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5:00 AM
No, I don't think I've been asked to think about anything but line-bundles of the circle
 
There's some passing-through-itself fuckery you have to do to untwist the thing, I believe. Which can be done in $\Bbb R^4$
 
@orbit-stabilizer the number of 2-sylows is congruent to 1 mod 2 and a divisor of 3 (not a multiple of 3)
 
Oh shoot, misread. Thank you!
 
@KevinDriscoll OK, the answer is that there isn't any nontrivial rank > 1 bundle on the circle. But I want to prove all these things
That sums it up for the warm-up for my story. Here comes the actual story
Say you have a rank $k$ vector bundle $E$ on $S^n$. You can write $S^n$ as a union of the upper and lower hemidisks $D_U^n$ and $D_L^n$ intersecting at the equator $S^{n-1}$
Consider the restrictions of $E$ to $D_U^n$ and $D_L^n$ each. Both these restrictions are isomorphic to trivial bundles, because the disk is contractible (there is no nontrivial bundle on $\Bbb R^n$ - it's worthy of a proof, so exercise).
So whatever nontriviality is happening is happening at the equator $S^{n-1}$. You follow me?
 
Absolutely
 
5:05 AM
Ok, let's try to write down the "nontriviality"
 
If I let G act on its three 2-sylow subgroups by conjugation, then there exists a homomorphism $\phi:G \rightarrow S_3$. We know the kernel of this homomorphism is a proper, non-trivial subgroup because..... why?
 
At each point $p$ of $S^{n-1}$ there's two things: one, the fiber of $E|_{D_U^n} \cong D_U^n \times \Bbb R^k$ at $p$, other, the fiber of $E|_{D_L^n} \cong D_L^n \times \Bbb R^k$ at $p$ (because both the upper/lower hemidisks contain that point $p$). And, these two fibers of the trivializations of $E$ on the upper/lower hemidisk are glued togather in $E$
 
I'm a- um- I- I'm an- uh- I'm an adult
 
I won't congratulate you for being an adult
 
adults are overrated
 
5:10 AM
Eighteen years ago I was ejected out of a woman
2
 
Happy birthday!
 
that's uh
a way to describe it
 
one way of puttin git
putting it*
 
@AkivaWeinberger true facts
 
or as trump would say: Putin it
 
5:11 AM
I was birthed
 
Happy birthday @Akiva!
 
@KevinDriscoll Sorry, had a phonecall to attend to.
 
[Random]
It is super hard to define something as finite when nonstandard naturals are present
 
@Balarka absolutely disgraceful behavior
 
5:12 AM
Being ejected from your mother is like the least exciting thing you did that day. You started bretahing air for the first time. Some hole flap thing in your heart closed. Lots of excitement
 
barbaric
 
despicable
 
geometric?
 
Someone said "It's a boy!" Hopefully on their first try
 
Was that someone you?
 
5:13 AM
Lol
 
As Samuel Beckett liked to say, my existence on the planet is a mistake
Hm, I should save that for my 18th birthday
 
Too late
 
Want to have that e d g i n e s s
 
@BalarkaSen Oh that's the Godot guy
 
@Daminark No matter, there's more where that came from
 
5:15 AM
halp
 
@AkivaWeinberger yeh bruh
 
I mean is it bad if I agree with him
 
no but you probably have issues then
Samuel Beckett was a total madman
 
If I'm looking at a group G of order 24 and if I let G act on its three 2-sylow subgroups by conjugation, then there exists a homomorphism ϕ:G→S3. We know the kernel of this homomorphism is a proper, non-trivial subgroup because..... why?
 
he helped Joyce write Finnegans Wake
 
5:16 AM
That Beckett's existence on this planet was a mistake, I mean.
 
oh lol
looooooool
 
@BalarkaSen Oh dear lord
 
@orbit-stabilizer you know the Sylow subgroups are all conjugate to each other, yeah?
 
@Daminark yup
 
So what can you say about the action?
 
5:17 AM
It's non-trivial, okay.
 
(In particular, transitive, but yeah)
So what does this imply about the kernel?
 
@KevinDriscoll OK, so at $p$ I glue the fiber of $E$ restricted to top hemisphere, with the fiber of $E$ restricted to the bottom
And how do I do this? I glue the two by a linear isomorphism $\Bbb R^k \to \Bbb R^k$
 
I don't know.... for g to be in the kernel, it must be in the stabilizer for every 2-sylow subgroup....
 
