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00:00
Have you clicked the bookmark that says "start chatjax"
a group homeomorphism only preserves the group operation
I have the extension enabled
What's a group operation w.r.t a vector space though
What does that mean
where's the bookmark that says start...
@Phase Can we take a step back here? What exactly was the original question?
a group and a vector space are different things...
00:01
@enumaris I never mentioned a group originally so why are you?
a group is any collection of elements that have a group operation defined such that the group operation obeys certain rules
Yeah I get that
wait, wasn't the question regarding group homeomorphisms
No, homomorphisms
oh
lol
ok o.O
00:01
@Phase Well, homomorphisms of what?
@Phase addition!
a vector space? idk :(
@0celo7 Right, ok
So.. a Homomorphism is just a mapping from a space of one type to another of the same? Vector space to a vector space etc?
usually yeah, and it preserves the operations in that space in some way
a linear map is just a special group homomorphism (ACM will kill me for doing this)
So all maps from a vector space to another are homomorphisms, and then all the properties of the map are tacked onto that?
00:04
I click the little extension button but I don't see a "start" button...
but I'm trying to get you to do an abstract nonsense proof of this
use the universal property of the quotient for this
$f$
dang it
You're basically talking to a fuckin rock
:/
not all mappings are homomorphisms
all homomorphisms are mappings
Between the same types of spaces? @enumaris
00:06
only mappings which preserve the algebraic structure are homomorphisms
I was under the impression that a vector space has to have addition defined to be a vector space
A vector space's definition is like 8 attributes long -.-
but yes, a method to add vectors is one of the definitions
a vector space is just a module over a field
@ACuriousMind can u help him, I can't help
So there are mappings from a vector space to another vector space that aren't Homomorphisms @enumaris ? that seems counter to the definition
then u'll just get people asking "what's a module?
"what's a field?"
00:07
I'm confused what exactly we're trying to explain here
a module is just a vector space but over a ring instead of a field :P
and round the ring we go lol
Yes, you can map a vector space to another vector space in such a way that the algebraic structure is destroyed
such a mapping is not a homomorphism
idgi
how can the structure be destroyed but preserved
meh
oh, the new space has the properties of a vector space, but the mapping of individual vectors from one space to another might make it like A+B=C but A_new+B_new != C_new
@Phase some people are saying stupid things
can you please tell @ACuriousMind and me what you want
00:10
is that "some people" referring to me :(
idk my question was just about "how can I use the principle of extending a basis to prove rank nullity"
@enumaris and me
@Phase there's several possible proofs
@Phase can you just read the proof on Wiki and ask exactly what the problem is?
is there some specific scheme that you're trying to follow?
00:11
@EmilioPisanty Typesetting on a scale from 1 to 10?
@0celo7 depends on the marking scheme
eyes...bleeding...
if it was typeset by a five-year-old in the seventies, then I guess it gets a three out of ten
please don't ever post such an atrocity again
Oh ok
I was getting confused because in my head it seemed trivial / tautological, saying that "the kernel basis can be extended to the domain spaces, and then by definition the kernel basis vectors vanish leaving just m many non vanishing"
but I only got up to "checking for redundancy" or whatever
So maybe this will be the thign
00:14
@Phase it really is close to that simple
@EmilioPisanty eh, a 40 year old in '79?
Yeah it really is
@0celo7 4/10
@EmilioPisanty this might be the one problem where I got it near instantly and overcomplicated it because I thought it must be weirder
It doesn't cover @0celo7 's proof though as far as I can tell, can you write it out? You dont need to explain it further after, I'll just give it a go at trying to understand it
@Phase the thing is, the argument you just laid out gives you $n-m$ candidate basis vectors for the image space (the other $m$ vectors having vanished)
but it doesn't prove that they're actually linearly independent
they are, but you need to prove it
00:16
But if extending gives the basis of V, then V is linearly independent, and regardless of how many basis vectors you discard you're still gonna have linear independence
doesn't that mean that they are
since a basis is linearly independent
@Phase the $u_1,\ldots, u_n$ are a basis in $V$
(following the WIkipedia notation)
but that doesn't immediately imply that the $T(u_1), \ldots, T(u_n)$ are linearly independent in $W$
no, wait, my notations are off
@Phase You define a function $\tilde f:G/\ker f \to f(G)$ in the natural way. Now this is a homomorphism by the universal property, and it's surjective. It clearly doesn't have a kernel. So it's an isomorphism.
