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08:00
[RNdom]
Consider RNS. Define the topohology of the grid f to be as follows:
{d.,df.,.s,a,EE,(fade)
08:16
Topolography of g is given my: x |_|c^v ~ rf#Iop(a&a)
08:34
@Silent $U = \{ (a,b,c,d) \mid a+b=c+d \} = \{ (a,b,c,d) \mid a+b-c-d = 0 \} = \ker f$ where $f : \Bbb R^4 \to \Bbb R : (a,b,c,d) \mapsto a+b-c-d$
@abenthy welcome
@loch will you be there?
@Daminark
@LeakyNun I am here
@LeakyNun are you in common room?
@loch no, I'm at home
it will take me an hour to get there
I'll tell you when I arrive
08:49
I see
 
1 hour later…
10:05
@loch I’m in the common room now
@LeakyNun cool let me come in 5 minutes
11:02
62
A: Motivating Lubin-Tate theory

LubinSorry I didn’t see this earlier. My memory is vague, and probably colored by subsequent events and results, but here’s how I recall things happening. Since I had read and enjoyed Lazard’s paper on one-dimensional formal group (laws), which dealt with the case of a base field of characteristic $p...

It’s true that it was Lubin who found the formal groups that do everything for you, but it was Tate who understood all the implications of their existence, and put everything together in the paper you’re referring to. — Lubin Oct 16 '15 at 0:59
“it was Lubin”
said by Lubin himself lol
12:09
Took me almost a DECADE to break into That Barrier
The Barrier that separates Real life and Fantasy
Now where is my Order...
13:09
anyone here is good with prenex?
13:43
What is a surface of revolution in $\mathbb{H} ^ 3$?
14:03
is a set with exactly one mapping partially ordered by inclusion? asking for a proof
what is $\mathbb H^3$?
Hyperbolic space?
oh I don't f*** with those
lol
I mean, wouldn't it be the same thing as Euclidean space?
You can rotate around a line just fine
Yes, hyperbolic space with dim 3
@loch i’m in the common room now
14:16
I also figured this out, but what would a reflection isometric across cycle be? math.stackexchange.com/questions/2807101/…
@LeakyNun im coming in 20 sec
14:33
@Mancala They're reflecting across a plane
It works similarly to reflecting across a plane in Euclidean space
I'd assume the book dealt with isometric transformations in hyperbolic space already
Oh, it's not a book.
I am starting to wonder whether these handshake problems is basically to find the number of edges in a complete graph of N vertices
hmm, I'm trying to use Zorn's Lemma on the following set but I need to show there's an upper bound, any ideas? here's the set
5
Q: Handshake problem

EugeneI was given the following math puzzle which (I thought) has an interesting solution. A mathematician and her husband attended a party with $n-1$ other couples. As is normal at parties, handshaking took place. Of course, no one shook their own hand or the hand of the person they came with. And no...

$S, T$ are well ordered. $S' = S \cup $ initial segments of $S$, $T' = T \cup $ initial segments of $T$, $\{ f : S' \to T' : f \text{ is an order isomorphism} \}$
I hope it does have an upper bound
ordered by inclusion
if it doesnt have an upper bound my book is wrong, but the book doesnt say why it has an upper bound
15:06
oh of course I see it
@Secret yeah, that’s how I think of it
That or just “n choose 2”.
yeah pretty much
wait no i dont see it
every initial segment has an upper bound but why does all of $S'$ have an upper bound
All initial segments of $S$ are nested subsets of $S$, thus $S$ will be the upper bound since there is no set in $S'$ that contains $S$ except $S$ itself
Likewise for $T$
nice
wait but why is that an upper bound in $S'$
$S \subseteq S'$ but $S \notin S'$
is it?
