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12:00
I found a pic
the arrangement is so complicated
but also really cool at the same time
Anonymous
@Yashas fair enough :-)
I saw the f orbitals for the first time :O
Anonymous
Really ?
Anonymous
I saw it on many websites before
I saw the 3D figure for the first time; we had been taught f orbitals to have the shape of double d orbitals
Anonymous
12:04
Ah, roughly that's correct
Anonymous
@Yashas How was eco ?
I got a stats question wrong -_-
Anonymous
@Yashas =P
Laspeyres index calculation
6 marks :|
such a simple question
Anonymous
You'll get 94. Chill
12:10
I am going to write again in June .-.
Anonymous
@Yashas Noooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo
Anonymous
Not again
Anonymous
You've nothing better to do in life? =D
I am stuck at 98 with math
I keep doing some mistake every time
the girls somehow score 100 -,-
Anonymous
Bribe the examiner.
Anonymous
12:12
@Yashas Jealous? =D
Not possible. I don't write my name or id in my answer sheet; I write those details in a special sheet.
Only the answer sheets are given to the examiner.
Whoever grades it won't know whose paper they are evaluating.
12:28
in JEE Preparation, 5 mins ago, by Yashas
Minimum possible atomic number of the atom which can have a 4d orbital is ______
1?
rob
rob
@Yashas Bad question. "Have an orbital" is different from "have that orbital filled when the atom is in the ground state". The second version requires you to know something interesting about how the periodic table is shaped. The first version is an annoying trick question, which you've answered correctly.
sound about right
@Slereah so what's up?
I am thinking about lunch
Probably a steak
@BalarkaSen So what exactly is $\pi^*E$? I'm having a hard time picturing a pullback bundle over $T'X$.
@Slereah I thought you were poor
Well
My parents are alright
I don't have to eat potatoes every day
Does the Lorentz transformation change the metric in GR?
12:42
what Lorentz transformation?
Obviously it's diffeomorphic to, but does the metric change at all
Well, the usual one?
I don't know of a Lorentz transformation in GR
A linear coordinate transformation
So you mean a local transformation?
yes
Hm
12:44
Then you're going to apply the pushforward metric to the result
But it's not global so I don't know what would change
i'm guessing it probably does change the metric, unless boosts are a Killing vector
Well just, you know
The components
@Slereah you can always go to local inertial frames in GR (?)
that's just normal coordinates
Local inertial frames are very local in GR
Like one point
yeah, so I don't know what your question is
you can't apply a Lorentz transformation outside of a point
and on that point it's just a lorentz transformation
which leaves -+++ metrics invariant
Well just
Take the chart
Make some new coordinates that are a boost of the old ones
$x = \gamma(x - t)$, that kind of stuff
Do the components of the metric change
12:47
Obviously they will change
that's not an interesting question
I do realize that i could find out by actually working it out but I am fairly lazy
components always change under coordinate transformations
Yeah I'm guessing so
unless it's a killing vector
you mean you boost along one?
yes
Hence why it doesn't for Minkowski space
12:48
that doesn't really work because you need your Lorentz transformation to be constant
odds are the Killing vector isn't constant
what
Nevermind
i'm a bit tired
do you not know what I'm saying or disagree?
Been up since yesterday
I'm not quite sure we're talking about the same thing
I was slightly confused because boosts leave the metric invariant in SR
But that's just because boosts are one of the Killing vector of Minkowski space
Since it is maximally symmetric
was what I'm saying
12:51
Yes, I buy that.
Lorentz transformations are isometries of the Minkowski metric.
The boost is just a flow along the integral curves of the Killing field.
and since the Alcubierre trick for CTCs involves boosting the metric I was a bit confused
@JohnRennie My book has shipped
which
Is it Plato's republic
"Invariance Theory, Heat Equation, and Index Theory."
I hope there's a good modern paper on Feynman's absorber theory
12:55
what's thta?
