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02:59
@imbAF Hi,they represent generalized coordinates,now a vector might have three independent components in R^3,and if that vector describes the position coordinates of a system each independent component is a q,i.e the vector would be described by three q's
@imbAF by $\veq$ I think you mean the configuration of the system in phase space,in that case qi's are just components,they are not vectors themselves
03:52
@Allie are you sure there is one?
im not....
but i want to read this article :(
Exactly. You have to ascertain whether that has been reprinted and translated in another journal
@Allie i can feel you. I have also faced lots of problems because in mathematical statistics too, there come some books or papers that I want to read badly only to see that there is no English translation.
meow
My go to solution is I use a German-Maths dictionary and become familiar with the concepts in hand and try to decipher those in the work.
yeah but i cant read.... any german
03:56
19
A: Book/tutorial recommendations: acquiring math-oriented reading proficiency in German

Matthew TowersLandau's Grundlagen der Analysis in the AMS edition comes with a "complete German-English vocabulary", this sounds ideal for your purposes.

@Allie trust me. You don't need to to read articles.
@ACuriousMind How did u primarily learn your coursework in physics like classical mechanics,enm,qm etc? You used to study from books or was it just lectures ? I feel so dumb for working like a donkey and still not managing to finish the coursework to a level I would like by the end of the sem lmao,plus do you think it is effective to learn from lectures alone?(Assuming the prof is decent)
Of course, it won't be easy. It would take time. But read with a German-English dictionary; it won't be easy but not intimidating.
meow too much work
😅
Also do you have acquaintance with anyone speaking German?
I heard people doing physics at least have a basic knowledge of German and French.
@User1865345 this is not true
04:02
🙂
In any case, Landau's Grundlagen der Analysis is very helpful. I have picked up few German keywords already.
in Ten fold, Jul 30, 2023 at 8:57, by User1865345 - solidarity Mods
You seemed to hit a dead end when the book you are reading refers to Witting's Mathematische Statistik and you don't know German. It's kind of surprising nobody (even the author himself) thought about translating the book for wider public (English speaking) considering it is referred frequently.
in Ten fold, Jul 30, 2023 at 8:58, by User1865345 - solidarity Mods
Is it that the Soviet books are translated at a greater rate than the German ones? I have hardly come across any German translated mathematical statistics book. I have seen French being translated, though.
I already ranted a year ago.
 
2 hours later…
06:04
merry christmas to those that celebrate it :)
6
06:23
Meryy merry Xmas : )
06:55
Wasn’t there some sort of “Holiday Hats contest” (for lack of a better word) in previous years?
@ZeroTheHero They canned that a few years ago on the grounds it was getting a bit stale.
Which, to be fair, it was.
07:16
Stale, I am not :-)
 
1 hour later…
08:37
Merry Christmiaos
Meow
Merry Xmas
I'm approaching QIT and I'm confused by LCTP maps. The fact that not all LCPTs have inverse doesn't mean they violate reversibility? The joint evolution operator is unitary, so is its inverse: then it also must give rise to a LCPT.
 
1 hour later…
10:14
Merry Christmas 🥳
@Arjun if the system is that of N particles in a box or whatever, aren't you having 6N dimensions?
11:04
@imbAF come on, you know 6N is half for positions and half for momenta.
@imbAF If there are no other constraints sure phase space is 6N dimensional
I don't see what's unclear here
 
1 hour later…
12:43
@Arjun I have no advice to offer you, I just sat in the lectures and did the exercises and that was mostly enough for me :P
@ZeroTheHero It was called Winterbash and they stopped doing it last year
13:33
@ACuriousMind You must've had some good lecturers : )
Wish you all a merry christmas😊
@Arjun he was clearly just a good student ;)
@qwerty most definitely :p
14:31
@qwerty understatement of the decade :P
 
1 hour later…
15:43
Hey can someone check the following? i am unsure about the entropy being replaced like this, the authors seem to just give the result. I tried to rationalize it..
\[
Z(N, \beta) = \sum_s e^{-\beta E(s)}.
\]
It ensures proper normalization of the probabilities such that:
\[
\sum_s P[s] = 1.
\]

For its definition, the partition function $Z$ contains all relevant physical quantities of the statistical system at equilibrium.