15:21
For each initial segment $S_{\alpha}$ of $S$ ordered by inclusion, there is always initial segments of $S$ including $S$ itself that contains them and any $S_{\beta}$ where $\beta < \alpha$,thus they are greater than or equal to $S_{\alpha}$ under inclusion
Also $S'$ is not a set of sets thus $S$ or any of its initial segments cannot be elements of $S'$
so should it be initial segments $\cup \{S\}$?
rather than initial segments $\cup S$?
initial segments $\cup \{S\}$ will produce $\{\text{initial segments, S}\}$?
but you are given initial segment $\cup S$ which is different
right
okay so
any initial segment has an upper bound by definition
every element $s \in S$ has an initial segment $S_s$ so that has an upper bound?
thus every chain in $S'$ has an upper bound, namely, the initial segment defined by $S_s \in S'$?
im a bit confused
i think I get it
oh no Dami is here, hide the roulette tables
15:37
I cannot think of an intuitive and elementary example without using ordinals to show that every initial segment of a well ordered set has an upper bound
that's just the definition of an initial segment
wosets aren't intuitive anyway
I see, $S_s = \{x \in S : x < s\}$ thus we always have $s$ as an upper bound
Suppose $\phi>\varphi>0$
Nah I'm kidding
the results are up on ProofWiki for ordinals but I want these results to not depend on the existence of ordinals because No Proper Classes in my BackYard
15:41
yeah, I also want to deal with wosets directly without ordinals, cause I rely on them too much
45
Hmm... does $S$ always have a upper bound? Depending on what $S$ is, it may not have an element larger than or equal to all other elements
For example, the naturals
it does not. consider the naturals, for example
I mean, every initial segment of the naturals have an upper bound (in fact it has a supremum, namely the successor element), but the naturals in its entirely does not have an upper bound since any such is not a natural
right
15:59
thanks for the help Secret
@AkivaWeinberger I wanted to see a drawing in the $\mathbb{H}^2$ case to understand better.
16:19
The curves forming boundaries of triangles are actually lines in the hyperbolic plane
Reflecting a triangle across one of those lines turns it into another triangle
(of opposite color)
triangles in noneuclidean round planes (spherical or ovalic ... etc) have >$\pi$ sum of inner angles.
@AkivaWeinberger Planes here would be union of straight lines, right? What would a reflection across totally geodesic plane? I'm having trouble understanding this specific case, it seems to me to be something that comes out from the inside out, is that it?
16:38
I found a good way to not mix up meet and join:
Let up > down, then observe $\lor$, the vertex of this symbol is the supremum as everything else are upper bound that are larger than it
Likewise for $\land$, the tip is the infimum since everything else is smaller in the cone defined by the shape of the symbol
here i was trying to understand why the area of a circle drawn upon a sphere is bigger same as is but as a cap in an euclidean isometry. It was long time ago.
And when one put $\land, \lor$ together, they get an X, which looks just like the intuitive lattice when duplicated many times
I'll check it out, but I'll be right back!
and thus we have the notion of the algebraic structure of a lattice $(L,\land,\lor)$ being encoded by the shape of the binary operators
I wonder if we can do similar things for rings...
More generally, how many mathematical symbols actually have literal interpretations and how large is this set of algebraic structure that has this property
@Mancala You see how, in that image, the hyperbolic plane is a disk, and the hyperbolic lines are circles that meet the edge of the disk at right angles?
In the 3D case, hyperbolic space is a sphere, and hyperbolic planes are spheres that meet the edge of the space at right angles.
Unfortunately, images of this are less illuminating
16:52
kinda pretty tho
(This is a tiling of hyperbolic space with icosahedra; it shows the edges of the icosahedra, which are lines, as well as one icosahedron in the middle shown in blue)
@AkivaWeinberger It's one of those remarkable cases where we see that our mind's eye is more powerful than any depiction we could create
I mean I really only need a single plane for what I'm trying to explain
so the whole tiling is kinda overkill
A single plane, an object on one side of it, and its reflection on the other side
but hyperbolic
True, but I think it's much easier to create a 3-dimensional image internally than externally
@MikeMiller any idea of how to make RP^3 obviously look like a circle bundle over RP^2?
17:05
Hopf?
