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user116211
@Secret What does that mean?
user116211
@FenderLesPaul Congrats man! You deserve that :D
Basically, they said when they tried to simulate a black hole in 5D spacetime, they got naked singularities

I have not read the actual article yet to check the details, however
user116211
then I gonna star it.
08:42
@user36790 Thanks!
@Secret what happens in 6D spacetime
No idea, they have not reported it
@Secret i mean with respect to what they did, if we do that with 6D space-time what would happen? maybe hyper relativity?
I am not sure, if naked singularities already formed in 5D, then adding one more spatial dimensions is not going to pack them back into an event horizon again
since 6D you have a lot more room to wiggle around, regardless of how subatomic that dimension is
That's my guess
@Secret hmmm nice guess!
 
2 hours later…
11:09
Don't you know when you have equation exp(some energy over kT)/T0? The T0 puzzles me.
11:47
Help I am stuck in a nightmare of being sleepy at work
user116211
@Slereah what happened?
user116211
Boogeyman??
12:27
The monster of having to wake up every day and go to work
user116211
O.O
13:14
@ChrisWhite That's the whole point.
@ChrisWhite Well yeah dude, but the basis functions tell you what temperature profiles are time independent and we were trying to come up with a physical reason for the exponential in $x$.
@0celo7 : re "it's too close to the particle electron". There is no magic. Electromagnetic-wave bosons do not magically pop out of existence whilst charged-particle fermions magically pop into existence.
@JohnDuffield Oh! I was sure it was magic!
@DanielSank I'm sorry for being rude last night.
0
Q: Which law of physics is applicable for communication?

Sanzeeb Aryal What is the physics behind communication like internet, mobile phones etc. What are the equations?

Too broad?
user116211
@Qmechanic Very broad.
13:30
Let's use string theory to do a radio
user116211
lol
@Slereah it could be like one of those tin can + string contraptions
But with string and branes
@Secret : see this bit? "...singularity is thought to be the point of a black hole where gravity is at its most intense - the centre..." The force of gravity at some location is related to the local gradient in the "coordinate" speed of light. You can plot this using optical clocks at different elevations. However at the event horizon the coordinate speed of light is zero. And it can't go lower than this.
Maybe that is how we can communicate with other universes
We must oscillate our brane so that the cosmic string will communicate it to the next brane
@0celo7 I don't know much, except that some second order ODE can be rearranged into stum lioville form which then allow the solution to be expressed as a series of eigenfunctions where its coefficients can be computed by the weighted inner product of the eigenfunctions
13:38
@Secret Oh, I figured out my problem.
I had to do a strange manipulation to get the wife functions I needed.
The wife function?
Is that how u get a wife
that's good
I had to invoke that regular SL problems have a minimal eigenvalue.
*eigenfunctions
yup that's one of the results of stum liuville theory
I am not sure how that works in PDEs though, because the heat equation is a system of PDE
When you separate variables one of the ODEs you get is SL.
13:41
ok that makes sense
@DanielSank : sadly you aren't alone. A lot of people believe in garbage like this. As if a 511keV photon magically morphs into a 511keV electron and a 511kev positron spontaneously, like worms from mud.
I don't think I've ever eaten a worm.
Well you know what you have to do now
0
Q: Where does the $i$ come from in the Schrödinger equation?

EelkeSpaakI am currently trying to follow Leonard Susskind's "Theoretical Minimum" lecture series on quantum mechanics. (I know a bit of linear algebra and calculus, so far it seems definitely enough to follow this course, though I have no university physics education.) In general, I find these lectures f...

someone is going to put together that 3 weeks ago stuff in this chat room in order to answer this question, I think
13:57
Maybe PSE should have a "GDP" tag.
None-of-that-useless-bullshit tag
Maybe "useless bullshit" should be a tag.
I can ask all my category theory questions with it
And GR, of course.
Holy crap I need that book.
which book
14:02
Beem et al
BBE from now on.
I think those are the initials.
 
1 hour later…
15:07
@0celo7 you can believe a part of those pages if you have not time to check everything ;-þ
@yuggib Time/life energy
15:19
sup
Oh my god there's an old ass dude in my algebra class
He keeps trying to call out the prof and just embarrasses himself and wastes class time
@FenderLesPaul what
15:41
<3 you
Sigh...I'm not keeping this up for a week, the chatroom is mainly people talking to themselves when one can't see 0celo7's posts.
@ACuriousMind If I'm that terrible, you can leave...
@0celo7 The point is that you're not that terrible that I'd make this chat essentially non-sensical to me just to teach you a lesson.
Oh, so I am terrible :/
@ACuriousMind Just talk to me
Ignore 0celo7 :D
15:52
He already did.
@0celo7 you still have mee
@Danu I can piss him off again if you want
@FenderLesPaul it's not the same
LAst night, I dreamt about this. I probably have spent too much time on surreals
^draw it in TeX
15:56
The man in the dream said he found a novel and efficient way to find the root of any polynomial using this kind of thing. But as I look at his workings, I was thinking "wait, that's factorisation, how could that possibly have anything to do with the roots of an (irreducible) polynomial?"

@Danu I wonder if tex has \fractals?
TeX has everything.
48
Q: How to create a Sierpinski triangle in LaTeX?

N3buchadnezzarI have been trying to recreate the following image in LaTeX and for me personally it has to be done with pdflatex. Although answers using pst-fractals From Jake I got a good start which led to the following code \documentclass{standalone} \usepackage{tikz} \def\level{5} \usetikzlibrary{linden...