And that's rank-nullity.
Basically trivial.
@0celo7 please don't use moduli spaces, it'll just confuse him more.
@EmilioPisanty I don't see what a moduli space has to do with any of this.
@EmilioPisanty If they aren't linearly independent under T, then say a basis pair existed such that under the transformation, they're no longer independent, you could add them to get zero and by definition the point that is mapped to that would lie in the Kernel, which it cant as it's already stated to be in the image space
00:19
@0celo7 $G/\ker f$ is a modulus space
or whatever you wanna call it
don't use it
A quotient space?
yeah, whatever
don't use them
No thanks
Everyone should know how to use them
@0celo7 yes, but you have to work up to them
I recall @Phase discussing them at length with other users.
00:20
@0celo7 Do you remember how much you used to hate me pulling out the universal properties?
in this specific conversation, they'd do more harm than good, unless @Phase can confirm that they're OK with the concept
but in any case, Phase specifically requested a basis-extension proof
I'm.. Meh with them, I've had a brief conversation with balarka where he explained to me the notion of a quotient space and defining them with the equivalence relations, but I'm always up for learning new shit
No, he also requested me to explain my proof.
@EmilioPisanty is my argument above correct?
@Phase close to
00:22
Fuuuuuuuuuuck
@ACuriousMind No?
use the proper definition of linear independence
i.e. set an arbitrary linear combination to zero and show that the coefficients need to vanish
if they didn't it would lie in the kernel though, whats wrong with that approach?
@Phase it's a muddled argument so it's hard to be definitive
Lemme fix some notation: take a basis $u_1,\ldots, u_m\in V$ for the kernel of $T:V\to W$, and you extend it to a basis $u_1,\ldots, u_m,w_1,\ldots, w_n$ for $V$.
ok ill try writing it formally
00:24
You want to show that $T(w_1),\ldots, T(w_n)$ are a basis of $T(V)$
@ACuriousMind You don't even need a universal property, just show directly that it's one.
But I think it's the unique map from the quotient, so that's why I used the universal dude.
To show that they're linearly independent, you take an arbitrary linear combination $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i T(w_i)$ and you set it to zero
$\sum_{i=1}^n a_i T(w_i)=0$
therefore $T(\sum_{i=1}^n a_i w_i)=0$
therefore $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i w_i$ is in the kernel of $T$
therefore the coefficients need to vanish, because the $w_i$ are complementary to $\ker(T)$
so you've proved that $a_i=0$
and that's the definition of linear independence
$T(u_1,...,u_m,w_1,...,w_n) = T(w_1,...,w_n)$ by definition of the bases u_1 to u_m lying in the Kernel, but now if you were to have it so that a point q $\in$ domain, expanded as a sum of at least two nonzero scalars and basis vectors, were to add to zero / be linearly dependent then you'd have $T(w_q,...w_{qn})$ = 0 for nonzero coefficients, so it necessarily must lie in the Kernel
I dont get why it doesnt work :(
@Phase what does $ T(w_1,...,w_n)$ mean?
That any vector under T is just equivalent to the components along the basis vectors not in the Kernel
Sticking to wiki notation
00:29
@Phase where does Wikipedia have $T$ acting on more than one vector at a time?
it's a terrible practice
wot
It's components in my case
@Phase link?
the components correspond to the bases of the same name
shit idea i know
@Phase the $w_i$ are not components, they're vectors
00:30
but I cant edit now
Ik ik
but its too late to edit
:(
whatever you're writing, if I was marking it, it would come back bleeding red ink, I should think
I'll give it one more go
they have T acting on a sum of stuff.