@anakhronizein $S^3 \to S^2$ factors through $\Bbb{RP}^3$ (actually, the latter is the Euler class 2 circle bundle over $S^2$). Then just compose with the quotient map $\Bbb{RP}^3 \to S^2 \to \Bbb{RP}^2$.
You need to check that fibers are connected but I believe the yare
/pf/ is a pretty rad affricate
"Hopf"
Pferfect
What do you mean it factors through RP^3, exactly?
There's a map $f:{\rm\Bbb RP^3}$ that makes $S^3\to{\rm\Bbb RP^3}\xrightarrow f S^2$ into the Hopf map, I think
I don't quite know what it means to by "Hopf".
17:13
Actually, that might not be right
Hold on
So let's say $H:S^3\to S^2$ is the Hopf map
and let $x$ be in $\rm\Bbb RP^3$
then we can choose a $\tilde x\in S^3$ such that its projection in $\rm\Bbb RP^3$ is $x$
We have two choices 'cause $S^3\to{\rm\Bbb RP^3}$ is a double cover
Take $H(\tilde x)\in S^2$
I think this does depend on the choice of $\tilde x$
@AkivaWeinberger pfanne!
Or, does it?
Ugh, how is Hopf defined algebraically
anyone here know German
@ÍgjøgnumMeg, Ted, Mathein
17:17
you know German?
@GFauxPas yeah
I think it doesn't depend on the choice of $\tilde x$ actually
Is $H$ even?
In any case, $x\mapsto H(\tilde x)$ is the ${\rm\Bbb RP}^3\to S^2$ thingy
I want to add as a historical note to ProofWiki that Zermelo thought the axiom of choice was obvious. But I don't want to use a published translation for copyright reasons. Can you translate the sentence please he says right before the exposition of the axiom?
and then we can concatenate with $S^2\mapsto{\rm\Bbb RP}^2$.
@anakhronizein
Hmmm, I will check the details on this Akiva, thanks!
17:20
"so läßt sich das allgemeine „Prinzip der Auswahl" auf das folgende Axiom zurückführen, dessen rein objektiver Charakter unmittelbar einleuchtet."
Have you tried Gurgle Translat?
no because I'd rather it be an actual person :P
@GFauxPas I think perhaps @Mathein would be a better person to ask, my German only extends to non-technical useage
lol
Translation: I haven't done any maths in German
17:21
"the general "principle of choice" can be traced back to the following axiom, whose purely objective character is immediately apparent.
@GFauxPas
Ah, you can Germ?
thanks!
not the quote I wanted then
i wanted him saying it's obviously true
lemme see
"whose purely objective character is immediately apparent." is pretty close to saying "whose truth is obvious"
but he was objecting to other formulations that people objected were too vague, from what I gather
he formulated something about choice but people complained the exposition was too vague
maybe this
‘wird aber in der mathematischen Deduktion überall unbedenklich angewendet’
?
17:27
"but in mathematical deduction it is used everywhere in a harmless way."
ah yes
cartesian product of non empty is non empty
:)
obvious
thanks anak
No problemo.
Give me an element of $\prod\mathcal P(\Bbb R)$
$(\emptyset,\emptyset,\emptyset,\emptyset,\emptyset,\emptyset,\emptyset ,...)$
Is every biconnected graph homeomorphic to some triconnected graph? In other words, will I always get a triconnected graph if I "smooth out" the degree-2 vertices of a biconnected graph?
No, it's not. I'm stupid.
17:41
okay found the whole quote
want me to paste it or nah?
If you wanted.
Der vorliegende Beweis beruht auf der Voraussetzung, daß Belegungen $\gamma$ überhaupt existieren, also auf dem Prinzip, daß es auch für eine unendliche Gesamtheit von Mengen immer Zuordnungen gibt, bei denen jeder Menge eines ihrer Elemente entspricht, oder formal ausgedrückt,
daß das Produkt einer unendlichen Gesamtheit von Mengen, deren jede mindestens ein Element enthält, selbst von Null verschieden ist. Dieses logische Prinzip läßt sich zwar nicht auf ein noch einfacheres zurückführen, wird aber in der mathematischen Deduktion überall unbedenklich angewendet.