@JohnRennie Hello
Time symmetric theory
Everything is time symmetric
So when a particle radiates, it radiates both in the past and future lightcone
it requires some weird boundary condition to sort of work
Would you believe that the Spinor for a neutron precessing in a magnetic field is $$\begin{pmatrix} \cos(\theta/2)\\ \sin(\theta/2)e^{i\omega t}\end{pmatrix}?$$
That looks believable
$\theta$ being the fixed azimuthal coordinate
I mean if it was $$e^{e^{e^{\theta}}}$$
I would be skeptical
12:58
that probably solves a very neat ODE
I think there's a double exponential in an integral for the Bessel function
in JEE Preparation, 1 min ago, by Yashas
How many electrons in a chromium atom at ground state have $n+l+m = 4$ and clockwise spin?
wth
Or at least $e^{\cos(\theta)}$
2, 3 and 4 are all correct?
13:00
it's a fairly steep function
during the brief period where I worked on the topic of my PhD thesis I actually did work on some Pauli equation with magnetic fields
Because in some conditions, it has a supersymmetric partner
hahaha
beautiful
13:44
Lol, hi @Koolman
14:15
@SimplyBeautifulArt Hii
Where is @Kenshin ?????
user228700
14:45
@Koolman Dude, he's probably on vacation.
oh god
when will he return @Kaumudi.H
user228700
I have no idea...
He is probably busy compiling a Physics SE Q&A book.
His site is not working
lol
wth
session_start() is undefined
he accidently disabled sessions I think
14:54
yes
@Kaumudi.H are you sure
she said "probably"
user228700
Yes, I am.
user228700
Mar 27 at 8:35, by Kenshin
vacation
user228700
Eh, I'm finding it difficult to find the exact message in which he told that he's going to Japan in April.
user228700
I said "probably* because I dunno when he's going (/has gone) and when when he's coming back.
okay
@0celouvsky What did it cost you in the end?
15:44
@JohnRennie that's between me and the devil
@0celouvsky Your soul?
You got a good deal. I'd be lucky to get more than a few copies of New Scientist for mine :-)
user228700
@JohnR: How's the eating? (:-P)
user228700
Ah, OK, you're gone...
@JohnRennie Pretty sure he told us already he'S sold that one thrice over
The spirit is willing but the flesh is weak
15:54
Or was that @BernardoMeurer
Ah, no, I think Bernardo just sold it for a few gummi bears
user228700
@JohnRennie I keep having to Google things you say .__.
Ah, here, no soul for @0celouvsky:
Apr 10 at 1:33, by 0celouvsky
Uh, I lost that when I tried understanding Frechet spaces.
user228700
Do old people speak strictly in proverbs?
Frechet spaces are the worst
Mar 9 at 18:56, by Bernardo Meurer
I sold my soul for a gummy bear in 6th grade
15:55
I'm lucky my soul is the only thing I lost
@ACuriousMind Do you know what a Frechet space is?
@Kaumudi.H I wouldn't know, not being old :-)
@0celouvsky not really, no
@ACuriousMind Let $X$ be a manifold. Consider the bundle $\pi:T'X\to X$, where $T'X=T^*X\setminus \zeta$, where $\zeta$ is the zero section of that bundle. Now consider $p:E\to X$ a vector bundle. I understand what $\pi^*E$ is, it's a bundle over $T'X$. But what the hell is it?
This is unrelated to Frechet spaces.
@Kaumudi.H I guess Biblical references are rather better known in the UK than ina predominantly Hindu society :-)
@0celouvsky I'd guess it's $E$ with its zero section removed
15:58
@ACuriousMind But it's pulled back over $T'X$
It's not a bundle on $X$
user228700
@JohnRennie Hmm, yes, I suppose...
@ACuriousMind it's like a pullback but where $f$ is the projection of a bundle on $X$
Hm, then I don't know, looks like a rather odd construction to me :P
@ACuriousMind Blame analysts who are trying to manifold :P
15:59
English, British English at least, is absolutely littered with Biblical references.
user228700
Oh but that hasn't been my experience watching British vloggers.
If you don't quote the Bible daily what's the point
@0celouvsky what?
user228700
Oh no.