Let $U_i$ and $W_i$ be bases, with respective values $u_i$ and $w_i$ for components. the set of vectors $U_i$ span the kernel, and $W_i$ is obtained by extending the basis. By definition of the kernel, $T(u_1,....,u_n,w_1,....,w_m)$ reduces to $T(w_1,....,w_m)$, and if this basis is linearly independent then the only time $T(w_1,....,w_m) = 0$ is when all the values $w_i$ are equal to zero. If this wasn't the case, then a non-zero point in the domain space spanned by U and W, would be mapped..
to zero and therefore lie in the Kernel, which by previous argument and definition it doesn't
@Phase $T(w_1,...,w_n)$ is meaningless until and unless you define it
it's not standard notation
(you shouldn't define it, but that's another matter)
00:35
I guess because I'm not sure how to use the notation to communicate properly, I figured losing generality and talking about vectors would suffice
I feel like even when I have the right answer I can't communicate it
It's incredibly frustrating
Fuck it my entire argument boils down to the fact that if a vector in $V$ lies within the span of $W$, then by definition it's not in the kernel, so no linear combination of nonzero basis vectors in the transformed basis $T(W)$ could add to zero
Does that work
please tell me it works
@Phase almost
there is a vector in the span of the $w_i$ that is in the kernel of $T$
the zero vector
oh
latex is finally working
hurray
edited to add nonzero
I kept that in last time but I forgot it in the recent one
:(
edited again because points could include p and -p
@Phase the general idea is OK
but the implementation needs a ton of work
you need to be talking a whole lot more about linear combinations
The maths lecturer I speak to tells me my notation is shit too
00:41
@Phase so fix it
Idk how, it's hard to rewire what's natural
@Phase yes, it is
you still need to do it
true
Maybe I should keep reading Artin and Abbott and just see if it gets better the further I get through
Anyway, thanks for the chat and help, just chatting in general @0celo7 @ACuriousMind @EmilioPisanty I'm gonna head to bed, have a good night
01:30
Hello all! A quick sanity check. In the classical two body problem. With regards the system energy $ E = v^2/2 + U(x)$, where $U(x)$ is the potential energy of the system. In the limit $U(x) \rightarrow 0$, $v^2 \rightarrow 2E$??
@Phase Abbot is pretty good
@BernardoMeurer drinking bourbon in your honor
@0celo7 Facetime me dawg
I'm drinking beer in bed
I'm in the kitchen
how did you get beer
I bribed a polish homeless dude
That's also how I get cigarettes
01:32
...you smoke now?
Well, I couldn't drink so I found an alternative
But now that I can drink I don't smoke
I just need one or the other
do math as an alternative
no time for that BS
Math just makes me sad because I suck at it, lol
@BernardoMeurer you need to get obsessed with something that isn't a drug
01:37
K
I'm joking
it would be better
But idk, I'm lazy
@0celo7 ::lights cig, opens beer:: No, he doesn't.
@ACuriousMind Oh god, you smoke?
@ACuriousMind I want to sit down in a porch and smoke a cigar while having a beer with you
While we watch out kids wrestle
@0celo7 There are very few vices in this world I don't indulge in :P
01:45
@ACuriousMind This is why I like you
Smoking is objectively bad.
So is drinking
Nah
But morning coffee with a cigarette is damn good
A glass of red wine a day is good
@BernardoMeurer do you have a mouse?
01:52
@0celo7 A shitty one
@BernardoMeurer I don't have any mouse with me, nvm
I could try to get Bob's magic mouse to work
Magic mouse is cancer
It's so bad
he likes his
he's such an apple fanboy
@ACuriousMind Oh, I'm going to get a tablet soon-ish
a new one with a pen
@ACuriousMind Any idea what condition you need for convergence to define a topology?
01:57
@0celo7 Convergence in what sense? That of filters?
@ACuriousMind Sequences.
Filters? What are you, a logician?
inb4 nets are filters
@0celo7 So, what data is given?
@ACuriousMind I have the cone of metrics $\mathscr M$ (well, a subcone of properly decaying ones) and I want to give it a topology using weighted Sobolev spaces such that the ADM mass becomes continuous.
Er, I guess that's just a metric topology
nvm
If you know for every sequence whether it converges and if so, to what, then I think you can define a topology by saying that a set is open if it contains infinitely many elements of every sequence converging to a point in it
@ACuriousMind That's actually not always true, i.e. there can be multiple topologies with that property.
02:02
@0celo7 There can be multiple topologies inducing the same convergences, but saying a set is open iff it has that property should define a unique topology, no?