Not all configurations $s$ have unique energies $E(s)$. Many configurations may share the same energy level $E$. Let $\omega(E)$ represent the number of configurations (degeneracy) with energy $E$. The microstate-level entropy is given by:
In the sum before the final exponential, if i were to write out hte first terms, they would be something of this form right? TS(E_1) - E_1 + ....
because the text just omits the S(E) and writes S.
@ACuriousMind thanks for the link. Not that I was anxiously waiting for it; in fact I had not realized there was none last year.
@Madder I'm not sure what your question is - the text you typed out has $S(E)$ everywhere I can see.
@ACuriousMind No thats what i wrote. the Text does not do that, it skips most of these steps and puts only an $S$
16:12
well, there is a way to do this only with the total $S$ and no $S(E)$: You're looking at a probability density $\rho(s) = Z^{-1} \mathrm{e}^{-\beta E(s)}$. The entropy is
$$S = -\sum_s \rho(s) \ln(\rho) = \sum_s \rho(s)(\ln(Z) +\beta E(s)) = \beta \langle E\rangle + \ln(Z)\sum_s \rho(s)$$
which yields $S = \beta \langle E\rangle + \ln(Z)$ and so $F = - \beta^{-1}\ln(Z) = \langle E \rangle- TS$
16:28
how fast are other galaxies moving (relative to earth)?
hmm they're slower than i expected lol
so about 1000 km/s is the fastest galaxy (after adjusting for the expansion of the universe)?
that's like 0.1% c right
i mean i guess that's still really fast
is there anything stopping a galaxy from moving say at 0.5 c?
@ACuriousMind i will look at your comment later. Thanks for you reply for now.
does that mean galaxies at the edge of the observable universe are moving at 3.34 c?
16:50
@LeakyNun I don't know about 3.34 but sure, they can appear to move faster than light. The region of the universe in which the galaxies appear to move slower than light is the Hubble sphere
i think 3.34 is about right
@ACuriousMind would i be correct in saying that we can't actually observe the galaxies that are moving faster than light (outside the Hubble sphere) so we can't actually know if they move faster than light?
like would i be correct to say that the Hubble's law is only valid up to the Hubble horizon?
There is a horizon behind which we will not be able to observe anything yes
yeah but i'm saying that "things outside move faster than light" is an interpolation and not an experimentally verifiable result
17:07
@LeakyNun Well...careful: We can see the light from the objects beyond the Hubble sphere, because in the past when the light was emitted they still moved slower than light relative to us. These objects don't suddenly disappear for us, their light just becomes increasingly redshifted until we can't see it anymore.
@ACuriousMind yes, but we're seeing light emitted from their past, not their present moment
the Hubble constant corrected for the time delay right
I'm not sure what time delay you mean or what you mean by "corrected"
let's say the Hubble constant is 70 km/s/Mpc, does that mean a galaxy moving at 70km/s is a Mpc away from us now, or in the telescope?
i think it's the "now"
As the Wikipedia article explains, the notion of distance in Hubble's law is the proper distance.
which is probably what you mean by the distance "now"
yeah
i also meant the light speed delay
if you look into the telescope you aren't seeing into the now, you're seeing into the past
this is independent of the hubble expansion
17:15
@LeakyNun : see arxiv.org/abs/astro-ph/0310808 and note this: "We show that we can observe galaxies that have, and always have had, recession velocities greater than the speed of light. We explain why this does not violate special relativity and we link these concepts to observational tests". Also check out the ant on the rope.
@LeakyNun I think you made up a false dichotomy here: Of course a galaxy with a redshift of 70 km/s in the telescope was 1 MPc away from us when that light was emitted, but of course it's further away "now" and "currently" emitting light we will receive with a bigger redshift in the future.
does this cause any discrepancies in the constants?
I'm not sure what you mean
if i ask about a galaxy 1 MPc away from us "now", and i ask about its velocity "now", will it be significantly different from 70 km/s?
