@ACuriousMind We are always doomed to have to ask for more context. But there is sufficient information to tell that the wacky fowl is much more likely to be wrong.
maybe it's cos I'm very tired... but I'm wondering what peoples' personal attitudes to physics is, whether you would feel the same motivation or pleasure in doing physics if all your output, thoughts etc were never shared with other humans? if you could not discuss or teach it, and only work alone. I suppose you could draw a parallel with writers of novels who never intend to have or have their works read or published for example.
@handan_toddler the latest few videos, on the advanced parts, are great. I'd buy the book just to see what I can steal. But it is soooo awkward to go the crazy lengths just to avoid calculus.
Edit: Based on @WillO's very relevant comment, I want to clarify what I mean by "fully governed by QM" - it means governed only by the laws of quantum mechanics, as opposed to classical physics. It effectively means "if classical systems don't exist in the universe".
If those logical steps below ...
@qwerty No, definitely not. The rather solitary experience I had towards the end of my master was one of the reasons I didn't stay in academia. Doesn't mean there's no interest in doing physics on my own but definitely there are other people who have much higher intrinsic motivation for that than I do
@Slereah What do you mena? It remains curved even if you embed things - intrinsic curvature doesn't go away. Or do you mean people want to believe in some flat ambient space as the "real" spacetime? Is that that popular?
@naturallyInconsistent not really relevant as long as it's not a blatant attempt at proselytizing or something like that
I would say you need to generally have some set of distinguished maps (like the plots of a diffeological space), then the topology is just the coarsest topology that makes those distinguished maps continuous
I mean then the construction there always works at least in principle, no? If you have a concrete sheaf $D$ with points $D(\ast) = X$, you give $X$ the topology that makes all $D(U)$ (interpreted as maps $U\to X$ via the concreteness condition) continuous
consider that even for diffeological spaces this isn't really the topology you "want" - the plots are not supposed to be the continuous functions, they're supposed to be the smooth functions
@Relativisticcucumber metals don't have flat surfaces. They can be machines to have a flat surface, or cooled from the melt to inherit a flat surface from the liquid surface, but this isn't unique to metals. There is nothing about the electronic structure of metals that predisposes them to be flat.
@naturallyInconsistent OK, but our syllabuses were messed up at the time I was doing it -- we were teaching superconductors and cooper pairs BEFORE a simple harmonic oscillator
no GR explicitly, but there was a module that to have understood properly would have required GR (I don't remember the context... maybe cosmology) and I do remember mention of a rubber sheet analogy
@Slereah my french friend picked up a slight Aussie accent during his PhD here >=] I'm corrupting your countrymen too...
@SignorFeynman I didn't have a lot of classes (meaning I hung out much less on campus) and there just weren't a lot of people to talk to about the stuff I was looking into
@imbAF It depends a little on the context, but generally it's a theory where 1) the Lagrangian has a symmetry 2) It's a Bad Symmetry because it prevents you from solving the equation of motion
The original gauge theory was a theory in which the length scale was the gauge degree of freedom, so length scale ~ a gauge (in the measuring device sense)
Ah well that is another thing
If your symmetry is Bad but not Too Bad, in fact it gives rise to a group structure
@imbAF A (not the historical) motivating example is the 4-potential of electrodynamics: You can use the gauge transformations to "set the zero" of $A^\mu(x)$ to whatever you want at each point in space, like someone gauging an instrument calibrates the zero of the instrument's display
(metrologists don't get on my case about the difference between gauging and calibrating :P)
In science and engineering, a dimensional gauge or simply gauge is a device used to make measurements or to display certain dimensional information. A wide variety of tools exist which serve such functions, ranging from simple pieces of material against which sizes can be measured to complex pieces of machinery.
Dimensional properties include thickness, gap in space, diameter of materials.
== Basic types ==
All gauges can be divided into four main types, independent of their actual use.
Analogue instrument meter with analogue display ("needles"). Until the later decades the most common basic...
In my lecture, the following transformation: $\psi \rightarrow \psi'=\psie^{i\alpha}$ and $\psi \rightarrow \psi'=\psie^{i\alpha(x)}$ are classified as global and local gauge transformations. How does one determine whether a transformation is a gauge one or not? Can it be determined immediately or you need to calculate something ?
Why are gauge theories called so? I guessed it was because gauge also means to estimate, so when one is trying to find the gauge theory for such and such interactions one has to estimate what might be the best gauge group for that interaction. Does this make sense?