So kann z. B. die Allgemeingültigkeit des Satzes, daß die Anzahl der Teile, in die eine Menge zerfällt, kleiner oder gleich ist der Anzahl aller ihrer Elemente, nicht anders bewiesen werden, als indem man sich jedem der betrachteten Teile eines seiner Elemente zugeordnet denkt.
i put it in google translate so you dont have to translate that (unless you want to)
but what I needed help with was narrowing ti down and you did that so thanks :)
> daß das
that's in the original
17:46
i'm guessing it's "that that" which appears in English
that that is concerned with, e.g.
or something
@GFauxPas right, except nobody writes "daß" anymore because of a spelling reform, it's just "dass" now
lol
although actually here it's just "that the"
well it's from 1904 lol
yeah fair, I'm surprised it's even as modern sounding as it is hahah
I have something from Ernst Kummer where often you see "Theile" instead of "Teile"
etc.
"the proposition that the number of parts into which a set disintegrates is less than or equal to the number of all its elements can not be proved otherwise than by thinking of each of the considered parts of one of its elements."
hmm, not sure what theorem he's talking about here
that the number of subsets cant be more than the cardinality of the set?
number of distinct subsets
he is saying that you need a representative for each set
oh hmm
17:58
Yo
if you replaced the last "of" with a "by"
or a "as"
I mean this is google translate so
yeah
i guess its something like
a set is non empty iff it has an element, so any time you have a disjoint collection of non-empty sets, you just pick an element from each set
something like that
18:01
so the number of singletons is the number of elements
im not sure tbqh
@anakhronizein can you help us
I think he is saying that if you have a partition of a set, the partition can't be larger that the set, but to prove that you need to assume the axiom of choice
oh that makes sense
(you can actually get partitions strictly larger than the set if you don't have the axiom of choice)
?!?!
one of the pigeons is trying to claim my room as his territory
18:03
how does not having the axiom of choice allow such a monstrosity to be considered
because you need the axiom of choice to prove that a quotient set cant be larger than the set
iirc one example is the set of finitely supported functions from Z to .. say .. N
which is countable
and then you consider the quotient of that set by translations
wait uuuuh
scratch that
maybe just functions from Z to N
or was it quotienting by changing a finite number of elements ?
i don't remember
also cardinality is a bit fuzzier without the axiom of choice
I don't remember if he proved that there couldn't be injections one way or surjections the other way
115
A: Why worry about the axiom of choice?

Dr StrangechoiceHow I Learned to Stop Worrying and Love the Axiom of Choice The universe can be very a strange place without choice. One consequence of the Axiom of Choice is that when you partition a set into disjoint nonempty parts, then the number of parts does not exceed the number of elements of the set be...

:(
no example there
maybe in the comments
The Axiom of Choice is obviously true; the Well Ordering Principle is obviously false; and who can tell about Zorn's Lemma? - Jerry Bona
but i remember seeing something a lot more specific
18:27
hmm, Zermelo writes about disjoint sets $A, B, C, \ldots$. Does that mean he only needed choice for sets of sets up to cardinality 26?
that is so weird that a quotient set can be bigger than a set without choice
good thing I'm a choicean
18:41
it's not a bug it's a feature
19:04
hello
hello
19:28
hello
can someone recommend a good point set topology reference for just lots of examples to supplement munkres?
Any argument where one supposes an arbitrary choice to be made a nondenumerably
infinite number of times [ . . . ] is outside the domain of mathematics.- Borel lol
@Eulb try Janich(Topology) or Simmons(Topology and modern analysis)
lol this is so wild, these mathematicians snarking at each other over choicew
I am interested in learning representation theory, I was browsing the wiki on it. There are so many areas to read in. Can anyone suggest where should an undergraduate begin?
