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9:00 PM
thanks
that makes things a lot easier I guess! XD
maybe I could use partial derivatives then
 
it's not hard, just expand $$f(x+h)g(x+h)=(f(x)+df(x)(h)+o(\|h\|)) (g(x)+dg(x)(h)+o(\|h\|)) = f(x)g(x)+f(x)dg(x)(h) + g(x)df(x)(h) + o(\|h\|)$$
 
yea right!
now that $m=1$ that is indeed easy
thanks :)
 
so the Frechet derivative of $fg$ at $x$ is $h\mapsto f(x)dg(x)(h) + g(x)df(x)(h)$
 
didn't know that was the name :P but cool I guess
 
@DanielFischer have you ever done Fortran ? I was shocked to see that modern scientific Python libraries like numpy and scipy rely heavily on Lapack which is Fortran
@ShaVuklia have you done functional analysis yet ?
 
9:07 PM
@LeGrandDODOM nope I haven't
from what I see on wikipedia, nothing is familiar
 
@LeGrandDODOM Never done it myself. But why do you find that shocking? Fortran was made for fast calculations.
 
@DanielFischer I thought it was a thing from the past that had been superseded by C
 
It's very analogous to how much of modern stuff is based on C/C++
Fortran has some advantages over C for computation, I think.
 
@LeGrandDODOM When you have a working implementation in one language, it's not overly attractive to port it to a different language. And C only became a nice language in 1999.
C++ will probably never become a nice language.
3
 
what do you mean with "nice" language ?
 
9:14 PM
A readable language with decent syntax.
 
9:28 PM
@LeGrandDODOM I get:
$$\begin{aligned}
f(\vec a+\vec h)g(\vec a+\vec h)-f(\vec a)g(\vec a)=g(\vec a)f'(\vec a)\vec h+f(\vec a)g'(\vec a)\vec h+f'(\vec a)\vec h(o(\Vert \vec h\Vert)+o(\Vert\vec h\Vert)g'(\vec a)\vec h+ o(\Vert\vec h\Vert)
\end{aligned}$$
How can I show that $f'(\vec a)\vec h(o(\Vert \vec h\Vert))=o(\Vert\vec h\Vert)?$ Should I expand it as follows?:
$$
f'(\vec a)\vec h(o(\Vert\vec h\Vert))=h_1D_1f(\vec a)o(\Vert\vec h\Vert)+\dots+h_nD_nf(\vec a)o(\Vert\vec h\Vert).
$$
 
Hi chat
 
hi @Astyx
 
Ugh what are we doing ?
 
lol :P
showing the product rule in more dimensions
 
Multivariable function ?
 
9:30 PM
yes
I'm guessing what I'm doing is right
 
A very bold guess :p
 
we get $h_iD_if(\vec a)o(\Vert\vec h\Vert)=o(\Vert \vec h\Vert)$
lol why? :P
 
Just kidding
 
oh XD
 
I feel your approach might be a bit brutal though
 
9:33 PM
as in I did it over the top?
like, I slaughtered the function? XD
it's kind of what I have to do tho. i need to get rid of all those terms
 
It's quite straightforward that $f'(a)ho(||h||)= o(||h||)$ (divide the RHS by $||h||$ and see it go to 0)
Oh and use some topology perhaps
 
you mean LHS right?
 
I do
 
oh yea I see what you mean by "brutal" now XD
right, I sometimes forget what the $o$-symbol really means
 
Wait, why do you have products between $f'(a)$ and $h$ anyway ?
 
9:39 PM
I was writing it out again anyways, give me 1 minute!
 
I'm sorta reaching the concept of "inaccessibly larger" ordinals! Woo!
 
