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1:00 AM
Now were working toward Poincare Duality to finish up. But I dont even know what the definition of a ring is, so its a bit lost on me
 
@KevinDriscoll You're learning Mayer-Vietoris in the context of deRham theory, right?
 
Coker(f) = B / im(f) = B/ ker(g) = Im (g)
 
Ya thats right
 
Nice.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos makes sense
 
1:00 AM
I believe I might have done $H^n(M^n) \cong \Bbb R$ for a compact oriented manifold, @Kevin. But last time I did this was ages ago.
 
We just proved that today
 
Oh, cool :) And degree theorem stuff.
I'm sure John taught a good course, Kevin.
 
@Secret look carefully
 
I know a student of Etnyre
 
1:01 AM
Me too :P
 
@ManShunJohnMa a fellow hongkonger!
 
I'm confident as well, just curious what else is out there on the horizon
 
@TedShifrin Well that doesn't count because you know Etnyre himself
 
@MatheinBoulomenos is it commutative?
 
@LeakyNun yeah
 
1:02 AM
@LeakyNun Fooled by google, because its search result showed infective highlighted
 
well, that doesn't mean I know his students, Balarka.
 
We only used degree for mod2 intersection stuff. We never really got into using degree for integrals or oriented intersection theory
Of course theres always too much to cover
 
Oh, I always taught oriented degree.
 
You should learn oriented intersection theory
It's quite important
 
Yeah, doing the grad course there's too much else one should do. When I taught the grad course, I never covered intersection theory or most of G&P.
 
1:03 AM
..... I think the google maps car just went by my apartment....
 
A grad manifolds course? Or difftop?
 
loooool
 
One of my profs said to a student who was asking about a paper of Witten "I'll look into it and try to understand it. If I'm stuck, I'm going to give Edward a call"
 
grad manifolds and diff geo, Demonark. I've never taught diff top graduate.
 
@TedShifrin I take pride in knowing students of various famous mathematician. You know the famous mathematicians themselves :(
 
1:04 AM
Yea of course there Im sure you have to get to Riemannian metrics as quickly as is reasonable
 
Not a very fair comparison
 
@BalarkaSen Well the students did all the work so..... whos in the better position>?
(Im exaggerating of course)
 
@Balarka: I feel very humble to have been a student of Chern's. Very. ... and to have worked with Griffiths, too.
 
@Kevin Hah
 
@Ted We don't actually have a grad manifolds course I think
 
1:06 AM
in our diff geo course we did a lot of bundle stuff before we did metrics
 
so an exact sequence $A \xrightarrow f B \xrightarrow g C$ can be factored to $0 \to \ker f \to A \to \operatorname{im} f \xrightarrow {\operatorname{id}} \ker g \to B \to \operatorname{coker} f \xrightarrow \sim \operatorname{im} g \to C \to 0$, three exact sequences connected by $\operatorname{id}$ and $\sim$ @MatheinBoulomenos
 
me too, @Mathei
 
@TedShifrin I can imagine
 
although I defined metric as a 2-tensor as soon as I did tensors.
 
Chern is a great guy. I wish I knew any of his math though
@LeakyNun Right, that's how you splice exact sequences
Quite useful
 
1:06 AM
@BalarkaSen nice
 
@LeakyNun that's basically that the diagram is saying
 
In particular you can splice spectral sequences into a big fat long exact sequence
Sometimes
 
@Balarka: Um ... Chern classes?
 
or you can splice long exact sequences into short exact sequences
 
But you need to learn how he defined them with curvature :P
 
1:07 AM
@Leaky Also true
@TedShifrin Yep. I am slowly reading this: homepages.math.uic.edu/~kauffman/Exotic.pdf which might be a fresh look at Chern classes again
 
@TedShifrin I have a test on eigenvalues / eigenvectors / symmetric matrices / orthogonalization of conic forms / quadratic forms
 
Well, that's OK, Leaky. Good stuff.
@Balarka: That doesn't look geometric to me.
 
I didn't even know Chern was a mathematician. I always though he was a physicist.
 
Wait chern classes are about curvature? How do you define the Chow ring of a manifold?
 
Manifold? No problem.
Yes, Chern's original definition was with curvature.
Symmetric functions of the curvature matrix of $2$-forms.
 
1:10 AM
What's a conic form?
 
Nope, Kevin. Very much a mathematician.
 