I actually just want a metric topology given by the sum of some tensor norms
@ACuriousMind Well no, because all of those topologies have the space open sets in the sense of convergence.
But there might be more actually open sets.
Oh, I see what you're saying.
Yeah, but my definition selects the coarsest of these topologies, right?
Yeah, hmm.
Yeah I was thinking about the converse problem
"Can one characterize a topology by its convergent sequences?"
getting all mathy up in here
I admit my claim to being a physicist doesn't look especially strong after this conversation ;)
02:10
It's weaker than $\mathscr D'(\Omega)$
and if you get the (bad) joke you're not a physicist either
@ACuriousMind We should play CIV V one day
@ACuriousMind did you get it :^)
@0celo7 Yes :|
lol
There should probably be a threshold of amount of pure math you're allowed to do as a physicist. If you go over the threshold, you lose ur physicist creds...
02:12
@enumaris Don't worry about it, physicists can't do maths
I think once you know that $\mathscr D'(\Omega)$ has the weak* topology your claim to physics is on shaky ground.
@BernardoMeurer Sure, why not
@ACuriousMind Only if you play as brazil and I as germany
to strengthen our diplomatic relations
Heh, deal
ouch
02:13
@BernardoMeurer why have you never asked me
@0celo7 You play Civ V?
I always knew Bajoran played
no, but I could get it
there's a Steam sale
Then get it
We can play together
There's a fun setup which is three humans in a team, against everyone else being a bot in another team with domination victory only
It's intense
Get the expansion packs!
Maybe then @ACuriousMind will finally teach me German
I'm sorry I tend to have full weekends :P
02:17
@ACuriousMind Really? Busy with what?
@BernardoMeurer RPG sessions, boardgaming sessions and drinking/parties, mostly
@ACuriousMind Tsc, and you don't even invite me!
If I invited you and you didn't show up I'd be terribly hurt. You willing to pay to fly to Germany? :P
@ACuriousMind You have a fancy job now, fly me over Christmas :D
Ain't starting till January
02:21
Balls
2018
I'll bitch about it
and you're mean too! You never even added me on the bookface
Only people I've met in RL there, toldya :P
@ACuriousMind ::complains::
I'm having a bit of trouble asking a question at the moment.
@user400188 Ask it specifically and as unclearly as possible to @ACuriousMind
He will do his best to help you in length
The derivation (workings) take up more than a page, so I am finding it hard to include the context of the question. Also, the question is more like 3 questions. As I am having trouble with the interpretation, the math, and the formulation.
02:27
what is the subject
Its a derivation from an introductory chapter to QFT
Its not real QFT yet however. And nothing I havent already covered before
you'd better ask
before you get rekt
I can hear ACM fuming
Hmm, Ill give it a go
@user400188 Remember, write as abstrusely as possible
And don't use chatjax
Guys...
02:29
Ask @ACuriousMind specifically
@ACuriousMind Best way to get revenge
ACM will make you feel stupid
be warned
don't confuse hapless visitors, please :P
Well, I guess Ill ask it in bits, since its too long for one question:
First bit:
$\int_{-1}^{1}d \cos(\theta)$. How do I interpret this integral? I assumed originally that $d cos(\theta)= d/d\theta cos(\theta) \d \theta$. So the integral is actually zero.

The text seems to think that it is equal to 2.
it's $\cos(1)-\cos(-1)$
really? 2?
since cos is symmetric that should be zero
02:33
Welp, I can't do it either
Yeah, I concur that integral is zero
Ill show the full equation: it might help
Isn't that the usual spherical coordinates thingie tho?
I broke my fonts
(Look on top)
02:34
@BernardoMeurer It appears the aliens are trying to contact you
Yes its from spherical coordinates
$\begin{align}\label{JeansCubeIntegratedExpectationEnergy}
E(\omega)&=\big{<}\int_{}^{\omega}E_nd^3\vec{n}\big{>}\\
&=\int_{}^{\omega}<E_n>d^3\vec{n}\\
&=\int_{}^{\omega}d^3\vec{n}<E_n>\\
&=\int_{-1}^{1}d \cos(\theta)\int_{0}^{2\pi}d\phi\int_{0}^{\omega}d|\vec{n}||\vec{n}|^2<E_n>
\end{align}$
@ACuriousMind Yeah, I've deciphered that they are asking me if I want them to force you to befriend me
I replied yes
so get rekd
Wait, the boundaries there are weird
yeah exactly
Its what my friend called a physicists equation. A bit wishy-washy skipping in the details.