people are objecting to Zermelo not proving it, and he says he knows he didn't prove it, but people use it all the time without saying so explicitly GOSH
he says that denying choice is like saying that "we can't prove the parallel postulate therefore we won't study geometry"
lul
so sassy I love it
The relatively large number of criticisms directed against my small note
testifies to the fact that, apparently, strong prejudices stand in the way
of the theorem that any arbitrary set can be well-ordered. But the fact
that in spite of a searching examination, for which I am indebted to all
the critics, no mathematical error could be demonstrated in my proof and
the objections raised against my principles are mutually contradictory and
thus in a sense cancel each other, allows me to hope that in time all of this
Zermelo ... has 8 pages of polemics with
Poincar´e, Bernstein, Jourdain, Peano, Hardy, Schoenflies etc., which are
very funny and hit the logicists hard. He stresses the synthetic character of
mathematics everywhere and accuses Poincar´e of confusing set theory and
logicism." - Hessenberg
HIT THE LOGICISTS HARD
Frankel, on Zermelo defending himself: “a treatise which has in respect to its sarcasm nothing like it in mathematical literature.”
19:49
I wonder if I should improve the solution given here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2789752/…. What does chat think? Do I need a cleverer solution?
@anon haven't you been made yet an emeritus professor?
@Abr001am !!! What complicated integral do you try to calculate now? :-)
@Vulthuryol there are some notes on introduction to representation theory by pavel etingof and some of his students which are pretty nice
Waiting waiting
@Waiting your solution looks fine. Tolaso's profile says he/she hasn't been on MSE since 3 hours before you posted your answer, so it's a bit premature to ask if OP is confused.
@anon look at that before drawing more conclusions: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2805416/…
He keeps a completely wrong result despite all the explanations given to him.
4 integrals ? lol that's enough for me to blowout of overthinking.
19:58
Weird
@Abr001am A piece of cake.
@Abr001am it's really just "two"ish integrals before you split apart the three
xyz is treated as one thing at first
yes there is 3 variables, i noticed now :D
Hello
We have that $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x^{2n} e^{-2 \lambda x^2} dx \leq \frac{n!}{\lambda^n} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-\lambda x^2} dx=\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{\lambda}} \frac{n!}{\lambda^n}$

Why is the last quantity finite?
i'm coping with telescoping series and i often come accross a circular definition.
how to avoid, or atleast forecast something like that ?
20:03
@Evinda the last quantity is obviously finite. do you mean the last integral?
DRUGS
@Abr001am you haven't been sufficiently specific about what kind of situation you're talking about, so I can't see how to answer that question
are good for you
but only if taken in large doses
@Faust that's a healthy attitude
@anon No I meant $\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{\lambda}} \frac{n!}{\lambda^n}$ .

Is it finite because it does not depend on x? Or do we check what happens when $n \to +\infty$ ?
20:07
@MatheinBoulomenos math is the same way, bad for you in small doses good in large ones, i think its cause it messes up your brain chemistry
@Evinda I really don't understand your question. It's like asking why $n\lambda$ is finite. If you plug numbers in, it becomes a real number. That's how algebraic expressions work.
thats not really a helpful answer...
for a given n and a given $\lambda$ the RHS is finite
@anon well it's almost like wheras a system of equations is solvable or not, but in this case there is a determinant.
$\lambda =0$?
But $\pi$ is infinite, there are infintely many digits after the period
20:10
well the statement doesnt even make sense for lambda less than 1
@Lozansky
@Abr001am I thought you were talking about telescoping series, but now you're talking about systems and determinants. What?
@MatheinBoulomenos its finite and transcendetal stop muddying the waters
@anon yes well, i gave you an assimilation.
convince me you're not a bot
lmao
20:12
Ah I thought that it wouldn't be finite, because when $n \to +\infty$ the quantity tends to $+\infty$. So don't we check what happens when $n \to +\infty$ @anon
it depends what the question is...
and your statement is nonsense
your implying the limit existing means something is finite
there's no limit or sup or anything, so no. You also wouldn't say that $n^2$ is infinite where $n \in \Bbb N$ because it goes to infinity for $n \to \infty$
or vice versa
@Evinda You can say $\lim_{n\to\infty}(\rm stuff)$ isn't finite. Or you can say $(\rm stuff)$ is an unbounded function of $n$. Perhaps you mean one of these two statements.