In the simple model where the Hubble constant is really constant, no, of course not
in reality the expansion of the universe seems to change over time so the Hubble "constant" isn't really a constant on larger time scales
17:23
but if we think about the "ant on the rope", we would get much more distortions that way right?
as in, maybe it's fine for 1 MPc, but not for 5 GPc, right
I'm not sure what you mean by "distortions"
nor what you mean by "it's fine" - people didn't just accept Hubble's law because it fit for one particular distance but because they could fit it to a range of distances
i'm still referring to the fact that what you're observing in the telescope is in the past, and not now
and as the distance increases, the time delay also increases
sure - if the "constant" changes too drastically over time, the expression in there would become some kind of integral over time instead of a simple $H_0$
what i meant to ask is, are we talking about the galaxies in the past, or are we talking about the galaxies as they exist in this moment
i think it's the former that we implicitly assume
i think we've implicitly accepted that we're talking about a past lightcone
lemme draw a diagram
@LeakyNun when we're just talking about Hubble's law, neither, really
Hubble's law just says that the relative velocity between two objects depends on their proper distance from each other. "Proper distance" is essentially the distance between two objects in the "cosmological frame" at some point in cosmological time.
of course, if you look through a telescope, the redshift you observe indicates the velocity of the object back when the light was emitted, so you need to use the proper distance back at that cosmological time in Hubble's law
17:31
yeah that's what i'm asking about
i mean, P.3 of the linked paper also has three diagrams of this sort
with way more details
Davis and Lineweaver are explicitly doing a general relativistic analysis of the situation to combat some misunderstandings that have arisen from (over)simplification of the situation in the literature
I would not have linked it to someone first encountering the concept :P
well yeah it took quite some time to get you to understand what i meant by "time delay"
> Despite the fact that special relativity incorrectly describes cosmological redshifts it has been used for decades to convert cosmological redshifts into velocity because the special relativistic Doppler shift formula (Eq. 2), shares the same low redshift approximation, v = cz, as Hubble’s Law (Fig. 2).
@ACuriousMind i don't see why this is an "of course", the two different measurements will yield very different results, right
@LeakyNun which "two measurements"? One is looking through the telescope, what is the other?
@ACuriousMind right, sorry, the other cannot be "measured"
but the other, uh, "value", is the distance and then corrected for light speed and Hubble expansion
i.e. where the green lines cross the black line
I'm not sure what you mean by "corrected"
17:42
it's where the galaxies are 'now'
that's the correction
it's a not a correction, it would just be their proper distance to us now
yeah but the two values are different
how does witten have so many citations? the areas that he works in seemingly are not related (not at the least accessible) to the majority of the physics or math community
that's just a completely different value than their proper distance back in the day
one is not a correction of the other, any more than your position today is a "correction" of your position yesterday
@think_meaning_buildß lol
17:43
i don't know why you're fixating on the word "correction", i just meant after adjusting for the light speed
use "adjustment" if you don't like "correction"
@LeakyNun that is the way of acm
choose ur words wisely or perish
I also don't know what you mean by "adjusting" :P
i feel like you're ignoring my bigger question and fixating on small details
what is your bigger question?
the question is is the hubble's law for galaxies now, or for galaxies in the past
17:45
I already answered that, it's neither:
14 mins ago, by ACuriousMind
Hubble's law just says that the relative velocity between two objects depends on their proper distance from each other. "Proper distance" is essentially the distance between two objects in the "cosmological frame" at some point in cosmological time.
it's just a relation between relative velocities and proper distances at any time you want (possible with a different value for the Hubble "constant" if the expansion rate changes in your model)
if you want to apply it to what you see in a telescope you have to use it for the distances in the past
but we only ever apply it for the galaxies on the red line right
the red line is what we see in a telescope
well we don't have a lot of other ways to observe things out there except with a telescope :P
which is what i meant by correcting and adjustment
namely we take the observable values and then derive some other values that are not directly observable
such as the galaxies on the horizontal black line
@LeakyNun who's deriving any values here? You just plug in the redshift you see in the telescope into Hubble's law and it gives you the distance at the time of emission
2
that's all the law does
no one is computing the "current distance" of these galaxies, at least not in the pure context of Hubble's law
i'm just saying that when i first thought about it i thought it would make more sense to have a law about the black line
but now we're clarifying that we're only ever talking about the red line
yeah?