@Fawad you've got to tell some people what Jesus wants at least once a day
@ACuriousMind It's got to do with this "symbol map" of an elliptic PDE on a manifold
PDE on manifolds are terrible
Who thought any of this was a good idea
@ACuriousMind I guess it's not clear to me what the fibers of a pullback bundle are, exactly
I have a map $p(x,\xi):E_x\to F_x$, where $E,F$ are bundles over $X$, and where $(x,\xi)\in T'X$
So why does that give a map $\pi^*E\to \pi^*F$?
16:12
Let $f(x)$ be a continuous and infinitely differentiable function such that:

1. $f^n(a) = 0$

$$f(x) = \frac{f(a)}{0!} + \frac{f'(a)(x -a)}{1!} + \frac{f''(a)(x-a)^2}{2!} + \dots$$

All the terms in the Taylor series except the first go to zero. Therefore, $f(x) = f(a)$.
What is wrong?!
@Yashas The function doesn't have to equal its Taylor series.
It is a real valued function.
I know that.
What condition did I miss then?
Are you stipulating analyticity?
If it's analytic and all the derivatives vanish, then yeah: it's the constant function.
But take any bump function to see that what you said is not in general true.
16:14
It was for a general real valued function.
Then your equality is wrong.
$f(x)=f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+\cdots$ is in general not true.
aw
If it is not analytic then it can be a straight line locally but not globally.
16:38
@ACuriousMind Ahhhh, I understand why we want pseudodifferential operators. It's so that the operators and their Green's functions are the same types of objects. Gilkey forgot to mention that part.
And other types of pseudo inverses
17:02
@BernardoMeurer Michelle hasn't said what labor I have to perform
If she waits too long the tickets will be too expensive
Hello all
@0celouvsky I'll talk to her
If f'(x) =g(f(x)) and f'(x0)=0. Will the graph of f(x) be constant from x=x0 to x=infinity??
@0celouvsky Because you get a map $(\pi^\ast E)_y \cong E_{\pi(y)} \to F_{\pi(y)} \cong (\pi^\ast F)_y$ on each fiber?
@ACuriousMind Do you have any idea why a two level system Hamiltonian is given by $\hat{H} = \hbar \frac{\omega_0}{2}\hat{\sigma}_z$ and how $\omega_0$ is determined?
17:07
@JohnDoe I don't understand the question, i.e. what you're asking for by "why".
@MadhuchhandaMandal u shud show your loop solution so that people here would comment on it
That there is a possible Hamiltonian for a two-dimensional system, but without more information, it's only once of many. Without more information, it's also not clear why you'd want to determine $\omega_0$ from anything instead of treating it simply as a constant.
@ACuriousMind so...the pullback bundle fibers are the same as the original fibers?
I clearly do not understand pullbacks
@ACuriousMind But what is the motivation for $\hat{H}$ and $\omega_0$? Why is the Hamiltonian defined this way? Not sure why that is a strange question...
17:10
@0celouvsky Yes, the fiber of the pullback over a point is the same as the fiber of the original over the image of that point.
For a two level system of say spin up an spin down that is the Hamiltonian as far as I know. I'm just intersted in the motivation for why it is given that way...
@JohnDoe That's not "the" Hamiltonian. But it is the Hamiltonian for e.g. a spin-1/2 particle in an external magnetic field along the $z$-axis.
I understand that the Hamiltonian invloves the spin operator $\hat{H} = \omega_0 \hat{S}_z$
The $\omega_0$ is them related to the strength of the magnetic field, since the general interaction term between spin and magnetic fields is $\propto\sigma\cdot B$.
@ACuriousMind ok. So it remains to check that the induced bundle map is smooth...I hate this
17:15
@ACuriousMind What if the two level spin state was not in the presence of an external electric or magnetic field. What would the Hamiltonian be then?