Is $f, g : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R$ ?
 
yes
 
Then you can't have $h$ in the RHS
Cause it's a vector
 
oh shit
 
9:44 PM
It should, you probably messed up somewhere :p
 
yea it's a lot of terms
i'm still writing it out! XD
 
In any case you have $f(a+h) = f(a) + df_a(h) + o(||h||)$ where $df_a$ is the differential of $f$ at $a$
It's dangerous to write $f'$ in dimension $\gt 1$
Then let $B$ be a bilinear application from the domain to another space (as multiplication is, but that's to avoid confusion with multiplication by a scalar)
Then $B(f(a+h), g(a+h)) - B(f(a), g(a)) = B(f(a+h)-f(a), g(a+h)) + B(f(a), g(a+h)-g(a))$
 
i'm not sure which term i got wrong first, but the only limit i'm still struggling with is the following:
$$
\lim_{\vec h\to \vec 0}\frac{f'(\vec a)\vec h\cdot g'(\vec a)\vec h}{\Vert\vec h\Vert}
$$
 
cot ?
Oh you scared me :p
 
right i have to read what you said carefully :P
haha! yea I scared myself too
sorry I first had to write it all out neatly
 
9:50 PM
Then simplifying you get $B(df_a(h) + o(||h||), g(a+h)) + B(f(a), dg_a(h)+o(||h||))$
 
Is there any general thing that can be said about kernels of evaluation maps in rings?
 
Expand this by linearity
Make $h$ go to $0$ and argue continuity of things by finite dimension and stuff
 
i'm not sure if I know what you mean by this $B$, but is it really relevant?
 
And find that $dB(f,g)_a (h)= B(df_a(h), g(a)) + B(f(a), dg_a(h))$ which is the product rule
 
is it to make it explicit that we are not multiplying scalars here?
 
9:53 PM
Well it's not exactly clear what multiplication is in dimension $\gt 1$ really
 
well, in this case, just scalars, vectors, and matrices, right?
 
Huh ?
You can't multiply two vectors
At least not without saying what you mean by that
 
no okay, but we do multiply a matrix with a vector
$f'(\vec a)\vec h$
 
Oh I see ...
 
so your $B$ isn't quite necessary (for me at least now) as long as I pay attention to what I'm doing, right?
 
9:55 PM
But what is $f(a) g(a)$ then ?
 
lol idk just the matrix multiplication between the two?
wait no
that's just two scalars
 
Oh are we in dimension 1 ? Right then
Yeah it's mostly about keeping things clear then
Well each time I wrote $B(a,b)$ replace it with $ab$ if you want
I find it more confusing than anything really
 
haha yea
I'm still not sure how to do this tho:
$$
\lim_{\vec h\to \vec 0}\frac{f'(\vec a)\vec h\cdot g'(\vec a)\vec h}{\Vert\vec h\Vert}
$$
You said I should use continuity of "things by finite dimension"?
can't you just argue that $\vec h/\Vert\vec h\Vert$ is a unit vector ?
 
Yes you can
 
Is anyone in here familiar with non-monotonic logic?
 
10:00 PM
So you get $f'(a)u \cdot g'(a)h$
 
oh right, then I know what to do! thanks for your help!
 
left thing is bounded
 
yea there I can use continuity, I see
 
Actually you could even take $||h|| f'(a)u\cdot g'(a)u$
(I still find the use of $f'$ very terrible when talking about a differential)
 
ah I see!
yea well, $f'$ is what my teacher uses, and I don't really see the problem myself :P
I guess I'm just used to it
 
10:03 PM
Well it seems like it's a scalar when it's in fact a linear application
 
hahahah yea,
but that's why you have to get used to it not being a scalar:P
 
And not the same thing as what we mean by $f'(a)$ in single variable function
 
technically it is the same, I would say
 
It should at least be $f'(a)(h)$
 
no, because linear maps are often denoted like that
$Ax$ e.g.
 
10:05 PM
They shouldn't :p
 
hahahah, well, I hope one day you can decide on all the symbols used in maths XD
and conventions*
 
IMHO you should chose between dealing with matrices or dealing with abstract vector space and stick with it
And I believe the transition with infinite dimension vector space is "weirder" if you're used to matrices etc
 
but matrices are a subset of abstract vector spaces, no?
 