02:36
the sine should be integrated from $0$ to $2\pi$, causing a...something for the cosine
uh
I think $\int_{-1}^1 \mathrm{d}\cos(\theta)$ means integrating from where $\cos$ is $-1$ to where $\cos$ is $1$, which is then of course $1 -(-1) = 2$, but that's a really weird way to write it
@ACuriousMind It's the standard thing though ;_;
it's weirdo notation, though
@user400188 more like physicist BS.
@ACuriousMind how would you write it?
or I can't think straight at 3:30 am, either of those :P
02:37
@ACuriousMind I saw it that way too. @0celo7 I've never heard of it been standard.
@user400188 see my profile for some books to read if you want to abandon physics
@ACuriousMind Ah
it's perfectly consistent notation
we're just stupid
let $\cos\theta=\varkappa$
no
@user400188 Become a type theorist
It's $\int_0^{\pi}\sin(\theta) \mathrm{d}\theta$, I think?
yeah I was right
$\int_{-1}^1 d\varkappa = 1-(-1)=2$
holy shit we can't integrate
@ACuriousMind from 0 to 2pi
No, from 0 to $2\pi$ would be 0
02:39
lmao
lol
Chub and Tuck is not proud
@ACuriousMind You're right, but I'm also right
Yes
Still not a good use of notation, imo
$$\int_{-1}^1 d\cos\theta=\int_{-1}^1 d\varkappa =1-(-1)=2.$$
@ACuriousMind it's completely standard
@ACuriousMind I think that should be between $-\pi$ and $\pi$.
02:43
@user400188 No, integrating over a full period of $2\pi$ is always zero
I agree with that
We have $\int^1_{-1}\mathrm{d}\cos(\theta) = \int^{\arccos(1)}_{\arccos(-1)} -\sin(\theta)\mathrm{d}\theta = -\int^0_{\pi}\sin(\theta)\mathrm{d}\theta = \int^\pi_0\sin(\theta)\mathrm{d}\theta$.
Oh your right. I was thinking of cos for some reason (and between $\pm\pi/2$).
@ACuriousMind ah thats perfectly clear now
why have we devolved into trying to integrate cosines...
erm sines I mean
lack of intelligence
02:53
@user400188 Alrighty then, what's next?
oh right, 3 parts
@enumaris You'd rather have some more topology? :P
are those my only choices lol
Hmm.
Can't we discuss some physics, like, why is loop quantum gravity so much better than string theory?
02:54
@enumaris Oh, we can discuss barriers in elliptic PDE
I'm trying to find a modern argument for a Schoen and Yau barrier argument from 1979
(Any Sheldon's in the house?)
I won't discuss that because it's not true :)
I need to solve a PDE with specified asymptotics and it's a complete pain in the ass
I think I need to solve Dirichlet problems on balls and send the radius to $\infty$, then get a $C^2$ convergent subsequence using Schauder and Arzela-Ascoli
but their calculations take like 5 pages and that's ridiculous in 2017
@BernardoMeurer 4 new Lil Uzi tracks!
02:57
Ill give the next two parts at once
This is actauly the draft of the question I was going to ask on the main site. I hope your all ok with if its a bit anbiguous at the moment:
also a Jaden Smith record
it's #4 on iTunes; smh
The following is a derivation from the textbook "Quantum Field Theory and the Standard Model" by Matthew D. Schwartz.

The context of the derivation is that a few photons are trapped inside a Jeans Cube. The expectation value of finding a standing wave with particular energy $E_n=\frac{2\pi}{L}\hbar|\vec{n}|$, confined to a cavity with length $L$, is given by $<E_n>$.

$\begin{align}
<E_n>&=\frac{\hbar\omega_n}{e^{-\hbar\omega_n\beta}-1}
\end{align}$

I am comfortable with $<E_n>$'s derivation, what I have trouble with comes next:
you broke chat
yeah I noticed. Not sure why becuase it rendered on the "ask a question" page.
maybe its the label?

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