@qwerty Whether all "gauge theories" have "gauge transformations" depends a lot on the exact definition you use. The "problem" with solving the equations of motion that Slereah alludes to does not always imply that there are gauge transformations, see e.g. the end of this answer of mine
@imbAF You need (one of) the proper definitions of "gauge symmetry" for that. Most elementary approaches to the topic do not attempt such a rigorous classification. There is no brief answer to your question.
the simple heuristic that's usually used is that a transformation that depends on the spacetime point but is not a transformation of spacetime that affects the argument of the fields (like the Lorentz transformations) is gauge
things like: scalar field, complex scalar field, spin 1/2 field etc. are all field theories,right? QED, which is what I am doing atm, is a gauge field theory right?
@Slereah Isn't it odd, that saying gauge field theory, one gives insight as to under what transformation the field theory is invariant, while in the case of i.e complex scalar field you don't provide such information.
Maybe it's how the nomenclature is
but I find this inconsistency in naming the theories odd
I mean neither of those terms fully define the theory
they're all "field theories" and you can stack a bunch of modifiers like "complex scalar" or "gauge" or "with polynomial interaction" or whatever onto that
saying something is an "X field theory" is not meant to imply that X somehow tells you everything about it, just that it's a field theory with property X
@ACuriousMind yeap you recommended it to me before! I did attempt to read it last year a bit but I think you summarised in the answer some important/fundamental points
@ACuriousMind well i don't think that the paper can possibly be correct. the annihilation operator $\xi_{-q}$ does not annihilate the vacuum $\Psi_0$
Or basically one of the annihilation operators does annihilate the vacuum and the other does not, so the definitions of the vacuum state and the creation/annihilation operators are inconsistent.
@SillyGoose maybe, but you didn't give us the definition of any of the symbols so I don't know how you expect anyone here to answer this unless they recognize the paper
well the authors are just diagonalizing $$v_q =v_{2q}v_{1q}v_{2q} \to \exp[\beta j_2\cos(q)]\begin{pmatrix} A_q & C_q \\ C_q & B_q \end{pmatrix} \tag{18a}$$
which is in the basis $\{\Phi_{-q,q}, \Phi_\text{vac}\}$
where $\Phi_{-q,q} := \eta_{-q}^\dagger \eta_q^\dagger \Phi_\text{vac}$
where $\eta_q$ is a set of fermionic c/a operators
I don't really see how anyone is supposed to judge whether the eigenvectors eq. (3.30) in your screenshot are correct or not without knowing the eigenvectors of what they are supposed to be
but my question was not really about that. it is more about the fact that the supposed vacuum state $\Psi_0$ is not actually a vacuum state of the fermionic c/a operators
@imbAF Have you tried thinking it in terms of the Hamiltonian formalism? Use the definition of symmetry and apply it to an eigenstate; what can you conclude?
@imbAF Just like in classical mechanics where the symmetries of the Lagrangian applied to a solution to the equations of motion yield a solution to the equations of motion, the symmetries of the Lagrangian (and hence the Hamiltonian) in QM applied to an energy eigenstate yield an energy eigenstate of the same energy (this is not hard to show).
this suggests that the typo is $\sin\phi_q \mapsto - \sin \phi_q$ in $\xi_q$
is $$\begin{pmatrix} \cos\phi & -\sin\phi \\ -\sin\phi & \cos\phi \end{pmatrix}$$ a usual bogoliubov transformation?
or is $$\begin{pmatrix} \cos\phi & \sin\phi \\ -\sin\phi & \cos\phi \end{pmatrix}$$? The latter is what is used in the text and leads to incorrect result. The former is what I ended up going with and resolves the vacuum annihilation.
the text said that $\phi_q$ is only defined modulo $\pi/2$, so in particular only modulo $\pi$, and $\sin(\phi_q) = -\sin(\phi_q + \pi)$, are you sure there's an actual problem and not just you and the text picking different conventions for how to measure $\phi_q$?
@SillyGoose I haven't read the entire text to work out why it wouldn't be problem; I'm just saying the explicit mention of the "modulo $\pi/2$" thing and all your problems just being related to signs and sin/cos mismatches is suspicious
@ACuriousMind that's the point "no longer shares the symmetries of $L$" is just a statement, that wasn't proven at any point. That's the whole point of me highlighting it
@qwerty I was about to say "it's already good that you recognize they are not kanji", then I remembered past discussions and that you know more hanzi than I can imagine