Anyhow, I'll stop whinning and go to bed now :p
 
at least, the space of matrices
yea good idea
me too
i'm really thankful for all the help you've provided over the months tho!
it's really cool
good night in any case!
 
10:08 PM
Yes there is an isomorphism between any space of endomorphism of a vector space of dimension $n$ and matrices of size n
(and more genrally linear maps from dim n to m and $m\times n$ matrices)
Glad to help, really :)
Cya
 
bye!
 
10:49 PM
If I have a homomorphism $f$ from the additive group of a field $F$ into the complex numbers, and $f(ax)=f(bx)$ for all x in F, does that mean a=b?
 
Not without some more conditions
If f is the zero homomorphism, for instance, that's no good
 
Yes, I actually have a nonzero homomorphism.
(I think nothing more is assumed)
("nonzero" = not identically 1)
 
Is it just a group homomorphism, or a field homomorphism as well?
 
If it were a field homomorphism there would be nothing to show right; all field homomorphisms are injective or zero
unless that's what Leullame is showing
 
oh, I guess that is a thing :P
 
10:59 PM
but that would be trivial to show because the kernel is an ideal, and fields only have two ideals
mhm
 
It is a homomorphism of groups.
(The target group is multiplicative, complex numbers without zero)
When the field is finite, am I right that this follows since all homomorphisms are of the form $f(x)=e^{2 pi i x / |F|}$?
 
Oh, now have both @Eric s :P
 
lol
 
Hi, both.
 
11:11 PM
heya Ted
 
Leu: I think that it's true for finite fields, but the argument you gave needs a little finesse
what you've written is true for Z_p, in particular
But not for F_4, for instance.
 
But what if $a$ is the characteristic of the field and $b=0$?
 
o.O
those are the same, as field elements
 
Oh, where do $a$ and $b$ live?
 
oh I see what you mean
 
11:14 PM
Totally ambiguous question.
 
@Ted I assumed $a, b$ lived in the additive group of the field since that made the most sense to me
 
I assumed they were integers :P
 
$a,b$ live in the field
 
You're multiplying elements of the additive group? Doesn't sound good.
 
This is a multiplicative group of a field
so it is defined
 
11:15 PM
(additive)
 
(Yes)
 
welp I gotta go to dinner so farewell chat
 
Bubye.
 
eat well, mate
 
Bye
 
11:16 PM
Hey @Ted I finally wrote out the bit about the quadric
 
We believed we proved it for fields of prime order, and want it say for all finite fields
 
I haven't thought about it intelligently, @Leullame.
@Danu: What bit?
 
The identifications $G_2/U(2)_-\cong \widetilde{\operatorname{Gr}}_2(\Bbb R^7)\cong Q$
 
Oh.
 
Leu: my finite field theory is quite weak, but I know that the multiplicative group is cyclic. Can you choose a basis with nice properties on the powers? I want the argument to start "Let $x^{a_1}, x^{a_2},\dots, x^{a_n}$ be a basis; f is completely determined by which $p^\text{th} root of unity it maps these elements onto."
 
11:21 PM
I gave you explicit credit for the proof too
(and also referenced Chern's proof)
 
Why'd you do that? I just explained to you why the oriented Grassmannian is a quadric.
 
Yeah, that bit
I made that into a separate proposition
 
Oh, well ...
I suspect the $G_2$ stuff is harder :P
 
well that was explicitly in some other paper :P
 
Oh, so you hijacked the hard stuff.
 
11:22 PM
I just happened to come across it...
 
nods knowingly
 
It's this $S(U(1)\times U(2))$ thing I was talking about earlier :P
The proof is honestly not hard
I can tell you right now
 
Nah, my brain is dead now.
 
it's like 3 lines!
 
Are all homomorphisms from a finite field $F$ into $\Bbb C^*$ are of the form $f(x)=e^{2 \pi i (x_1a_1+...+x_na_n)}$ for some $a \in F$, where the components are from the base field? Does this prove the original claim?
 