So for each point $p \in S^{n-1}$ in the equator, I have a linear isomorphism, an element of $GL_k(\Bbb R)$ that does the gluing
But what is this gentleman, really?
It's a map $S^{n-1} \to GL_k(\Bbb R)$!
Agree?
 
Question (Relations): Can someone tell why in (x,y) \in R iff x \neq y is not transitive?
I mean I can think of (1,2) (2,3) (1,3) being transitive and all 3 are different numbers. I feel like I am not understanding something basic here. :*(
 
5:25 AM
Well, we're trying to show the kernel is proper and that it's non-trivial @orbit
 
Sounds right to me
 
Can we infer either of those facts from the fact that this action is non-trivial/transitive?
 
We can infer the fact that the kernel is proper.
I don't see how we can get the kernel being non-trivial
 
@KevinDriscoll In other words, the general recipe to form a vector bundle on $S^n$ is to take two trivial bundles on two individual $n$-disks, glue the disks along their boundary $S^{n-1}$ and glue the fibers according to the map $\varphi : S^{n-1} \to GL_k(\Bbb R)$, where value $\varphi(p)$ of that map at $p$ is precisely the gluing isomorphism of the fibers at $p$
 
What property of a homomorphism is equivalent to the kernel being trivial?
 
5:27 AM
Oh. The homomorphism is then injective.
 
This is called the "clutching construction", and the map $\varphi$ is called the "clutching map".
 
Impossible.
 
Yup! Target group is too small
 
Thank you!
 
You can prove with some effort that homotopic clutching maps give rise to the isomorphic vector bundles
 
5:27 AM
So you're done
No problem!
 
@KevinDriscoll Punchline: Rank $k$ vector bundles on $S^n$ are in 1-1 correspondence with homotopy classes of maps $S^{n-1} \to GL_k(\Bbb R)$. I.e., they are classified by $\pi_{n-1}(GL_k(\Bbb R))$
 
The same argument can be applied for a group of order 12 as well, right?
 
That homotopy group encodes all possible twists that could happen in a rank $k$ v.b. over $S^n$
 
@hisoka Transitive hear would mean in $(x,y) \in R$ and $(y, z) \in R$ then $(x, z) in R$ but thats clearly wrongsince we could have, say $x=1 \ y=5 \ z=1$
 
Notice that if $n = 1$, $k = 1$, i.e., we're classifying line bundles on $S^1$, then the group is $\pi_0(GL_1(\Bbb R)) = \pi_0(\Bbb R^\times) \cong \Bbb Z/2$ because $\Bbb R^\times$ has two connected components. That means there are only 2 line bundles on $S^1$
So theorem is proven
 
5:31 AM
Ok, I would have to have a bit better understand of homotopy classes of maps to really get it, but fair enough
 
There are only two maps $S^0 \to \Bbb R - 0 = GL_1(\Bbb R)$ upto homotopy, is all that means
 
@KevinDriscoll Thanks!
 
But the key point is if you know how to compute the homotopy group $\pi_{n-1}(GL_k(\Bbb R))$ you know how many rank $k$ v.b.s there are on $S^n$
($GL_k(\Bbb R)$ deformation retracts to the subgroup $SO(k)$ so you could equivalently study the group $\pi_{n-1}(SO(k))$.)
 
@hisoka put dollar signs,$, around your math part
why is analysis so boring
 
This sounds... difficult to me, but not impossible
 
5:40 AM
yeah for a fixed $n$, it's not impossible
But it means the twists can be pretty complicated
For example I can calculate using that that there is a rank $3$ vector bundle on $S^5$
and that is the only possible nontrivial rank 3 bundle on $S^5$
I have 0 idea how that looks like
Also $\pi_n(S^3)$ is pretty chaotic evil. For $n = 6$ that's $\Bbb Z/12$. So that means there are 12 nontrivial rank 3 bundles on $S^7$
No way I can see those
 
6:35 AM
Anyone here?
Got an easy group theory question
Actually, nvm
 
7:21 AM
@AkivaWeinberger Happy Ejection Day, I guess?
 
Lel
Also yo @Tasty!
 
Hey @TastyRomeo
 
Morning
Time to teach finite automata and regular expressions to a blind student :O
 
I imagine it's a lot easier than graph theory
 
That seems challenging
 
7:25 AM
If people wonder about the message here math.stackexchange.com/questions/1174647/…
 
Eh, I guess graph theory doesn't need to be terribly visual if you do it right
 
Did you know: The guy who came up with half-way models for sphere eversion, Morin, was completely blind
 
Wait how?
 