Oh, I mean, just a look at Chern classes. I have yet to understand the curvature business
 
@Daminark quadratic form in 3 dimensions
 
Oh, it's a thing in diff geo, too. I only knew them in alg geo
 
@TedShifrin Q: given an odd number $n$, and $P \in \mathcal L(\Bbb R^n)$, and $PP^T = I$, and $\det P = 1$, prove that $\det(P-I) = 0$. Can I do it without any complex numbers?
 
1:11 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos I think they arise as coefficients of like, $\tr(It -\Theta)$ where $\Theta$ is the curvature matrix.
 
@Leaky. Of course.
 
could you give me a hint?
 
Eigenvalue.
 
lol, I've converted eigenvalue to determinant, and then you ask me to convert back to eigenvalue
oh, and I should have made the question more compact by saying $P \in \Bbb {SO}_n(\Bbb R)$
 
Oh my lord the usage of mathbb letters for $S$ and $O$ is throwing me off
 
1:13 AM
So what do you know about odd degree polynomials?
 
@TedShifrin they have a root
 
yeah, Demonark, it's pretentious
 
@Daminark $\mathbb{GET REK'D}$
 
Oh, I see now why you said without any complex numbers.
 
@Daminark $\Bbb {SO}(n) ~ \Bbb {O}(n) ~ \Bbb {GL}(n) ~ \Bbb {SL}(n) ~ \Bbb {SZ}(n) ~ \Bbb {Z}(n) ~ \Bbb {PGL}(n) ~ \Bbb {PGL}(n)$
 
1:14 AM
So maybe the answer is no.
 
odd-degree polys have roots because of intermediate value theorem and end behavior
 
I need to know complex roots come in conjugate pairs to deduce that positive determinant means I get $+1$ instead of $-1$.
 
Too many blackboard letters
 
@TedShifrin well, they said, $p(0) = 1$, and $p(x) \xrightarrow \infty -\infty$, so $p(1)=0$
 
I can hear the sound of chalks screeching at the blackboards
Help me
 
1:15 AM
@BalarkaSen $\mathbb{ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ}$
$\mathbb{I~CAN~HEAR~THE~SOUND~OF~CHALKS~SCREECHING~AT~THE~BLACKBOARDS}$
$\mathbb{HELP~ME}$
 
Oh for fuck's sake...
 
Turn Leaky off.
 
These glasses are no longer strong enough to help me see normally anymore, I need double the power
 
@LeakyNun $\mathfrak{please}$ $\mathfrak{stop}$
 
Right. The only possible real eigenvalues are $\pm 1$, so from the graph we can see that we must have $p(1)=0$.
 
1:17 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos $\mathscr {OK}$
 
@Daminark Wait, you wear glasses? Not MLG dank goggles?
My life's a lie
 
OK, I'm off to cook. Bye, all.
 
I wear the MLG dank goggles on top of my glasses
 
Ok, it works in some sense, but too much clutter:

Attempt on illustrating Generalised 2nd isomorphism theorem (where the nodes are arbitrary algebraic objects or categories)
 
But yeah I dunno if you can use the spectral theorem for normal operators here, can you?
 
1:17 AM
 
@Daminark Aw hell yea schnoop dawg
 
I think that's a complex thing
See you @Ted!
 
@TedShifrin what are the possible complex eigenvalues though? $\langle Px, Px \rangle = \langle x, x \rangle = \lambda \overline{\lambda} \langle x, x \rangle$, so anything in $\Bbb S^1$ will do?
 
I had a classmate literally write "\mathfrak{so}" on the paper, because he couldn't even fraktur
@TedShifrin bye!
 
@Leaky I guess my question here is, what's the aversion to using complex numbers?
 
1:18 AM
@Daminark I just don't want to, lol
keep it in the reals
 
complex numbers don't exist
 
you don't exist
 
i $\Bbb C$ therefore i am
2
 
@Mathein I have never had to use frak on paper and probably can't, but like, that's just beautiful.
 
how can complex numbers be real if our "i"s aren't real?
 
1:19 AM
Dammit I was going for that
Friggin snip'd
 
@Daminark No worries. Great minds think alike
 
That diagram I draw reduces the original diagram to just 3 nodes (represented by the lines joining the collinear points), but with more clutter
 
... but Greater minds think faster! ROASTED
 
and stupid minds think the same
 
I was talking about Mathein's "how can...?"
 
