« first day (5193 days earlier)      last day (32 days later) » 

01:21
does anyone know what equations 3.30 and 3.33 are actually supposed to be? There seems to be a web of typos/errors in both expressions.
01:33
i think these are actually the wanted expressions...
 
5 hours later…
06:45
@qwerty sure, if you look at hypersurfaces or other submanifolds, then spacetime is the ambient space for them
good morning! or... hey-delberg :D
Ooof :D
oh that's such a groan
07:01
@SillyGoose there isn't really enough context here to tell
@ACuriousMind We are always doomed to have to ask for more context. But there is sufficient information to tell that the wacky fowl is much more likely to be wrong.
Dunno, could easily both be correct in some sense, especially with some implicit conventions since the angle is modulo pi/2
07:31
maybe it's cos I'm very tired... but I'm wondering what peoples' personal attitudes to physics is, whether you would feel the same motivation or pleasure in doing physics if all your output, thoughts etc were never shared with other humans? if you could not discuss or teach it, and only work alone. I suppose you could draw a parallel with writers of novels who never intend to have or have their works read or published for example.
People want ambient spacetimes because they want to believe that spacetime is really flat fundamentally
And all the curved space is a trick
your comment reminds me of farewell ict
(complex numbers are definitely less friendly to me than a simple minus sign)
07:53
how 'bout a simple ± sign
@handan_toddler the latest few videos, on the advanced parts, are great. I'd buy the book just to see what I can steal. But it is soooo awkward to go the crazy lengths just to avoid calculus.
08:10
He calls going through those crazy lengths "french cooking."
08:26
I know. One really has to wonder if French cooking is even useful to instruction
08:43
hi
I do French cooking every day
sure, but do your students learn better from directly sending them to do French cooking, or do they learn better from something more normal?
Oh I mean actual french cooking
I dont see why it would not apply in the actual case too
@RyderRude @ACuriousMind
08:55
morning
heya
@naturallyInconsistent ??
hi
10:03
buongiorno, hbar
buongiorno, signore
G'day, mate
Another day of junctions awaits me
buona fortuna~
I will need that :'(
10:28
:d
Carroll says we should explore the outer universe and the Buddhist scholar says we should look inside our own mind
i am going to be doing the latter
 
3 hours later…
13:20
this question has unfairly been closed. Please consider re opening
-1
Q: If the entire universe is governed by QM, and only by QM, would that imply MWI?

sashoalmEdit: Based on @WillO's very relevant comment, I want to clarify what I mean by "fully governed by QM" - it means governed only by the laws of quantum mechanics, as opposed to classical physics. It effectively means "if classical systems don't exist in the universe". If those logical steps below ...

i was writing an answer when it was closed
 
4 hours later…
17:40
@qwerty No, definitely not. The rather solitary experience I had towards the end of my master was one of the reasons I didn't stay in academia. Doesn't mean there's no interest in doing physics on my own but definitely there are other people who have much higher intrinsic motivation for that than I do
18:15
you arent going to do something about the above?
@naturallyInconsistent it's not from one of the grifter channels I explicitly forbade, it was just one link and not spamming, it's fine
even if it is explicitly religious?
@Slereah What do you mena? It remains curved even if you embed things - intrinsic curvature doesn't go away. Or do you mean people want to believe in some flat ambient space as the "real" spacetime? Is that that popular?
@naturallyInconsistent not really relevant as long as it's not a blatant attempt at proselytizing or something like that
18:40
@ACuriousMind it is popular with the layman :p
I'm not sure the average layperson has any opinion on the concept of spacetime :P
Well you know
The pop science crowd
When they read about GR that is usually the image they have in their head
Is there a general notion to associate a topological space to a concrete sheaf, similarly to the D-topology for diffeological spaces?
[i do not mean the etale space]
@Slereah You can take $C^0(-,\mathbb{R})$
for compact Hausdorff spaces this is an equivalence of categories (or something like that) between them and Banach algebras
A few days ago, I realized how powerful Einstein summation is, in NumPy.