the limit is not finte
but the RHS is finite
this is why math has very specific definitions O.o
20:16
@Faust Ah because we consider the RHS as a function of x, right?
no, because when we call it finite, we consider it a number, not a function
Ah I see, because we consider n to be fixed, right?
the word "finite" applies to "number" or "value" (in particular, it applies to a "limit") while the word "bounded" applies to "function"
what you need to do is look up the definitions of a limit existing and the definitions of finite
@Evinda
if you use those it will become clear and smarter people then me came up with them and explain them better
i cant belive i have turned into a native speaker of mathimatics...
Ok, I will.. thank you both @anon @Faust
20:21
sorry i cant be better help but i promise if you read those two definitions it will become clear
20:41
In b4 numbers are just constant maps
O.o
@AkivaWeinberger Thank! I understood my mistake now!
21:04
@MatheinBoulomenos do you really need the axiom of choice to pick an element from a nonempty set? surely not.
peano axioms should give you that much
@Faust I was joking
You need the axiom of choice to choose whether you believe in the axiom of choice
oh my
@MatheinBoulomenos axiom of choice makes me head hurt shouldnt say confusing things like that
$Is ||(\vect{x} + \vect{u})/r||^2 = ||(\vect{x} + \vect{u})||^2 * 1/r^2 ?$
that by what property are we allowed to take constants in and out of norms?
$||(\vec{x}+\vec{u})/r||^2=||(\vec{x}+\vec{u})||2∗1/r^2$
21:17
I think it's sometimes called "absolute homogenity"
$\| \lambda v\|=|\lambda| \|v\|$
but this property
is true correcT?
yes
it's part of the definition of a norm
Thanks MatheinBoul
it tells you intuitively that if you scale a vector, the length gets scaled in the same way
oh
you're right its on wikipedia too
p(av) = |a| p(v) (being absolutely homogeneous or absolutely scalable).
21:19
how dare you doubt @MatheinBoulomenos's teaching
haha
If $a$ is an element in some unital $C^*$-algebra, is it true that $a-||a||1$ is a positive element?
@user193319 Is a self-adjoint?
Presumably you need that for this to be true
Then your new thing would be a negative operator becauss the spectral radius is bounded by the norm
21:44
can anyone give me some tips on how to separate/solve this integral?
$\int e^{-\pi ||(\vec{x} + \vec{u})/r||^2} d \vec{u}$
where r is just a constant
@Maximus Limits?
limits are over a closed ball
$\int_{||\vec{u}|| \le n 2^n \lambda_n(L)} e^{-\pi ||(\vec{x} + \vec{u})/r||^2} d \vec{u}$
where lambda is just a constant
@MikeMiller this is probably a pretty simple question, but since we know that homotopy classes of maps $X \to \operatorname{Gr}(k, \Bbb R^\infty)$ correspond to rank $k$ vector bundles on $X$, when we set $X=\operatorname{Gr}(k, \Bbb R^\infty)$, we get an element corresponding to the identity.
Intuitively, this should be the tautological bundle on the Grassmanian, right?
@MikeMiller Yes.
@Maximus Is $\vec{x}$ somehow related to $\vec{u}$?
21:48
no
I need some kind of a bount
bound
What course is this?
I also know that $||\vec{x}|| \ge \sqrt{n} r$
and $r > 2^{2n} \lambda_n(L)$
No course, some paper I'm working on
@Maximus I don't know if that bound is good for you, since this estimation seems pretty rough, but anyway: you cann pull the constant $e^{-\pi/r^2}$ out of the integrand, so we just work with $e^{-\|\vec{x} + \vec{u}\|}$.
Since $e^x$ is always positive, you can bound the integral with your specific area of integratation by the same integral, but over the whole of $\Bbb R^n$ (this may not even as bad as an estimate as it sounds, as $e^{-x^2}$ falls off pretty quickly.)
But then we can just do the substitution $\vec{y}=\vec{x}+\vec{u}$, so that the $u$ term vanishes. Then we're left with

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