly make this error in computing the power of a sum of real numbers. When n = 2, it is easy to see why this is incorrect: (x + y)2 can be correctly computed as x2 + 2xy + y2 using distributivity (commonly known as the FOIL method). For larger positive integer values of n, the correct result is given by the binomial theorem. The name "freshman's dream" also sometimes refers to the theorem that says that for a prime...
 
@user2646 yeah!
 
well...
let me just put my thinking cap on
maybe you just BUSTED my group
anyway for $s \in \Bbb R(1,\infty)$
 
@geocalc33 No worry I didn't bust it, it has never been one ...
 
1:11 PM
yeah it is
 
in The h Bar, 3 mins ago, by danielunderwood
Is there a sort of abstract version of a tensor that you could call type (a, b, ..., k) with k types of indices? I can't see how it would come out of the geometric definition of a tensor, but I wondered if there was a way to create such a thing.
Trivariant tensor ftw
 
@geocalc33 You again don't understand you own definition: it should hold for all x,y of your domain, while the $s$ are the "indices" for the elements thus fixed for each element ...
 
Pairs well with Triglavian, Triangulum, Tripodium
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum how does it not hold?
 
its not closed
if you disagree, tell me what is $s_3$?
(as a function of $s_1$ and $s_2$)
 
1:18 PM
okay one second
 
relax and take 2
 
$e^{2{\rm ln}(x)}+e^{2{\rm ln(1-y)}}+e^{3{\rm ln}(x)}+e^{3{\rm ln(1-y)}}=2$
 
(except $s_1=s_2=0$ that should work, then your group has one element ...)
@geocalc33 What???
 
You add the equations together!!!!
lol
 
@geocalc33 That is not $e^{s_3 ln(x)} + e^{s_3 ln(1-y)} = 1$, but that is what should result, to have at least something looking a bit like closedness ...
And again $e^{s\ln(x)}$ is an oddly written $x^s$, unless you have a specific reason. Then you should tell it.
 
1:26 PM
so it is closed :P
 
@geocalc33 No it isnt. When you claim adding your equations is a group operation you have to show that adding $x^{s_1} + (1-y)^{s_1} = 1 $ to $x^{s_2} + (1-y)^{s_2} = 1 $ gives you $x^{s_3} + (1-y)^{s_3} = 1 $ for some specific $s_3$. So you really should be able to rewrite $x^{s_1} + (1-y)^{s_1} + x^{s_2} + (1-y)^{s_2} = 1+1$ into $x^{s_3} + (1-y)^{s_3} = 1 $ and nothing else.
So you essentially have to give $s_3$ ans a function of $s_1$ and $s_2$ such that the equivalence of the two equations hold.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos Morning. I have another commutative algebra question for you, when you have time.
 
@geocalc33 And anyway how do you know that any of these equations make sense? E.g. if $s=0$ then you have $1+1=1$ that does not hold (no matter for which $x,y$)... Yeah maybe in that sense its makes sense adding nonsensical equations will give you a nonsensical equation. Yeah that's closed ...
 
@rschwieb It's very unlikely I can answer, but I'd be interested in hearing the question too!
Sanity check: The proof that of the hairy ball theorem can actually be modified to show that whenever $n$ is even there is no continuous map $f\colon S^n\to\Bbb R^{n+1}$ such that $x$ and $f(x)$ are linearly independent for all $x\in S^n$, right?
 
1:47 PM
@geocalc33 and even if you manage to fix that somehow (using modified equations) you will never get anything interesting out of it. If you go to linear equations you will end with linear algebra or well known groups like $(\Bbb R, +)$ and the like ...
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Sure. I can't ask very sophisticated questions anyhow. The question is about the definition of almost-Dedekind domains (and Dedekind domains indirectly.) I know that some commutative algebra texts have the habit of excluding fields from their definitions.
@AlessandroCodenotti For example, the definition of almost-Dedekind is "a domain where the localizations are discrete valuation rings" But at that rate, I guess a field can't be almost-dedekind
So i'm wondering how problematic it is to relax such definitions to "a discrete valuation ring or a field."
 
I don't know about almost-Dedekind domains, but I encountered this in Milne's ANT notes just the other day "According to the above definition, a field is a Dedekind domain. In future, we shall exclude fields from being Dedekind domains (conventions vary)."
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Yeah sigh. I understand that it eliminates the need for some edge cases, but I really want to know if it's still consistent to be inclusive. In other situations, it usually pays off (in terms of hierarchical classification) to be inclusive.
You can say that a Dedekind domain is just a commutative hereditary domain, but it'd be stupid to say "except if it's a field."
 
Hmmm, i don't immediately see anything that goes wrong without excluding fields
Of course all the stuff about unique factorization of ideals, integral domain with finitely many prime ideals is Dedekind iff pid and the usual results are trivial for fields
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I guess the question is what happens when you have a domain which has all prime localiztaions that turn out to be fields or discrete valuation rings. Is that even possible?
I mean, to have both
 
2:00 PM
I think the only localization of a domain that is a field is the one at $\{0\}$
 
OK, well that woudl be good
well
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum a non-solution in search of a problem
 
Sorry, taking some time to process. I'm not used to thinking about domains really. I know that von Neumann regular rings have localizations that are all fields
but VNR's are very far from domains :)
 
If you localize an integral domain $A$ at $\mathfrak p$ you get a local ring with $\mathfrak pA_{\mathfrak p}$ as unique maximal ideal, so it is not a field, or am I missing something?
 