Yeah there are a few but like
Is there a general process for it?
18:54
I'm not sure what's not general about $C^0(-,\mathbb{R})$
Like the D topology process seems to not rely exceedingly on anything about Cartesian categories
is the problem that there's no reason $\mathbb{R}$ should be special if you just look at topological spaces?
@ACuriousMind In the compact-open topology, right?
Yeah the process for D topologies is just depending on the sheaf itself
It's just the final topology on the "plots", ie the morphisms you obtain via the yoneda embedding
I guess that could just be enough but I find it weird that there doesn't seem to be any generic name for it?
@DannyuNDos yepp
18:56
Are there any conditions necessary for this to work?
@Slereah oh sorry, I read that the wrong way around
I thought you wanted a sheaf for a space, but you want a space for a sheaf
Well there is an inverse functor for the d topology :p
Nlab called them poetically dtplg and cdflg
Well adjoint, not inverse
I would say you need to generally have some set of distinguished maps (like the plots of a diffeological space), then the topology is just the coarsest topology that makes those distinguished maps continuous
you can't do it to "just a sheaf"
The plots are apparently defined in a sheaf theoretic manner tho
sure, but it's additional data that's part of the definition of the diff. space
19:02
For the sheaf X and site object U, every element of X(U) is a plot via the Yoneda lemma
is it?
It's just elements of the sheaf itself
ah, that's what you mean
via $X(U) = Hom(y(U), X)$
I mean then the construction there always works at least in principle, no? If you have a concrete sheaf $D$ with points $D(\ast) = X$, you give $X$ the topology that makes all $D(U)$ (interpreted as maps $U\to X$ via the concreteness condition) continuous
Sounds reasonable, although I beware since there are always weird corner cases you can forget :p
I find it strange that I can't find a general case for this?
since "sheaves as geometry" is a big part of their raison d'être
Maybe considering them as topological spaces is considered too simple for category theorists idk
I think it's just not very useful in general? As in, this will give you strange $X$s with weird topologies?
19:11
I try my best to connect category theory things to simpler math :p
also I am trying to figure out how the intensive-extensive thing works
which might help with such a thing
consider that even for diffeological spaces this isn't really the topology you "want" - the plots are not supposed to be the continuous functions, they're supposed to be the smooth functions
True, although apparently for manifolds you do get the usual "manifold topology"
@Relativisticcucumber metals don't have flat surfaces. They can be machines to have a flat surface, or cooled from the melt to inherit a flat surface from the liquid surface, but this isn't unique to metals. There is nothing about the electronic structure of metals that predisposes them to be flat.
well, that's just because manifolds are nice :P
Not sure how things work out in general
As I said, the maps between Smooth and Top aren't inverses but adjoints
So presumably at some point you won't get the same thing back
I'm not sure when tho
You do get the discrete topology for the fine diffeology, also
That is how you get to embed topological spaces into Smooth I guess
> The D-topology on a discrete diffeological space is discrete, and the D-topology on an
indiscrete diffeological space is indiscrete
Well at least the extremes are fine :p
and the manifolds in the middle
19:17
also, note that for manifolds with more than one smooth structure the procedure clearly loses information
True
Question is
i.e. this adjunction may be neat but you shouldn't treat the resulting topological space as encoding the same information
which manifold do you get
@Slereah what do you mean?