1:20 AM
@LeakyNun any $P\in{\rm SO}(n)$ is similar to a block diagonal matrix whose blocks are 2x2 rotation matrices; if $\theta$ is the angle of one of these rotation matrices, then $e^{i\theta}$ and $e^{-\theta}$ are complex eigenvalues of $P$ (and conversely)
 
@anon right, that's a nice way to think about it
I think instead of orthogonal complements of a linear eigenspace, we can do a whole plane
prove that $\langle \{ u, Pu \} \rangle$ (the subspace not the inner product) is closed under $P$, and so is its orthogonal complement
 
I was thinking for it to be a plane
 
$P(au+bPu) = aPu + bP^2u = ???$ how to prove that it is closed
 
actually wait a minute, I think I still cannot do away with the nodes completely: The kernels of each map may be different
 
@LeakyNun what is $u$?
 
1:24 AM
a vector
2 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
prove that $\langle \{ u, Pu \} \rangle$ (the subspace not the inner product) is closed under $P$, and so is its orthogonal complement
 
@Daminark the grad student who graded the assignment actually wrote "! Undefined control sequence" on the paper and said to him that he needs to use dollar signs next time
 
is $u$ arbitrary? if so, the subspace spanned may not be closed under $P$
 
why not?
 
consider an off-diagonal off-equator element wrt a 3D rotation
 
you're right
what can we do then
 
1:25 AM
I want to see someone submit a pset (not in a class I'm ever grading for, but like, of a friend's class) where the LaTeX is written out on paper
 
to find a plane that is closed
 
Like all of it
 
complexify
 
@Daminark Heyyyy. That's a great idea
 
hi @Daminark
 
1:26 AM
I use unprocessed LaTeX on Whatsapp all the time
 
I am just going through my complex geometry book very carefully.
 
complexifying isn't just a sneaky algebraic trick; the whole point of complex numbers is to encapsulate rotation, and hey, we're talking about rotations
 
@Balarka I'm not getting this reference
@Adeek sick!
 
@Daminark want to discuss something trivial
 
@Daminark given an odd number \$n\$, and \$P \in \mathbb {SO} (\Bbb R^n)\$, prove that \$\det(P-I) = 0\$.
 
1:26 AM
I can give it a shot
 
@anon If I went into complex then I can even prove diagonalizability, lol
 
@Daminark I stopped midway in trying to pull an Idubbbz
 
Suppose we have the trivial bundle we want to prove that it has global section that provide a basis for each of the fibers iff the vector bundle is trivial.
 
@Balarka oh for god's sake
 
@Daminark here is my proof
@Daminark suppose we go the forward direction -->
the other direction is easy
 
1:27 AM
go forward -->
go backward <--
 
@Adeek "Suppose we have the trivial bundle" ... "iff the vector bundle is trivial"
You're assuming what is to be proved as the hypothesis
 
so the action of $F$ to $F^n$ is faithful?
 
Eh, I think we know what he means
 
@BalarkaSen you know what I mean
don't be like that :P
 
@LeakyNun sure
 
1:29 AM
I do, but try to spend time writing these carefully.
 
Sorry that was stupid
 
@MatheinBoulomenos great, I'll be sure to write that in tomorrow's test
$(\lambda_2 - \lambda_1) \langle v_1, v_2 \rangle = 0$, but since $\lambda_1 \ne \lambda_2$ and the action of $\Bbb R$ to $\Bbb R^n$ is faithful, we have $\langle v_1, v_2 \rangle = 0$
 
@Daminark Given an element of e we can write it as $e = \alpha_1 \sigma_1(x_{e}) + \alpha_2 \sigma_2(x_{e}) + \ldots + \alpha_n \sigma(x_{e})$. Ofcourse here under the assumption that $E_x = \{x\} \times R^m$. We assume that our VB is of rank m. so we have the following map $E \rightarrow X\times R^m$ as follows $e \mapsto (x_{e},\alpha_1 + \ldots + \alpha_n)$ this map is continous and has continous inverse as well.
 
@LeakyNun that's not what faithful actions means
 
oh, what is it then
 
1:31 AM
ofcourse I am using the assumption that $E_x = \{x\} \times R^m$, so you can meangingfully write the equality above of the $"e" = \ldots$ bla
good ?
 