because like when you do newton mechanics you treat space and time separately
so it made sense to have a law for just space
@ACuriousMind yeah that's what i was asking about
17:51
I mean there are certainly people who compute a comoving distance (i.e. the proper distance today) for those objects, just that's not what Hubble's law is about
whether we're talking about the observed distance or the current distance
again it's because scipop likes to emphasise the difference between the two
they'll say, the observable universe is ... in diameter, but if we're talking about the objects as they are now, they'll be much farther away because the universe has been expanding etc etc
i can't tell you how many times i've heard this line
and also
when u draw a diagram of the galaxy
it does seem like a black line instead of a red line, right?
nobody is also drawing the "time into the past" along the diagram
Typically the size of the observable universe is stated in comoving distance, i.e. the distance "now"
@LeakyNun I mean people are reasonably confident that they understand how the galaxy works that they indeed draw the galaxy "as it looks now"
i still feel like there are two independent things that are being conflated
people are perhaps sometimes not careful about this in science communication
but I assure you everyone who actually works with this stuff is well aware of the distinction :P
I am confused about why a free QFT is thought of as "many harmonic oscillators". For instance, one contradiction seems to be: The harmonic oscillator in quantum mechanics is not translationally invariant, but the hamiltonian of a free quantum field is translationally invariant.
18:02
let's say Adam is moving away from earth at a constant velocity of 0.1 c, and you observe him to be 1 light year away from earth in the telescope. this means that one year ago (!) he was 1 light year away from earth, and now he is 1.1 light year away from earth.

after 1 year, he is now 1.2 light year away from earth, but in your telescope you observe that he is 1.2/1.1 = 1.09 light year away from earth. that means you will calculate his velocity to be (1.09-1) light year / 1 year = 0.09 c
@ACuriousMind this is what i mean by "correction"
@SillyGoose It's an analogy, not a formal equivalence. The free QFT has infinitely many c/a operator $a_p,a^\dagger_p$, just like the QHO has a single c/a pair $a,a^\dagger$. Hence a QFT is "infinitely many QHOs".
the measured velocity in your telescope is 0.09 c, yet his real velocity is 0.1 c
but it seems utterly wrong even as an analogy. the properties of the hamiltonian of each theory are utterly different
@SillyGoose personally I don't find the analogy particularly helpful, either
but that's what people mean when they say that :P
sad another misleading statement popularized and promulgated
18:05
lol
so im reading about spin adapted configurations right now
first of all, do eigenstates of the hamiltonian necessarily need to be eigenstates of the total spin angular momentum operator? because they commute?
Happy Chanukah and Merry Christmas
@SillyGoose But I would dispute this: There is a straightforward sense in which the free field Hamiltonian is in fact the Hamiltonian of infinitely many oscillators. The QHO Hamiltonian for $a(p)$ is $H_p = \omega(p)a^\dagger_p a + 1/2$ where $\omega(p)$ is the energy of something with momentum $p$ and mass $m$. Then the full Hamiltonian in momentum space is just the sum/integral over all the Hamiltonians for all $p$, i.e. $H = \int H_p \mathrm{d}^n p$.
it feels like something has to be wrong with my calculations, because it means that something moving at close to c will appear as if moving at 0.5 c??
@Allie No, that two operators commute only means that there is a common eigenbasis, not that every eigenstate has to be an eigenstate of both. As soon as one of the operators is degenerate, there may be eigenstates that are not eigenstates of both
@LeakyNun I don't understand this computation at all. Why would I only observe him 1.09 ly away? If he moves at 0.1c constant, I will see him at 1.1 ly after 1 year.
huh.
im trying to imagine how to conceptualize this
18:12
@ACuriousMind at the initial time, we observe him to be 1 light year away, yet in reality he is 1.1 light year away; this means that "observed distance" : "actual distance" is 1 : 1.1
i've made a diagram to demonstrate this
red line is the universal speed of light, green line is a spaceship travelling near that speed
blue lines are the light signals we receive
orange is the "apparent speed"
after 1 year, the actual distance is 1.2, so the observed distance must be 1.2/1.1 = 1.09
@ACuriousMind modulo renormalization issues~?
@ACuriousMind Ok, so I think I can see the reasoning behind this. If operators A and B commute and $A\psi_1 = \epsilon_1 \psi_1$, we have $BA\psi_1 = \epsilon_1 (B \psi_1) = A(B \psi_1)$. Therefore $B\psi_1$ is an eigenfunction of A with eigenvalue $\epsilon_1$. If that eigenvalue is nondegenerate then it follows that $\psi_1$ is also an eigenfunction of B
and I can see how if there is nondegeneracy you could have $B\psi_1$ be the orthogonal eigenfunction of A with eigenvalue $\epsilon_1$ which isn't a constant * $\psi_1$
18:56
i feel like people don't emphasise this enough
an object moving at 0.9 c away will be observed as having velocity 0.47 c
nobody ever said this in any scipop!