Oh I'm not, I just want some more pedagogical examples :p
@ACuriousMind Well if you take some manifolds of different smooth structures and map them to Top and then back to Smooth
Which one is The Manifold
The manifold invariant under the dtplg-cdflg monad
The dtplg-cdflg type, as it is called
I don't want to be mean to Saint Grothendieck but having a topological space once in a while is a bit more pedagogical than having the sheaf
19:21
that's just because you haven't drunk enough of the koolaid yet ;P
@ACuriousMind Do you mean those potions they found in Grothendieck's shack
possibly
those are going to do something to you, for sure
and I mean the whole point of this sheaf stuff is that you believe that it's not the space that counts, it's the maps :P
if you just want nice sets with maps on them you can just stay in the category of manifolds :P
Legends say that if you drink from them, you will understand the Topos
@ACuriousMind I want to move freely between the two :p
Get all them angles
I want the sheaf, the set, the topology, the type and the logic
My attempt at analyzing the nlab science of logic thing is slowly turning into a book
Not again
20:21
good morning
g'evenin'
9 pm here :)
@ACuriousMind turning Australian
@Slereah imo, not aided by rubber sheet demos in high schools :(
Do they even have GR in high school
i don't remember any GR in mine
20:24
Oct 1, 2024 at 11:02, by qwerty
@naturallyInconsistent OK, but our syllabuses were messed up at the time I was doing it -- we were teaching superconductors and cooper pairs BEFORE a simple harmonic oscillator
no GR explicitly, but there was a module that to have understood properly would have required GR (I don't remember the context... maybe cosmology) and I do remember mention of a rubber sheet analogy
@Slereah my french friend picked up a slight Aussie accent during his PhD here >=] I'm corrupting your countrymen too...
@ACuriousMind Unless you already said it, what do you mean "solitary"?
@Slereah the lack of "mate" is truly dissappointing
Although, ACM has a long history of g'greetings
@SignorFeynman I didn't have a lot of classes (meaning I hung out much less on campus) and there just weren't a lot of people to talk to about the stuff I was looking into
@ACuriousMind I felt that too at some point :(
20:45
@Slereah let me teach you some slang in that case: "bogan" is our version of the US "redneck" ;)
Is with "gauge theory" meant a field theory which is gauge invariant?
@qwerty I'm aware
I am a man of the world
@Slereah haha okay okay level up, what's an "eshay" :p
Don't know that one I fear
@imbAF It depends a little on the context, but generally it's a theory where 1) the Lagrangian has a symmetry 2) It's a Bad Symmetry because it prevents you from solving the equation of motion
but why is called gauge ?
20:49
@imbAF For completely historical reasons
so nothing to do with gauge transformations and invariance ?
The original gauge theory was a theory in which the length scale was the gauge degree of freedom, so length scale ~ a gauge (in the measuring device sense)
Ah well that is another thing
If your symmetry is Bad but not Too Bad, in fact it gives rise to a group structure
Which is where the group structure comes from
Please do not confuse me even further lmao
But I do want to understand one thing
@imbAF A (not the historical) motivating example is the 4-potential of electrodynamics: You can use the gauge transformations to "set the zero" of $A^\mu(x)$ to whatever you want at each point in space, like someone gauging an instrument calibrates the zero of the instrument's display
(metrologists don't get on my case about the difference between gauging and calibrating :P)
Ok
20:52
In science and engineering, a dimensional gauge or simply gauge is a device used to make measurements or to display certain dimensional information. A wide variety of tools exist which serve such functions, ranging from simple pieces of material against which sizes can be measured to complex pieces of machinery. Dimensional properties include thickness, gap in space, diameter of materials. == Basic types == All gauges can be divided into four main types, independent of their actual use. Analogue instrument meter with analogue display ("needles"). Until the later decades the most common basic...
many such gauges
@Slereah huh I would have thought similar to imbAF
@Slereah which was the OG gauge theory you're referring to?
@qwerty That would be Weyl's theory of gravity
In my lecture, the following transformation: $\psi \rightarrow \psi'=\psie^{i\alpha}$ and $\psi \rightarrow \psi'=\psie^{i\alpha(x)}$ are classified as global and local gauge transformations. How does one determine whether a transformation is a gauge one or not? Can it be determined immediately or you need to calculate something ?
28
Q: Why are gauge theories called so?

PatrickWhy are gauge theories called so? I guessed it was because gauge also means to estimate, so when one is trying to find the gauge theory for such and such interactions one has to estimate what might be the best gauge group for that interaction. Does this make sense?

@qwerty Whether all "gauge theories" have "gauge transformations" depends a lot on the exact definition you use. The "problem" with solving the equations of motion that Slereah alludes to does not always imply that there are gauge transformations, see e.g. the end of this answer of mine
20:56
@Slereah did the example of the EM four-potential not predate that or does it not count?