Right??? No idea
 
7:27 AM
But I have not the reputation anymore to comment and explain my mistaken bounty (and it's confusing message about some lower indix) in the comments.
 
He's also blind since age 6
due to glaucoma
 
Not sure what eversion means but like, doing stuff with spheres sounds like the kind of thing that blindness would give you a very hard time with
 
[Random]
3. A natural is finite if it and its predecessors bijects with a standard natural. any natural other than 0 that does not have a predessessor, and its successors are not finite
 
Eversion means turning the sphere inside out!!!
 
@Daminark or maybe it gives you more familiarity with the shape of the sphere (instead of the appearance)
 
7:29 AM
People with fully functioning eyes cannot comprehend it
 
@BalarkaSen step 2 can be made into a meme
 
NB2: Infinite dedekind finite sets are not well ordered with cardinality not conserved by set difference
 
@BalarkaSen I feel like if we add enough dimension, we can do sphere eversion without every changing its shape
 
@LeakyNun No, that's false. You need to corrugate it very much.
That's the content of the h-principle
 
Sphere eversion is impossible with physical materials that has no gaps
 
7:32 AM
but I mean they are locally isometric
 
Where did isometry come from?
 
gaussian curvature
 
What does that have to do with sphere eversion at all?
It's not a geometric theorem
 
if we can make that isometry continuous
 
This is because no physical material can pass through itself
 
7:33 AM
Curvature is very much not preserved in the process. Much subtler expressions, like energy, etc are preserved
@LeakyNun What isometry??? You're making no sense
 
I mean, isometry is a kind of homotopy, right?
afterall E(3) is path-connected
 
No...
Isometry is a map, not a homotopy.
A homotopy is a family of maps
 
but a map between two loops is a homotopy
 
Uh, no...
 
as long as it is continuous
 
7:36 AM
It's definitely not a map in the same domains by any means
 
I'm talking about loop deformation
 
If you have two loops $f,g:S^1\to X$, a homotopy between them would be a map $h:S^1\times [0,1] \to X$
 
yes
 
@LeakyNun Yes, loop deformation is a family of maps from the circle to whatever domain you have
It's not "a map between two loops"
 
@BalarkaSen but it is also one transformation of loops
 
7:37 AM
?
 
I mean, $S^1$ and $S^1 + 1$ are homotopic
 
I mean by currying it's a map $h:S^1\to X^{[0,1]}$, but like, it still doesn't really map a loop to another in any event
 
@Daminark the map I have in mind is $[0,1] \to (S^1 \to X)$
 
@Daminark I think Leaky means, like, a homotopy between $f$ and $g$ is a path in the loop space.
That's true, but what do you want to accomplish with that?
 
and sphere eversion is a local isometry
I'm thinking if we add enough dimensions can we make this a global isometry hence homotopy
 
7:39 AM
@LeakyNun ?
 
homomotpy of two embeddings of $S^2$, that is
 
Why are global isometries homotopies?
 
Where did you get that it's a local isometry?
 
@Daminark because E(n) is path-connected
@BalarkaSen Gaussian curvature
 
@LeakyNun Look, you're mumbling words.
A sphere eversion is an isotopy between two embeddings of S^2 in R^3
There is no condition for the Gaussian curvature to be preserved
 
7:41 AM
and I'm asking if I can make the isotopy into an isometry if I have more dimensions
because an isometry is an isotopy
 
An isometry is a map $\Bbb R^3 \to \Bbb R^3$. It's not an isotopy.
 
@BalarkaSen So things with out bundle classification get a lot more complicated if the fibers arent contractible, right? Like, for example, if we have a $U(1)$ bundle
 
@BalarkaSen but an isometry between two embeddings of $\Bbb S^2$ is an isotopy
 
No.
An isotopy is, once again, a family of maps
Each of which are embeddings/immersions/whatever
An isometry is just one map.
 
let $x \in E(3)$ be the isometry that takes the first embedding to the second embedding
since $E(3)$ is path-connected, there is a path from $0$ to $x$
which is the isotopy
 
7:46 AM
@KevinDriscoll Right, it gets more complicated. You still do get a clutching-like construction, but it's called the classifying map.
$U(1)$-bundles on $X$ are classified by maps $X \to \Bbb{CP}^\infty$ modulo homotopy
 
$\mathbb{CP}^\infty$!? Oh dear.......
 