(and this is not the redshift velocity!)
19:15
consider a simple model of a lattice of ion cores (ions + bound electrons). can we suppose that acoustic phonons are modeled by a massless spin-1 "quantum field" while optical phonons are modeled by a massive spin-? "quantum field"?
@SillyGoose sure, but the "renormalization issue" is just that you have to throw away the 1/2-piece/renormalize it to be vacuum energy
@LeakyNun I think it's not emphazised because it's not really relevant in practice. All the objects that are fast enough that this would matter are so far away that we can't tell they're moving away by any other means than redshift, anyway - all the methods of distance measurement will not be able to tell that some galaxy that's 1 million lys away moved 0.1 lys away from us over 10 years or whatever,
so your "observed distance" doesn't actually exist in practice - only for objects that are near enough and slow enough that this doesn't matter
that is a good point, i was just about to say that it doesn't matter because the redshfit velocity doesn't experience this sort of distortion
wait
how do you confirm Hubble's law if you can't measure distance?
oh
what is meant by the "optical properties" of a material?
you use luminosity to measure distance?
@LeakyNun I didn't say we can't measure distance
I just said the methods of distance measurement are not precise enough to detect the 0.01% change in distance that you'd be talking about here
19:21
it's not 0.01%
I just put a random percentage :P
i just showed that if an object moves at near +c speed, its observed velocity will be +0.5c
@LeakyNun yes, but the objects that move at ~c are like 100 million lys away
so after 1 year, that 100 million becomes 100 million + 0.5
ah, ok i understand
we can't measure distance that precisely
19:22
so how do you measure distance?
or actually, can I just think of phonons as some quantum field governed by $H = \sum_\sigma \int dp \ \omega_\sigma(p) (a^\dagger_{\sigma}(p) + a_{\sigma}(p)) + h_0$ where the dispersion relation $\omega_\sigma(p)$ is some generically complicated "phonon" dispersion relation?
as you said, one way is by the luminosity of standard candles
I'm sure there are others but I'm not a practical astronomer :P
@Relativisticcucumber like refraction index and stuff?
what is this vague question :P
@SillyGoose you can also think of the bosonic Fock space of $d$ modes as the space of $d$ harmonic oscillators $F(\mathbb C^d)\cong \otimes^d L^2(\mathbb R)$.
IIRC, M. Talagrand says one or two things about that in his QFT book.
@Relativisticcucumber what do you think :p?
@ACuriousMind and in this case 100 Mly is the "proper distance" and 200 Mly is the "comoving distance"?
@LeakyNun To "proper distance" you always need to add the time at which you're talking about it
because the proper distance at present is the comoving distance
19:26
and where $\omega_\sigma(p) \sim p$ for small $p$ (acoustic) and $\omega_\sigma(p) \sim \sqrt{m^2 - p^2}$ for large $p$ (optical)?
but by the 100 million lys I meant the proper distance at the time the light that's now reaching us was emitted
i have seen this phrase recurring in two places: 1) discussions of how we should classify lattices and 2) literature on high energy density physics. i thought it could refer to permittivity and thus the ability of light to refract, reflect, or transmit through the material but i was unsure @TobiasFünke @ACuriousMind
yeah, I would say all of that falls under "optical properties", sure
it's a purposefully vague phrase, not a technical term :P
oh wait i wrote the hamiltonian wrong
oopsies
$H = \sum_\sigma \int d\vec{k} \ \omega_\sigma(\vec{k}) [a^\dagger_\sigma(\vec{k})a_\sigma(\vec{k}) + h_0]$
19:30
@ACuriousMind oh :P darn
but my question still stands: does $H$ yield the textbook model of phonons? where the acoustic phonons are given by $\omega_\sigma(\vec{k})^2 \sim k^2$ for small $\vec{k}$ (acoustic) and $\omega_\sigma(\vec{k})^2 \sim m^2 - k^2$ for large $\vec{k}$ (optical)?