Ok fixed:
 
faithful means if $\lambda v = v$ for all $v$, then $\lambda = 1$
 
Given any object C (represented by the line), if the second isomorphism theorem holds, then it means lines A and B are of the same length (i.e. A and B are isomorphic)
 
then what is $\lambda v = v \implies \lambda = 1$?
 
(which also means I need to update the glyph to represent a surjective map)
 
1:33 AM
@Daminark ?
 
is it free?
 
but the action is only free on $K^n \setminus 0$
 
right
3 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
$(\lambda_2 - \lambda_1) \langle v_1, v_2 \rangle = 0$, but since $\lambda_1 \ne \lambda_2$ and the action of $\Bbb R$ to $\Bbb R^n$ is faithful, we have $\langle v_1, v_2 \rangle = 0$
what is the right word then?
 
not sure
 
1:34 AM
@Daminark ?
 
sure, R^n is a faithful as a rep of R, but that's totally unnecessary to say
 
to be tested...
 
in any case $\langle v_1,v_2\rangle$ is a scalar, so you're using the fact the ring has no zero divisors, not the faithfulness of its action on R^n
 
@anon oh, right, nvm, lol
I'm stupid
 
@LeakyNun
 
1:36 AM
no idea
I literally just said I'm stupid
 
I think my proof works I will just go with that it makes sense to me
 
I say that all the time
 
lol
 
@MatheinBoulomenos do you ever use the word "Ding" at all?
 
1:38 AM
"thing" is so widely used in English
 
@Adeek I definitely buy that
 
yeah
 
"Ding" zu verwenden ist nicht so mein Ding
 
@MatheinBoulomenos cos'è quella cosa?
 
Sono troppo stanco per parlare italiano
 
1:42 AM
cual es esta cosa?
 
I don't know Spanish
Quid hoc est?
 
coniugationes difficiles sunt
how does $\Bbb {SO}(3)$ act on $\Bbb R^3 \setminus \{0\}$?
faithfully?
 
the ting rotates
 
the ting goes skraa
 
I never saw anyone else write $\Bbb{SO}$
 
1:48 AM
everyday maffs on the bloq
 
@Daminark do you know why the tangent bundle is of class $C^{k - 1}$ if X is of class $C^k$ ?
 
$\Bbb {SO~WHAT}$
 
I mean shouldn't be the same class as X ?
 
@Adeek Write down the transition functions of the tangent bundle of a $C^k$ manifold
Since you use up one derivative, you can only guarantee they are $C^{k-1}$
 
1:50 AM
oh ok I use my intuition from smooth manifolds
ok I see
 
The middle line rule is always valid because inverting the zero object is one of the most pathological mathematical objects in existence and no mortals will dare to touch it, therefore for all normal applications, the middle line will never had a chance to expand into a triangle again
Or in maths speak, only for a relation of the form $q : 0 \mapsto A$ where $|A|\neq 0$ can invert the zero object
 
@MatheinBoulomenos give me more diagrams
 
@Adeek for what it's worth, I think every manifold can be given a $C^{\infty}$ structure anyway
 
Every C^k for k >= 1 manifold!!!!
There are topological manifolds which are not smoothable
 
I've never dealt with topological manifolds, they don't register
 
1:56 AM
v e r y s u b t l e i s s u e s
 
So for me manifold = smooth
 
define isomorphism with a diagram
 
So you're saying, smooth manifolds can be given a smooth structure anyway?
 
Actually hmm, can manifolds always be made analytic?
 
@LeakyNun 0 --> A --> B --> 0
 
1:57 AM
but you don't need to have zero objects to have isomorphisms
 
@Balarka no, but every $C^{36.6}$ manifold can
 
@Daminark Yes, I believe this is true
 
fractional derivatives are a thing
 
Well, if you have a smooth manifold I mean
 
sighs
 
1:58 AM
you can define them using Fourier transforms iirc
 
You can give a compatible analytic structure
 
The above 6 examples illustrates the following:
1. Arbitrary o surjective = surjective
2. Arbitrary o injective = injective
3. Surjective o injective = bijective
4. Injective o surjective = bijective
5. Relation o non total function = non total function
6. Relation o function = function
 
@Mathein now I'm terrified
 
but the first one is false
 
@Secret $f(x) = 1$, $g(x) = x$
$f\circ g$ is just $1$
 

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