If I localize at a (nonzero) maximal ideal and the result is a field, that means that the maximal ideal is a minimal prime, but that won't fly if there's the zero prime sitting underneath
so I think I agree :)
Yeah I think we're saying the same thing
 
2:05 PM
Hmm I'm not familiar with your terminology so I'm not sure about your argument, but I'm glad we agree :)
 
@Semiclassical :-)
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Actually here is enough to have a commutative ring $A$, no need for a domain
 
user131753
@TobiasKildetoft Wait. I am not sure I understand that comment. Can you clarify a bit?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Well, you can definitely have a ring whose localizations are all fields and yet the result isn't a field.
 
Really? I must be missing something, how do you do that?
 
2:08 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti $\Bbb Z/6\Bbb Z$
note that the map to the localization doesn't need to be injective
 
or easier try product of fields :)
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Any product of fields at all, even infinite!
@LeakyNun Heya! I put up the ring maps this morning.
They're kind of hidden though
And I accidentally included a suboptimial version of the full map
 
Hmmm, What's the localization of $A=\Bbb Z/6\Bbb Z$ at $\mathfrak p=(2)$?
 
$\{1, 5\}$ were originally units, and then $\{3\}$ gets thrown in, so you have the field of three elements.
Might take a bit to write down the actual equivalence classes :)
 
Hmmm, I'm missing something, let me think about this for a while
 
2:22 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti i think this follows from the corollary mentioned in en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hairy_ball_theorem#Corollary
 
From Spivak's book Question:

Find a $\delta$ such that $|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$ for all x satisfying $0<|x-a|<\delta$

$$f(x)=\frac{1}{x};a=1 ,L=1$$
we need to find$\delta$ such that $|\frac{1}{x}-1|<\epsilon$
 
@loch looks like it, thanks
 
actually I think you expect to get the field of two elements (unless im being dumb)

you can use the fact localization commutes with quotients, so $A_{\mathfrak{p}} = \mathbb{Z}_{(2)} / (6)\mathbb{Z}_{(2)} = \mathbb{Z}_{(2)} / 2 \mathbb{Z}_{(2)} = \mathbb{F}_2$.
 
I'd also expect $\Bbb F_2$ because then $(2)$ is the $0$ ideal in the localization, so the unique maximal ideal as expected
 
hmmm
 
2:32 PM
My argument above should still work for integral domains though because there $A\hookrightarrow A_{\mathfrak{p}}$ is injective and $\mathfrak pA_{\mathfrak p}$ is a nonzero proper maximal ideal, hence $A_{\mathfrak p}$ can't be a field
 
Yes, it does work for integral domains.
Yeah, it does look like the field of two elements, judging from the equivalence classes... why does inverting 3 (formerly an idempotent) not add a new unit?!
(1,1), (3,3), (5,5) are all obviously equivalent.
Then (1,3)(3,3)=(3,3)
(1,5)(3,3)=(3,3)
(3,5)(3,3)=(3,3)
(5,1)(3,3)=(3,3) etc
thinking of them as fractions
counterintuitive, especially for me
ahh, pff
better not to think of the things in the complement as inverted, at least not when this isn't a domain
 
2:55 PM
With a quotient ring, you just "coalesce". With a local ring, you somehow have to expand (by looking at R\times S) and then coalesce with the equivalence relation
That makes it a lot harder for me to think of :/
 
It's definitely not intuitive at all for generic rings
With integrals domain you're just working inside $\operatorname{Frac}(A)$, which is super nice
 
Right
 
i just realised i completely forgot about chinese remainder theorem
oops
 
@Semiclassical I don't appreciate your comment. The idea I'm working on is in its infancy and it's not going to be perfect on the first try. It is very important to who I am, and when you imply that I'm fumbling in the dark looking for solutions when there are none to find it's insulting and makes me feel of lesser worth
 
Hey everyone
So a local ring is defined as a ring $A$ with exactly one maximal ideal
But can't there only ever be one maximal ideal for any ring $R$?
Like if you have two maximal ideals, shouldn't they be equal set theoretically?
 
3:10 PM
@Perturbative have you thought about $\mathbb{Z}$?
 
@geocalc33 It's important to separate your feelings of work from whatever work you do - partly so that there are no hard feelings from things like this, partly because research is hard and miserable.
I have spent a lot of time feeling worthless because I was stuck or couldn't solve something I expected to be able to.
Feelings of worth*
 
@loch Ahh yes of course, the ideals $(p)$ where $p$ are prime are maximal in $\mathbb{Z}$, but $(p_1) \not\subseteq (p_2)$ and $(p_2) \not\subseteq (p_1)$ for any primes $p_1, p_2$ since $p_1 \not\in (p_2)$ and vice versa
So there's no one real maximal ideal in $\mathbb{Z}$
@MikeMiller On the upside some of the best feelings are to be had when you solve something you didn't expect to be able to
 
3:29 PM
hello, can someone help me on union of connected sets?
 
It's connected as well, if they intersect somewhere
 
@Vrouvrou So in a topological space $X$, if you have two connected sets $C_1$ and $C_2$, if $C_1 \cap C_2 \neq \emptyset$ then their union is connected
 
3:57 PM
@Perturbative i do a prove and I want to see if it. is correct
 
Again hanging on some triviality (sry): I have an equivalence relation on a monoid. How to see that $a_1 \sim a_2$ and $b_1\sim b_2$ implies $ a_1 b_1 \sim a_2 b_2$. Intuitively its somehow clear...
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum it depends on your equivalence relation
 
@LeakyNun No restrictions as far as I can see
 
@Vrouvrou You can post it here and one of us can check and verify it
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum it's not true in general
 
3:59 PM
@LeakyNun That relieves me a bit, I still show you the original text 1 sec.
Sry
It said " .... such that imply ... " is that the trick?
 
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