@ACuriousMind how do you express that assuming it always travelled at speed c, its distance now would be 200 Mly?
@LeakyNun It wouldn't be, because the universe is expanding - you need to compute the full thing with the time-dependent Hubble constant to figure out how far away it's "now"
right, but how would you phrase that distance?
that's the comoving distance/proper distance now
19:38
then what is the 100 Mly?
the proper distance at the time of the emission of the light we receive
i see
an unrelated tangent, i've heard it said that the universe isn't actually expanding uniformly everywhere
it's more like only expanding near empty space or something like that
so the atoms in my hands aren't actually getting further apart
those are two very different claims :P
well empty space as in in deep space, so nowhere near earth
so they're the same claim
oh, you meant the uniformly claim
well are the two claims true then?
another typo: the minus sign should be a plus sign in the "optical" dispersion relation
19:40
the atoms in your hands aren't getting pulled apart because the EM force between your constituent particles is so much stronger than what uniform space expansion would do
are we assuming here that the space expansion is caused by a "force" then?
and sure, just like the Hubble "constant" isn't uniform in time it's also not exactly uniform in space, either, because the universe at smaller scales isn't the uniform soup the FLRW cosmology treats it as
so what actually happens, and how do the "small scales" sum up to get the whole (i'm using reductionism again)
@LeakyNun no, not at all - but the distance between your constituent particles is determined by the equilibrum of the repulsive and attractive forces between them. If space expansion pulls them apart a little bit, they just return to that equilibrium
i see
19:45
@LeakyNun I'm not sure what exactly the question is - in reality you have some $H(t,x)$ but the FLRW assumption is that if you average coarsely enough (on the order of galaxies) you just get a $H(t)$, i.e. the universe is homogeneous and isotropic on large scales
i guess the question is, what does the metric look like on earth?
I mean, the Earth as a single planet just has a Schwarzschild metric around it
to get "the" metric for all the objects in the solar system at once is probably already an intractable problem computationally
and none of this as anything to do with the large-scale structures like expansion in the FLRW model
The gravitation of Earth is a very nuanced thing
The gravity anomaly at a location on the Earth's surface is the difference between the observed value of gravity and the value predicted by a theoretical model. If the Earth were an ideal oblate spheroid of uniform density, then the gravity measured at every point on its surface would be given precisely by a simple algebraic expression. However, the Earth has a rugged surface and non-uniform composition, which distorts its gravitational field. The theoretical value of gravity can be corrected for altitude and the effects of nearby terrain, but it usually still differs slightly from the measured...
many factors
I have a paper somewhere about the GR model for it, lemme see
(and also that ^ if you don't approximate the Earth as a spherical homogeneous mass, yes :P)
Also, returning to a q I asked at the beginning of my CM studies. If this little note that ashmerm make is true, what is going on with the metal staircase? Id expect that to be where things fail moreso than the transition metals?
19:50
"ashmerm" lol
2
If you want the full story on Earth and GR
Gravitational anomalies are a fun topic rly
Love the Schiehallion experiment
Those guys spent two years just approximating a whole ass mountain
20:07
@SillyGoose I don't really understand your question(s) about phonons. Have you checked any solid state book on that matter?
they all arrive at the second quantized Hamiltonian form you've written
or do I misunderstand your question?
@TobiasFünke i don't like starting with classical then quantizing. i am wondering about starting with postulating a quantum model of phonons
i was reading through the volume you cited previously, and i didn't see discussion about the dispersion relation in detail (in particular what in the Hamiltonian encodes optical v. acoustic phonons; or if optical v. acoustic phonons are separate systems, etc.).
and i think ashmerm avoids using the language of quantum field theory (which is another reason i do not like the text)
@SillyGoose you can start by the quantum model "harmonic chain"
and arrive at that Hamiltonian
@SillyGoose its catching on
20:22
BTW: Is your question with the bands of the free electron gas settled?
i think yes thank you
@SillyGoose well, you can of course just postulate something. but that's not what is done in textbooks, as far as I know (I've never seen it), because you can actually derive many things
the number of bands is dependent on the scheme used
but the textbook presentation of phonons (in my opinion) is not a derivation. it is postulating a model, which is the same thing (but messier) than just precisely writing down the hamiltonian to begin with. It is actually worse, since it postulate a classical model and then quantizes it (in some resources).
well, OK, yes and no
they start wit the Hamiltonian of interacting ions
and do a second order expansion of the potential. that should be the textbook treatment
so you start from a general Hamiltonian, apply reasonable approximations, argue why you do so etc., and end up with some Hamiltonian. This then is solved, in the sense that you can re-write it as you've shown, with the well-known solutions.