And independent of choices
f(x+dx)=f(x) as f'(x)= 0. So f'(x+dx)=f'(x)=0. Now (assuming h to be tending to 0 ) f(x+dx+h)=f(x+dx). (As f'(x+dx)=0). So f(x+dx+h)=f(x+dx)=f(x). Thus f'(x+dx+h)=0. Now if we again consider x+dx+h as our initial point, the same thing loops. So f(x) from x0 to infinity is constant if f'(x)=g(f(x)) and f(x0)=0. Is there anything wrong in the argument?
(Original question : If f'(x) =g(f(x)) and f'(x0)=0. Will f(x) be constant from x=x0 to x=infinity??)
Hello everyone. Can someone explain to me, if there any purely mathematical restrictions that force us to use a real-values as a values of observable quantities? If there is no such restrictions why don't we use some arbitrary abstact fields, or even weaker structure like rings/group to represent our physical quantities?
@JohnDoe That's not a well-defined question. If there are no fields the Hamiltonian of something that has only spin degrees of freedom would be just 0, but of course every physical system interacts with something
US drops biggest 'mother of all bombs' in Afghanistan: Pentagon
The GBU-43/B Massive Ordnance Air Blast (MOAB pronounced /ˈmoÊŠ.æb/, commonly known as the Mother of All Bombs) is a large-yield conventional (non-nuclear) bomb, developed for the United States military by Albert L. Weimorts, Jr. of the Air Force Research Laboratory. At the time of development, it was touted as the most powerful non-nuclear weapon ever designed. The bomb was designed to be delivered by a C-130 Hercules, primarily the MC-130E Combat Talon I or MC-130H Combat Talon II variants. Since then, Russia has tested its "Father of All Bombs", which is claimed to be four times as powerful as...
lol
the wikipedia page updated already to include today's launch
17:29
@SergeyDylda Science works like this:
You see something happen. You wonder "why" it happens. You make up a story. Then you see if your story says the right thing about other new stuff you observe. If the story works, then you keep it. If it doesn't, you fix it.
Real numbers work. Why update the theory?
Also, you're making an assumption that's incorrect.
@DanielSank you didn't explain your measure theory comment.
We don't use real numbers for all observable quantities. The number of apples in my fruit bowl has always been an integer, so I represent the number of apples in my theory with an integer, not a real number.
@0celouvsky So?
I also never explained why I used to call you my "monarch".
I owe you nothing.
Not even basic decency?
@DanielSank My thought is that everything that can be mathematically generallized should be generalized. It is often that generalization brings new branches of solutions that were not accessible before.
@DanielSank We can redefine integers to be a subset of reals.
Anonymous
@SergeyDylda Don't we already do that?
17:40
It's more like the integers embed in the reals and we use the same symbols. The concepts are distinct.
@blue I think of integers as quotient set of NxN/~ for certain equivalence relation.
...why would you think of them like that? Are you a set theorist?
@0celouvsky I just like precise mathematical definitions.
Anonymous
@SergeyDylda I don't know why you are making it way more complicated than necessary...
Ok buddy.
Anonymous
17:43
@SergeyDylda I see.
So you think of real numbers as equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences?
Does the orthonormality of the set of wave functions for the particle in a box also apply when you are using an operator?
i.e.
@0celouvsky As a quotion set of almost-homomorphisms
If $\langle \psi _i | \psi _j \rangle = \delta_{ij}$, then what does that mean for $\langle \psi _i | Q |\psi _j \rangle $ ?
17:45
@blue Well, that's exactly what it means.
@0celouvsky But that is not the point, the question was about restrictions on observables.
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen I never claimed that it doesn't.
It's not "more complicated". Z is the Grothendieck completion of N :)
@SergeyDylda wot
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Ah, you are right. I am not sufficiently acquainted with abstract algebra to make any useful comments. Consider my earlier comment to be a layman's perspective of integers.
17:54
rigorously these are fine definitions - technically Z is defined from N by "adjoining the negatives". what is a valid quibble is that these are a tad tedious in actually anything other than foundations in math
I almost never think about set theory and ZF when doing the stuff I do eg
That was my point.
No one actually thinks of negative numbers as equivalence classes of ordered pairs. That's silly.
it's a good perspective
@ACuriousMind That is exactly the type of answer I was looking for.