@imbAF You need (one of) the proper definitions of "gauge symmetry" for that. Most elementary approaches to the topic do not attempt such a rigorous classification. There is no brief answer to your question.
@qwerty EM four potential was... I think it was done shortly after?
Same era anyway I think
the simple heuristic that's usually used is that a transformation that depends on the spacetime point but is not a transformation of spacetime that affects the argument of the fields (like the Lorentz transformations) is gauge
@ACuriousMind ok :(
@ACuriousMind The elementary approach is "A gauge theory is what EM is"
sometimes you do a fancy EM where the gauge is a matrix
20:59
@ACuriousMind if it doesn't affect spacetime coordinates, what does it affect ?
@imbAF the value of the fields, like in your example of $\psi(x)\mapsto \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\alpha(x)}\psi(x)$
and with value you mean the operators?
my "doesn't affect the argument of the fields" means that on the r.h.s. there is $\psi(x)$ and not some $\psi(\Lambda x)$ or $\psi(x')$ or whatever
@imbAF not necessarily, this notion also makes sense for classical fields
ah ok
I had qft in mind
One more thing, so I have a better understanding
things like: scalar field, complex scalar field, spin 1/2 field etc. are all field theories,right? QED, which is what I am doing atm, is a gauge field theory right?
21:02
@ACuriousMind this answer you wrote is very interesting and has bumped gauge stuff back up my to-study list. thanks for linking
@Slereah Isn't it odd, that saying gauge field theory, one gives insight as to under what transformation the field theory is invariant, while in the case of i.e complex scalar field you don't provide such information.
Maybe it's how the nomenclature is
but I find this inconsistency in naming the theories odd
I mean neither of those terms fully define the theory
they're all "field theories" and you can stack a bunch of modifiers like "complex scalar" or "gauge" or "with polynomial interaction" or whatever onto that
what do you mean? which terms?
saying something is an "X field theory" is not meant to imply that X somehow tells you everything about it, just that it's a field theory with property X
@ACuriousMind For the moment I will go with this
@ACuriousMind Ok
21:06
@qwerty if you found that interesting I highly recommend at least the first chapters of Quantization of Gauge Systems
@qwerty it sounds like bogolon
it might stop being interesting somewhere around the main theorem of homological perturbation theory in the middle :P
If they publish another edition, you deserve to be mentioned in the preface :P
And that will also solve the last name problem
I think Henneaux can get by without the @ACuriousMind boost
@ACuriousMind yeap you recommended it to me before! I did attempt to read it last year a bit but I think you summarised in the answer some important/fundamental points
21:11
I am nothing if not consistent in my shilling for QoGS :P
@ACuriousMind well i don't think that the paper can possibly be correct. the annihilation operator $\xi_{-q}$ does not annihilate the vacuum $\Psi_0$
Or basically one of the annihilation operators does annihilate the vacuum and the other does not, so the definitions of the vacuum state and the creation/annihilation operators are inconsistent.
@SillyGoose maybe, but you didn't give us the definition of any of the symbols so I don't know how you expect anyone here to answer this unless they recognize the paper
well the authors are just diagonalizing $$v_q =v_{2q}v_{1q}v_{2q} \to \exp[\beta j_2\cos(q)]\begin{pmatrix}
A_q & C_q \\
C_q & B_q
\end{pmatrix} \tag{18a}$$
which is in the basis $\{\Phi_{-q,q}, \Phi_\text{vac}\}$
where $\Phi_{-q,q} := \eta_{-q}^\dagger \eta_q^\dagger \Phi_\text{vac}$
where $\eta_q$ is a set of fermionic c/a operators
...and you expected someone to guess that?
well i didn't think the context was necessary
i thought it was clear that the c/a operators were fermionic based off the text and that that was the essential context
21:18
I don't really see how anyone is supposed to judge whether the eigenvectors eq. (3.30) in your screenshot are correct or not without knowing the eigenvectors of what they are supposed to be
but my question was not really about that. it is more about the fact that the supposed vacuum state $\Psi_0$ is not actually a vacuum state of the fermionic c/a operators
but that's not what you asked :P
separately, i think the authors also made a mistake in writing those eigenstates though...