11:25 PM
1) Definitely, yes. 2) Maybe :P
 
For any given real number, is its sequence of convergents always Cauchy?
Intuitively, this would appear to be the case
 
Legion: I'm not sure what you mean by that, but it is true that all convergent sequences (in any metric space) are Cauchy
 
@Danu by 2 equivalent definitions of G_2, do you mean being automorphism group of cross product and octonions as the two defs?
 
Continued fractions, @EricS.
 
So you define $G_2$ as the automorphism group of the Lie algebra $(\operatorname{Im}\Bbb O,\times )$ ($\times$ being the cross product on imaginary octonions, i.e. what you get when you multiply imaginary octonions and subtract the real part). $G_2$ acts transitively on oriented planes, even on triples that generate $\operatorname{Im}\Bbb O$ (bring all of them to $i,j,\ell$ where $\Bbb O=\Bbb H\oplus \Bbb H\ell$).
 
11:27 PM
oh, and hi, tern.
 
also, $(\Bbb R^7,\times)$ is not a lie algebra
 
Now assume $g\in G_2$ fixes the oriented plane spanned by $\{i,j\}$. Then its restriction to that plane is an $SO(2)$ rotation, i.e. $g(i)=\cos\theta i-\sin\theta j$ and similarly for $j$. Because $g(i\times j)=g(k)=g(i)\times g(j)$, we compute explicitly that $g(k)=k$. So $g$ fixes $k$.
Now the orthogonal complement of $k$ inside $\operatorname{Im}\Bbb O$ is six-dimensional and you can equip it with a complex structure given by left-multiplication by $k$. Then the $\{i,j\}$ plane is spanned as a complex line by $i$, and preserved by $g$. $g$ also preserves standard Hermitian metric and the orthogonal complement of the line, so it is an element of $S(U(1)\times U(2))\subset SU(3)$
@arctictern it isn't?
Why isn't it?
 
nope. cross product satisfying jacobi identity is equivalent to multiplication being associative
 
Oh yeah the Jacobi
derpaderp
@arctictern Is there a name for the kind of algebra that it is?
 
not really standardized. there is some different operation you can convert it to and from that does have a name that I don't remember but I didn't like it.
 
11:34 PM
What's funny though is
that lots of things still work just as if it's a Lie algebra
The inner product is proportional to the would-be Killing form, etc
The analogy is still insightful for me
Maybe just because I don't have any intuition for algebra at all :D
 
also, to me the equivalence of defs of G_2 comes straight from $xy=-\langle x,y\rangle+x\times y$, since the inner product is already around when talking about octonions or cross products individually
 
Once you show that $\langle x,y\rangle$ is expressible in terms of $\times$
(which is through that would-be Killing form)
I guess this is obvious to you?
 
to me, a cross product is a thing that satisfies identities on an inner product space, so the inner product already exists if the cross product does
(there are other cross products that are not binary operations as well)
 
So you mean that your definition of the automorphism group would include invariance of the inner product?
 
ah, I see what you're getting at
I had thought about this before but don't remember what my thinking was
 
11:43 PM
Preserving $\times$ implies preserving inner products which I think is nice to note
So you don't need to assume it
 
I think I had a proof by contradiction that G_2 must preserve <,>
 
And the fact that the inner product turns out to be $-1/6$ times the (again, would-be) Killing form makes the analogy to Lie algebras nice to me.
@arctictern I'd be curious to hear
 
(I opened my question as a post since seems not to be a one-liner; math.stackexchange.com/questions/2258337/… )
 
Yeah, that's a good choice Leu
I'm more convinced than I used to be that it is true in general :P
(I mean, even in the infinite case)
 
11:56 PM
@Danu when you verified the identity, did you use the standard basis, or did you use a basis that was formed using x and y?
I often do the latter, and I consider it much less brute-forcey
 
What do you mean by the latter basis?
 
like, using a basis {x,y,xy,a,b,c,d}
(assuming x,y are perpendicular and that it's orthonormal)
 
hmm, so then you just check one identity
 
or perhaps better, {x,y,xy,z,xz,yz,(xy)z}
 
that does seem like a big improvement...
 

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