@ACuriousMind Would it be a reasonable assumption to consider that a two level system alwalys sits in a magentic field?
@JohnDoe no
Not all to level systems are magnetic spins.
That said, all two level systems can be thought of as spins in a magnetic field because the Hamiltonians have the same form.
Can I ask a Calculus related problem?
18:02
@DanielSank What Hamiltonians have the same form? All two level systems in a magnetic field?
@DanielSank Can I ask a Calculus related problem?
Anonymous
@MadhuchhandaMandal Why not ask on the main mathematics site?
Ok. What's that?
Anonymous
Can you send the link?
Anonymous
18:07
Got it?
Anonymous
<https://math.stackexchange.com/>
Is any chatroom available?
Of Mathematics?
Anonymous

 Mathematics

Associated with Math.SE; for both general discussion & math qu...
Anonymous
Yes
18:08
Thanks
@MadhuchhandaMandal rule #1 of chat: do not ask for permission to ask a question. Just ask the question.
@JohnDoe the Hamiltonians is two level systems are rather restricted, i.e. 2x2 Hermitian matrices.
So it's easy to think of any two level system in terms of your favorite particular case, which could be a spin in a magnetic field.
@DanielSank So the form of the Hamiltonian of a spin up and spin down two level system in a magnetic field is $\hat{H} = \frac{\hbar \omega_0}{2}\sigma_z$, what other two level system has this type of Hamiltonian?
A man becomes famous ... only when famous people wait to meet him
@ACuriousMind My thesis topic just did a 180
@Slereah I am going to be working on static space times with compactly supported perfect fluid tensors
There's a classification out there but people think it can be greatly improved
It involves spinors
18:32
omg guys I went over some topology today. I am happy to report I finally really know why open set and closed set are not opposites. hehehe
yay
I am sooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo excited ,
Congo :)
especially about topology
yeeeeeeeyaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
yeeeeeeeeeeehaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
lol you're too much excited.
Me so happy I can make my own topologies now bitches!
hehehe
math is epic!
It is. But when understood.
18:34
@SwapnilDas hehe
@SwapnilDas yes I am now just discovering how awesome it is
Good luck for further intellectual adventures. Are you a math undergrad?
neh physics
Aha great.
I don't think anyone can understand time travel without non hausedoff or even non T1 topologies
(unless you live in a spacetime cylinder)
Hi! @Secret
18:44
0
Q: Long answers and stackexchange

PinkuIs it true that long answers to questions attract more upvotes than shorter precise answers.I have seen many beautiful short answers but they are neglected and overshadowed by the longer ones

They wanted to attract attention, and they did. But that campaign is obnoxious
The company itself edited Wikipedia to influence Google Home answers for good publicity
@JohnDoe Well, that's the Hamiltonian if you only have one dc field.
But anyway, yes, there are other systems with that Hamiltonian.
@DanielSank What's a dc field?
For example, the superconducting qubits I work with have exactly that Hamiltonian (when we're not also driving them with control signals).
@JohnDoe Constant in time.
dc = direct current. It's an electrical engineering term but it gets used to mean "constant in time".
Electricity where the voltage/current is constant in time is called "direct current". This is the case for batteries.
If the voltage/current is changing in time, then it's called alternating current, or ac.
@DanielSank Oh okay. So is it correct to state that a two level system in the absence of any external influence has zero Hamiltonian?
18:56
@JaimeGallego Luckily, google and wikipedia contained it shortly after
@JohnDoe Ummmm, I wouldn't quite say that.
Zero Hamiltonian means the two states of the system have equal energy.
That's actually fairly uncommon.
@Secret They tweaked the ad's audio to get it working again.
@DanielSank I'm asking because I was told that the Hamiltonian I gave is always the Hamiltonian of a two level system on it's own. But the reasoning could be that the two level system is usually influenced by something and as you say since the Hamiltonians are very restricted we could always consider it as what I wrote. Does that make sense?
Yes, it makes sense.
In particular, $\omega_0$ could be zero.
:-)

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