so i just solved it myself and used my own notation. but i am wondering if there was a way to make sense out of what the authors meant to write
oh wait actually their eigenstates are correct
so i guess their c/a operators are just wrong
okay well i can state the question more precisely now i think
given states $$\Psi_\text{vac}:=\cos(\phi_q)\Phi_{-q,q} + \sin(\phi_q)\Phi_{\text{vac}}, \\
\Psi_{-q,q} := -\sin(\phi_q)\Phi_{-q,q} + \cos(\phi_q) \Phi_\text{vac} \tag{19c}$$
@SillyGoose Are you working with bogolons?
It's a serious question
::snickers::
21:23
@SignorFeynman the $\eta$ operator is supposed to be a bogoliubov transform of the $\xi$ operators, but i think they are not quite
although im not sure if that is what a bogolon is
@SillyGoose The quasiparticles associated with those oeprators are called bogolons
oh okay then yes
but the linear transformation $\xi \to \eta$ defined by the authors is linear but clearly not unitary
so either bogoliubov transformations meant something slightly different back then or they made an oopsies
here is the supposed bogoliubov transformation
all operators are fermionic c/a operators
@SignorFeynman those öprators
the angle $\phi_q$ has the property $\sin \phi_{-q} = -\sin \phi_q$ (i think)
@ACuriousMind You may have noticed I'm not that careful when I type here :P
21:27
öprator is just fun to say
not as funny as bogolon, but still
$$(\xi_k, \xi^\dagger_{-k})$$ is the vector you are transforming @SillyGoose
oh wiat oops i should have written $\eta \to \xi$
Why specifically this combination? You get it writing down the Hamiltonian, normal ordering and writing it in matrix form
Then diagonalize the matrix and get bogolons
right that is why this paper is using this transformation
but i apply 3.33 to the proposed vacuum state and it does not annihilate it
$\eta_q$ and $\eta_{-q}$ should share the same vacuum right?
If I'm not too stunned by junctions, yes
The vacuum is annihilated by all $\eta$
21:33
Can anyone explain me the one in red?
that's just a statement and there is nothing to back it off
okay i think i see the error
@imbAF It's entirely explained by the rest of the paragraph before it. What do you think "no longer shares the symmetries of $L$" means?
hm wait actually no i am still confused
the transformation seems fine and actually is unitary (orthogonal) when acting on $(\eta_q, \eta^\dagger_{-q})$
@ACuriousMind I don't understand what you are saying
well, I don't understand what you're confused by - one of us has to start explaining themselves :P
21:36
First of all, it comes as a surprise to me that the same way we have invariance of lagrangian, we have also and the same for a state
@SillyGoose That's what it acts on
right but we have $\Psi_\text{vac} := \cos\phi_q \Phi_\text{vac} + \sin\phi_q\Phi_{-qq}$
@ACuriousMind you say that it is explained by the paragraph above. I fail to see how an explanation is given
@imbAF Have you tried thinking it in terms of the Hamiltonian formalism? Use the definition of symmetry and apply it to an eigenstate; what can you conclude?
@imbAF Just like in classical mechanics where the symmetries of the Lagrangian applied to a solution to the equations of motion yield a solution to the equations of motion, the symmetries of the Lagrangian (and hence the Hamiltonian) in QM applied to an energy eigenstate yield an energy eigenstate of the same energy (this is not hard to show).
21:38
And, $\xi_q \Psi_\text{vac} = (\cos\phi_q \eta_q + \sin\phi_q \eta_{-q}^\dagger)(\cos\phi_q \Phi_\text{vac} + \sin\phi_q\Phi_{-qq}) = \cos\phi_q\sin\phi_q \Phi_{-q} + \cos\phi_q\sin\phi_q\Phi_{-q}$
What does degeneracy entail/not entail?