And to think that's only $K(\mathbb{Z},2)$ :P
 
@Daminark am I right?
 
@Leaky I have no idea what you're on about right now
 
@LeakyNun You do have an isometry of $\Bbb R^3$ that takes the identity embedding to the antipodal embedding (the antipodal map $(x, y, z) \mapsto (-x, -y, -z)$). But this isometry isn't orientation-preserving.
 
7:50 AM
isn't $E(3)$ path connected? @Daminark
 
Not even sure what that is
 
Not the full isometry group, no
Only the orientation-preserving isometries
 
@BalarkaSen yes. but can I make it orientation-preserving if I add more dimensions?
I imagine adding 3 more dimensions
@Daminark the symmetry group of $\Bbb R^3$, i.e. the isometries thereof
@BalarkaSen fair enough
 
Oh, well I think in dimensions 3+, isn't every isometry supposed to be $Ax + b$ where $A\in O(3)$?
 
I just ask because in physics we can construct the simple example where you have a continuous symmetry and the system is a so-called integrable system. And then the bundle structure is very simple; itll be $X \times G$ for some $G$ a lie group, just the trivial bundle. But I dont know of any example where the structure is known and its NOT the trivial bundle
 
7:52 AM
@LeakyNun Oh, evert the sphere in some large dimensional Euclidean space? That should be boring and trivial, because $S^1$ can be everted if you embed it in $\Bbb R^3$ :P
 
Its like you go from the trivial case to something totally intractable
 
@BalarkaSen that isn't boring to me
 
Just flip it
 
so I'm asking how many dimensions you need to flip $S^2$
 
Ah, that's a good exercise you should figure out
It's easy
 
7:53 AM
lol
6 definitely is enough
6 is enough for SO instead of E
 
True.
 
if we generalize it to E we might not need that many dimensions
 
For any linear order, an infinite element a is where for any element x in the linear order and increasing function f, f(x) < a for x=/=a
 
In any case, you are now asking about an exercise problem
 
@BalarkaSen ...
 
7:53 AM
Nowhere near as interesting as sphere eversion
Sorry pal :P
 
@Secret for example?
 
I am getting a shitty Attraction Insights as on youtube right now about how to talk to woman na dits pissing me off
 
My youtube history is fucked enough that I don't get shit like that
in the recommendations bar
:P
 
Im not sure if getting an ad about how to talk to women means youtube thinks youre a normie or..... whatever the opposite of that is
 
@KevinDriscoll Right, here's the thing. Suppose $E/X$ is a vector bundle of rank $k$ over $X$
 
7:57 AM
actually, I forgot something important. f needs to be a self surjection on the underlying set to rule out functions with asymptotes.

e.g. any increasing function in the reals maps to some reals larger. Hence no reals are infinite elements and the reals are archimedian
 
You can prove using similar techniques as Whitney embedding theorem that for sufficiently large $N$ you can embed $E$ inside $X \times \Bbb R^N$
That is, you can get a map $E \to X \times \Bbb R^N$ which sends each fiber $\Bbb R^k$ injectively to $\Bbb R^N$
Once you do that, you can get the following map. To each point $p \in X$ associate to it the subspace $\Bbb R^k \subset \Bbb R^N$ that embedding provides you with
This gives a map $X \to \text{Gr}(k, N)$ to the Grassmannian of $k$-subspaces in $\Bbb R^N$ (do you know what that is?)
 
I feel like the word Grassmannian is about to happen
NAILE DIT
 
Oh my dude that is exactly right
 
@BalarkaSen SO(4) is path-connected, and $-I_4$ is inside, so you only need one more dimension
 
I barely know what it is. We had 1 homework problem on it and it took me like 6 hours just to really 'git it' and understand what the charts are and such. That was 2 months ago, so Im sure Ive forgotten the details, but refreshing is usually easier than the first time
 
8:03 AM
@KevinDriscoll The more applicable word is "SNIPED" but ok
:P
 
It's just the space of vector $k$-subspaces in $\Bbb R^N$. The topology and the manifold structure is secondary, really :D
Especially the first two paragraphs
But yes, the upshot of this is that rank $k$ v.b.'s on $X$ are classified by maps $X \to \text{Gr}(k, \infty)$
And this greatly generalizes, in the sense that if you want to classify $G$-bundles on $X$, the corresponding classifying map is $X \to BG$ where "$BG$" is a mystical object known as classifying space of $G$
 