@SillyGoose ... isn't it the same with e.g. scalar relativistic fields? i.e. they start with some classical field and then quantize?
@TobiasFünke but that in my opinion is a bad way to present the material
20:27
but I agree that, apart from pedagogical reasons, you can simply start with the final result
why?
much of solid state/condensed matter "lives" through at least some sort of classical intuition, I'd say
another thing that i have been confused about for awhile, you know how on tv oxygen tanks always blow up? like they are said to be flammable. it seems that the limiting reactant in a combustion reaction is the fuel/the thing you are burning, not the oxygen since there is so much oxygen in the air. so why are these tanks flammable?
because the deeper perspective (in my opinion) is to first discuss spacetime symmetries (in SR, the Poincaré group), then postulate (following Wigner) some representation theory business, then start talking about what Lagrangians can be built, then probe the theories to see which are realized in the world.
but again, I don't think you need the classical model here
@SillyGoose yes, I agree. But you would never do so in a solid state book (or again, I've never seen this)
well i think that's the type of CMT/SS book i'm looking for :P
you have much nicer visualization and "real-world" applications in solid state physics, and I think it is completely fine to start like what we've discussed
20:31
to live through classical intuition seems like a very bad idea in general, though. i mean isn't the lesson learned from heat capacity and etc. that you need to carefully account for what quantum theory brings to the picture
:P tell me when you've found some
@SillyGoose sure! of course
But I can think of Ions moving around like harmonic oscillators, and see why e.g. the Born-Oppenheimer approximation might be reasonable
you don't have to adopt this viewpoint, though
for example, in descriptions of spectroscopic experiments, the language is often very "washed"; on the one hand, this is good, because it gives intuition on what happens and possible suitable approximations; on the other hand, one must acknowledge that the world is not classical, and one has to think about that carefully
@TobiasFünke I thought the folks at UIUC might have produced something of the sort...but I will look around...I hope such a thing already exists
illinois urbana-champaign
20:38
i'd like to have a better knowledge of how experimental CM is done :P so that I could reassess my expectations for what CMT can hope for
@Relativisticcucumber to clarify i already know the oxygen itself isnt flammable -- i mean why would a fire explode when hitting the oxygen tank if the limiting reactant isnt oxygen
@SillyGoose and on a general note, one has to be a bit more careful. I think the classical language and entities, observables etc. are more or less necessary for a suitable description of experiments (which of course are explained/predicted by QM). If I am not mistaken, this is also said somewhere in LL (but I might be wrong)
@SillyGoose well, as I've often said already: CM is a huuuge field, so I don't think one can summarize that easily.
@SillyGoose lucky for u we r on track to be one CM theorist and one CM experimentalist -- that is if u dont get sucked into the wormhole that tempts u daily
But for example, in spectroscopic experiments, you shoot something (electrons, light) on, say, a solid, and see what comes out (electrons, light or whatever), perhaps with different energy and momentum. this gives you information on the solid itself (e.g. the bandstructure, excitation spectrum)
@Relativisticcucumber haha
@Relativisticcucumber me "doing CMT" so that I can actually do chern-simons theory ;D
20:41
CMT=CM theory?
@Relativisticcucumber the air is just ~20% oxygen. When an oxygen tank explodes in contact with a fire, that blasts a stream of 100% oxygen over whatever is burning, increasing the available oxygen by like an order of magnitude
and as I've said a while ago, the methods and quantities of interest are actually the same as in "standard" HEP: scattering cross sections, Feynman diagrams etc.
@HerrFeinmann yes, presumably
OMG ACM is handwaving
Christmas miracle
@HerrFeinmann Coleman-Mandula theorem, clearly :P
@HerrFeinmann yesh
what is the notation in statements like ER = EPR mean anyways?
is the = meant to be an equivalence?