This is a QFT text that expects you to be aware of this basic fact about mechanics
which means that something has clearly gone wrong as the vacuum is not annihilated
In case you're waiting for me, I'm sorry but I'm too tired to be helpful now :(
this suggests that the typo is $\sin\phi_q \mapsto - \sin \phi_q$ in $\xi_q$
is $$\begin{pmatrix} \cos\phi & -\sin\phi \\ -\sin\phi & \cos\phi \end{pmatrix}$$ a usual bogoliubov transformation?
or is $$\begin{pmatrix} \cos\phi & \sin\phi \\ -\sin\phi & \cos\phi \end{pmatrix}$$? The latter is what is used in the text and leads to incorrect result. The former is what I ended up going with and resolves the vacuum annihilation.
21:42
the text said that $\phi_q$ is only defined modulo $\pi/2$, so in particular only modulo $\pi$, and $\sin(\phi_q) = -\sin(\phi_q + \pi)$, are you sure there's an actual problem and not just you and the text picking different conventions for how to measure $\phi_q$?
@ACuriousMind by "symmetries of the L" you mean transformations for which L is invariant ?
@imbAF what else would a symmetry be?
Better to double check, since the language used is getting more and more convoluted
I haven't read, but it might help you quack @SillyGoose
@ACuriousMind hm but wouldn't this mean that the sign of $\sin$ is not well-defined?
@SignorFeynman isn't orthogonal a special case of unitary?
21:45
@SillyGoose I haven't read the entire text to work out why it wouldn't be problem; I'm just saying the explicit mention of the "modulo $\pi/2$" thing and all your problems just being related to signs and sin/cos mismatches is suspicious
(I haven't read, yes it's a special case)
because multiples of $\pi/2$ are exactly what turns sins into coss or introduces minus signs
Okay, time for some Japanese and then I may rest. I hate Josephson junctions
@ACuriousMind that's the point "no longer shares the symmetries of $L$" is just a statement, that wasn't proven at any point. That's the whole point of me highlighting it
"phenomenological quantization" is something that will haunt my nightmares
21:46
sometimes I feel like ACM in hbar is doing the physics version of en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simultaneous_exhibition in chess
@imbAF As I said, have you considered this from the pov of the Hamiltonian formalism of QM?
@imbAF It follows from the statements about degeneracy if you think a little bit about it.
If you understand it there, just use that the Hamiltonian and the Lagrangian share the same symmetries
I gave you a hint before
And now I can't change my username for a Month T_T
@qwerty I have thought about this ahahahhaha
@SignorFeynman what's next, Monsieur Feynmanne?
I think that the trend of changing the name was just a German exclusive :P
Limited edition was the expression I was looking for
21:54
yo, we got the rare 1st edition German Feinmann
lol xD
Next time you will is up to Poincaré
I haven't forgotten aboute Feynmate @qwerty
what about 'Feynman Sensei' or 'Feynman-san'
Dec 23, 2024 at 19:28, by Herr Feinmann
@naturallyInconsistent ファインマンさん could be problematic
22:00
I can't read any hiragana or katakana D: you will have to translate
Feynman-san
why problematic?
Imagine if someone new has to write my username
@qwerty I was about to say "it's already good that you recognize they are not kanji", then I remembered past discussions and that you know more hanzi than I can imagine
@ACuriousMind hm but how can this work at all? then $\sin(\phi_q) = -\sin(\phi_q) = 0$ generically, right?
(i am asking because i am trying to see if what you are saying actually is the case)
I still wonder how difficult Chinese must be especially on the first learning stage. One has to write hanzi from teh get-go
22:04
@SignorFeynman I do not, I dropped out of weekend Chinese school when I was 6 :p
It was a twisted way to say that I remember you have good reasons to know some hanzi :P
@SillyGoose I agree, the naive interpretation of the "modulo $\pi/2$" statement does not make sense. But it's suspicious :P
the vague idea I have is that they have an implied range for $\phi_q$ like $[0,\pi/2)$ but you're working in $[\pi,3\pi/2)$ or something

« first day (5193 days earlier)      last day (32 days later) »