Mystical? Why, it's only the geometric realization of the nerves of the category of the group (the one object representation)
 
For $U(n)$-bundles, you are classified by maps to $BU(n)$, which are complex infinite Grassmannians
@Daminark Yeah, right
 
(I feel like Peter rn)
 
the path, in particular, is given by $\begin{bmatrix} \cos(\pi t) & \sin (\pi t) & 0 & 0 \\ \sin(\pi t) & -\cos(\pi t) & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & \cos(\pi t) & \sin(\pi t) \\ 0 & 0 & \sin(\pi t) & -\cos(\pi t) \end{bmatrix}$
 
8:08 AM
@LeakyNun Right, that works
 
nice exercise
 
You made it yourself
 
@BalarkaSen you only need two dimensions to flip $S^1$ though
 
True
 
and the generalization is $S^{2n}$ and $S^{2n+1}$ need $2n+2$ dimensions
@BalarkaSen can you equip a vector to each point of $S^1$? What's that called?
 
8:11 AM
Tangent field
 
and what are the arrows called?
 
tangent vectors :P
 
I mean, the arrows in the category
 
what category
 
of tangent fields
 
8:12 AM
there is no category
 
do you have any morphisms at all?
 
not everything in the world is a category bro
 
so you can't map another tangent field to another?
 
If you take a diffeomorphism of $S^1$ it's derivative is a map between the tangent bundles, which takes the tangent field to somewhere. It's not a natural idea to "map a tangent field to another"
 
Hello!!

Why do the following statements not mean the same?

The mobile weighs about 0.1 kg.

The mobile weighs about 0.10 kg.

It holds that 0,1 = 0,10 or not? So why is the meanung of the statements different?
 
8:15 AM
You can create a category out of it, but it would be of 0 use
 
@MaryStar the implicit assumption is that 0.1 is round to the first decimal place and 0.10 to the second
@BalarkaSen but I can map tangent fields if the base manifold is homeomorphic?
 
@LeakyNun This is a useless idea.
 
it isn't
because in that sense, mapping the tangent field of S^1 where everything points outward, to the same thing where everything points inward, requires 3 dimensions
 
There is no tangent field of S^1 where everything points inwards. Tangent field means tangent, not normal
I am going to put you on ignore. Carry on with your thing
 
@LeakyNun Do you mean that we have rounded the number?
 
8:18 AM
@MaryStar yes
I guess I'm only talking about vector fields, not tangent fields
 
0,10 is rounded for example by the number 0,09 or not?
By which number is 0,1 the rounding?
@LeakyNun
 
anything in $[0.05,0.15)$
 
@LeakyNun Do you mean that every number of this interval can be rounded to 0,10 ?
 
no, to 0.1
 
Ah ok. And which numbers can be rounded to 0,10 ? @LeakyNun
 
8:24 AM
[0.005,0.015)
 
Yo @Alessandro
 
Hello, I'm having some difficulty getting a set of solutions for a system of differential equations. I've attempted to use wolframalpha to get a solution so that I can see what I'm looking towards. Unfortunately, the solution it provided only confused me more. Could someone help?
 
Hi everyone
 
How's it going?
 
Ey @Alessandro
The Italian driver hath arrived
I see you there, @Huy
 
8:45 AM
so any chain complex factors as such into commutative squares?
 
8:57 AM
In gibert stang's linear algebra book, as a challenging exercise in the first chapter, it's given to prove if $(a,b)$ is a multiple of $(c,d)$, then prove $(a,c)$ is a multiple of $(b,d)$ . but isn't it trivially obvious unless I'm missing something ?
 
9:21 AM
@Eric why are you awake this late?
 
9:32 AM
@AlexKChen but you have to prove it
 
10:02 AM
96
Q: nontrivial theorems with trivial proofs

Michael HardyA while back I saw posted on someone's office door a statement attributed to some famous person, saying that it is an instance of the callousness of youth to think that a theorem is trivial because its proof is trivial. I don't remember who said that, and the person whose door it was posted on d...

 
@Daminark @BalarkaSen Automata for blind people :P
 
Now create a countable one > : D
 
@TastyRomeo Nice!!
 