20:43
@SillyGoose it means ER is equal to EPR :)
@ACuriousMind I dislike the word "theorem" in QFT, please tell me you dislike it too
@TobiasFünke do you have a (relatively recent) favorite experimental CM paper?
@HerrFeinmann I mean if people just use it for something they showed with rather questionable rigor that's not good, sure
@SillyGoose uff, let me think about it
but e.g. Haag's theorem and Coleman-Mandula are, as far as I know, actual theorems in axiomatic Wightman QFT
20:45
Oh I see. Just that CM is quoted in actual QFT books
@ACuriousMind but what matters is not the amt of oxygen, what matters is what the limiting reactant is, no?
Haag is avoided like pest
if the fuel was already the limiting reactant, adding oxygen shouldnt help
@Relativisticcucumber Yes, but doesn't this just show that in many fires, the limiting reactant is the oxygen?
I recently emailed a QFTist at my institution about if he worries about Haag's theorem. He said that he didn't, but upon looking around online again, now he potentially worries again ;D.
20:47
@ACuriousMind but i cant see how that is true. there's so much oxygen, i mean there is so much air and it can equilibrate so fast
@SillyGoose no, sorry. nothing comes to my mind right now :/
@SillyGoose why r u proud that u spread qft anxiety like a plague
@SillyGoose hahaha
@TobiasFünke no worries ~
@Relativisticcucumber haagenpest
@Relativisticcucumber but the air is 80% nitrogen, so like 80% of the surface of the fuel at any given time just has no chance to react with any oxygen at all regardless of how quickly the air equilibrates back to 20% oxygen
20:48
@SillyGoose oh boy do i have one
@SillyGoose lol
@SillyGoose "No, I live life peacefully"
also apperently this site computes irreps of crystal space groups, which seems neat: cryst.ehu.es/rep/repres.html
@ACuriousMind but how can a fuel be more massive than the amt of oxygen
i mean more readily available
The usual response I get is "what is Haag's theorem?"
I swear, I had this question from the same guy three times
20:49
@Relativisticcucumber pls share
@Relativisticcucumber (I'm just making this up as I go along) My thinking is that what's available is the entire surface of the fuel. But only 20% of that come in contact with oxygen. So supplying 100% oxygen should speed up the reaction by a factor of 5 even without any other factors
@Relativisticcucumber lol
@TobiasFünke you can't go back after that
I am lost anyway
@Relativisticcucumber no
20:52
@TobiasFünke oh its a meme lol. so right now im doing the like "process" to see if i can join the research group i want. stage 2 is that i read this paper and then discuss it w the potential advisor. i do find it interesting but i am struggling to grasp the details of the setup lol so ive been staring at it for some time DOI: 10.1126/science.1116955
hi besties
@ACuriousMind hm so maybe im overestimating the power of equilibration?
oha, good luck with that!
hi Allie
@Relativisticcucumber i think you need to do an experiment
im going to ask a question similar to what i asked before
20:54
me testing these theories
@Relativisticcucumber perhaps? but as I said I just made up that explanation, I don't actually know anything here :P
@SillyGoose oy!
So, LITERALLY the next exercise had me show exactly what you said @ACuriousMind
@Relativisticcucumber The limiting reagent becomes relevant later when the reaction is going to completion. But in an ongoing fire, the reaction rate is given by both concentrations, fuel as well as oxygen.
$v_0=k[\mathrm{A}]^x[\mathrm{B}]^y$
20:56
and it also said that in the case of degenerate eigenvalues for B, you can always construct a linear combination of B's eigenfunctions that WILL be an eigenfunction of A
@Loong im guessing k is some constant, $v_0$ is the reaction rate, and $A$ and $B$ are fuel and oxygen, am i right? so what determines $x$ and $y$?
Now im wondering, what if both operators are degenerate? Say A and B commute and have eigenvalue $\epsilon$ with a multiplicity of 2. In this case instead of a linear combination, is it more like a change of basis to get from A's eigenfunctions to B's?
@Loong its been a loong time since gen chem sorry
@Relativisticcucumber the reaction mechanism determines x and y.
@Allie The statement is still true - you (hopefully) didn't use non-degeneracy of A to prove the claim about a linear combination of eigenvectors of B being an eigenvector of A
20:59
For a real fire, it's actually complicated since there are so many reactions involved.
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