I'm glad he has this special paper where drawing on it makes it pop out
Way more efficient than making 3D prints :P
 
Right
 
10:11 AM
btw, balarka, what is the solution to the paper cube puzzle. You mentioned one of the crease has to be battered enough. Does that mean one of the squares end up rolling up because of the battered crease?
 
No, I mean, the move I found is by accident and I don't think I could have found it if the creases were not battered enough
You start with three corners on the 8 square thing
and you fold stuff inwards from there
If you do it right you'll start getting cube-like shapes
See if you can build two adjacent cubes, one of them missing one face, the other missing two
It's a small trudge to the full cube from there
 
hmm....
 
Start shearing the hole in the middle
 
10:33 AM
OMG THIS IS SO CLEVER!
 
I started differently. If the left column is 4 high, with the extra "flap" on top, I folded that column behind the second column
And then moved the middle square of the third column on top of the "gap" in the second column
And it basically auto-folds into a cube then
 
Hey, does it hold that

$Re(\frac{z_1}{z_2})=\frac{Re(z_1)}{Re(z_2)}$
for $z_1, z_2 \in \mathbb C$?
 
If $z_2 = i$ the right-hand side doesn't even make sense.
But even if $z_2$ is not purely imaginary, it's not true, no. Take $z_1 = 1+i$ and $z_2 = -1+i$
 
10:54 AM
@Secret Yeah this game is the Dark Souls of origami
@TastyRomeo Hm, you need more moves, though? You have three faces coming out
 
Well, it's hard to describe, but once I move the middle square of the third column over the gap, the other parts fold automatically up
I only need to close the "flap" in the end, then
 
@BalarkaSen I however cannot seemed to fold one of the cubes diagonally about the common line to close it. All the crease become too rigid to do any shear folding...
 
Oh, wait, maybe I misunderstood your instructions
@Secret Yes, I struggled with that for a while
Try to ram the two cubes togather
There's some configurations where you are almost done except you have 7 faces and one pokes out awkwardly from the "cube"
You need to stop thinking about them
 
Yeah, so there's the key move with three squares
Ah, I see, that's much simpler
It does auto-fold
My "ah-hah" configuration was your fold, but done in the opposite direction
You'll get two cubes then
 
11:05 AM
2 whole cubes??!
 
No, no.
This is not rocket science Banach-Tarski
 
Oh wait so you mean they'll share a face?
 
You'll get two adjacent cubes with one missing one face, and the other missing two face
@Daminark For sure
 
Okay for a sec I was like ummm
 
Your brain is fried because you t h o n k about axiom of choice so much
 
11:07 AM
I think the point is that I never think about it at all
I just use it without noticing
 
You t h o n k about it
Got it
 
And then all the constructivists go REEEEEEE
^^accurate portrayal is accurate
 
The ting goes REEEEEEE?
 
thank you @TastyRomeo
 
@BalarkaSen not sure if I want to know where that path goes tbh
 
11:11 AM
@Daminark One sphere equals one plus one that's 2 spheres Ayy Ow Cee quick maffs?
 
Some constructivist actually embraces axiom of choice
It is only the predicativists don't
 
In other news, these psuedocubes are SO AWKWARD
 
It's a rage game
It's just like Dark Souls
 
Are we supposed to get a nice cube (including overlaps) from such net?
 
Yep
You'll get a perfect cube
 
11:13 AM
But I still have those awkward bits sticking out
 
You have to think about getting around that! I spent an hour on it!
 
hmm...
 
@TastyRomeo was either too lucky or he knows his origami
 
A bit of both :P
 
Goddamn my pseudocube seems to be dabbing atcha
 
11:17 AM
@BalarkaSen just gotta stop being a hater
 
OMG, I got the full cube from Tastyromeo's. However I don't understand what is happening.

Now to try that on Balarka's pseudocube
 
@Daminark just gotta bye the Jake Paul merchs
 
Also please don't go into engineering or surgery, just for reference
Maybe manifold surgery but like... Don't operate on people
I fear you may not be a bounded linear operator
Okay I dunno how to continue that... Pun story or whatever it is
 
Hi, to everybody. Can I have an help?
At this moment I not write any question. I have written an email at the administrators of the site. Is it correct?
 
11:35 AM
I have to do a task on geometrical interpretation of given sets of complex numbers. How to interpret the following one?

$M_2=\{z \in \mathbb C: \quad 2\operatorname{Re}(z) + 5\operatorname{Im}(z)=1\}$

Is my version correct?
 

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