Better link^
see^
:)
There are other ways to teach him a lesson @ACuriousMind :P
Now he hates me :(
That's cruel and unreasonable punishment, not a lesson
He has his reasons.
I've witnessed this whole drama unfold and remained silent for my own reasons.
16:07
What drama?
@skullpetrol Huh?
Read the paper, maybe? — ACuriousMind 4 mins ago
@ACuriousMind A little harsh...
@0celo7 Someone who links the original paper and then asks about mathematical details deserves a little harshness :P
@ACuriousMind How do you feel about prime factorization
:)
@0celo7 no one cares
16:19
@0celo7 I don't care about it.
@FenderLesPaul you're on the couch tonight
@0celo7 no
I refuse
not this time
I shall not be a victim of abuse any longer!
Cyber bullying?
domestic abuse
@FenderLesPaul Getting relegated to the couch is not abuse
16:21
@0celo7 it is a product of the patriarchy
I love the patriarchy
Typical patriot.
What?
Holy shit Harper Lee died
I didn't like To Kill a Mockingbird, tbh.
16:24
Of course you didn't.
@FenderLesPaul Sigh...what does that mean?
@0celo7 Nothing!
nothing
Just a flippant remark
@FenderLesPaul this is a safe space
you can tell me
@0celo7 I can't it's too traumatic
@FenderLesPaul then text it to me
16:30
Okay
D:
@FenderLesPaul I...
It's too painful
I can only imagine how awkward this conversation must be for the others watching
Imagine if they saw the other half, too
@FenderLesPaul Ok, so what questions are there about Wald (1984)
Prop 8.1.1
That superradiance thing
The exercise about falling into a black hole has the wrong answer
16:37
@0celo7 which black hole exercise?
but yes prop 8.1.1. and superradiance
@FenderLesPaul It's in chap 6
The one about the rope?
There's one about a rope?
And the redshifted tension due to the black hole?
yeah in ch6
Oh, well that's bullshit too
16:38
Nah that one is right
But I was thinking about something else
@FenderLesPaul Chris White couldn't solve it
How do you do it?
I can show you how to solve it
after my class is over
Ok
No, the maximal time you can survive inside of a black hole
It's not $\pi M$
16:39
that one is correct too
Nope.
under the right approximation
I can show you the solution for that as well
Negative.
Ok, but it will be wrong.
16:39
Challenge assepted
You can use a jetpack to survive longer.
Let's talk about it after my class is over
@0celo7 you can't afford a jetpack
Is that your solution?
No that one is wrong
There are hidden assumptions that need to be made explicit
@FenderLesPaul I can't afford your bills either
16:41
I'll show you later just trust me
@FenderLesPaul There exist at least one paper that explicitly constructs a trajectory longer than $\pi M$.
I'll explain to you why that doesn't apply within the context of the problem
just wait
Then Wald's hint is wrong.
Possibly
16:47
progress is slow, will get back to you later
@Secret That's more than I will ever learn
I don't think I can do my senior thesis on mathy GR
Too many spacetime diagrams
It can't be anything that requires diagrams of any kind.
So no diff geo
17:23
Chat is dead.
@ACuriousMind Play any good games lately
Did you finish TW3?
@JohnDuffield How do you personally think about nonlinear corrections to Maxwell's equations if you don't imagine spontaneous particle pair production?
@0celo7 Long ago
It is taken as axiom how a quantum field transforms under a Lorentz transformation. Without showing how this fact is reflected from the transformation of the underlying Hilbert space. I want to see how tranformation of coordinates implies tranformation of fields in a mathematically consistent manner. While doing so and relating to the above "axioms" that we assumed, I would like to know how they fit in each other. — Sai krishna Deep 4 mins ago
Anyone understanding what OP is asking?
@ACuriousMind ::hides::
@ACuriousMind do you have any advice on how to deal with Hamiltonians that have periodic potentials and a momentum offset?
@DanielSank my physics prof didn't know what the exponential means
@DanielSank What do you mean by "momentum offset"?
17:36
$H = (p - p_0)^2 + V(x)$
@DanielSank Yeah, most people seemed to think that. There's a single leave open vote by @JohnRennie, otherwise everyone in the review queue seems to have skipped that one.
@ACuriousMind I haven't looked at the review queue in months.
@DanielSank Do you have a reason for not transforming to $p' = p - p_0$?
@ACuriousMind Nope. So I should use some kind of $\exp(i p_0 x)$ thingy?
@DanielSank I'd really just redefine $p' := p-p_0$ and treat that as the momentum from then on, and then remember at the very end to resubstitute
17:40
But $p'$ and $x$ don't commute in the usual way. Surely this will lead to confusion.
Suppose this were a harmonic oscillator.
@DanielSank Of course they commute in the usual way - or is your $p_0$ not just a number?
@ACuriousMind Perhaps you're right.
Since eveerything commutes with the identity, $[p_0,x] = 0$, so $[p,x] = [p',x]$, unless $p_0$ is not meant to be just a number implicitly multiplied with the identity
@ACuriousMind I think you're right.
Ok, so if $V(x)$ is periodic, then $p_0$ essentially shifts all the Bloch wave vectors within each band.
Interesting.
Can any of you guys explain Bloch states in a way that's not confusing?
Aren't those one of these things that can be explained in a precise way using topology? :P
17:50
Dunno.
This is one of those things I never really understood.
Let's see if we can work it out.
I never thought about it---it was mentioned in passing in my QM3 course
Suppose $T_n$ translates a state by $n$ lattice units.
Are you talking about the qubit thing as well, or not?
Obviously $[T_n, H]=0$, which means that we can pick our energy eigenstates to be eigenstates of $T_n$.
@Danu Qubit?
No, lol wait
It's this other thing
The theorem of decomposing everything
into some form right
For a periodic potential
So what's your problem with it
17:53
@Danu Oh you were thinking Bloch sphere?
A Bloch wave (also called Bloch state or Bloch function or Bloch wave function), named after Swiss physicist Felix Bloch, is a type of wavefunction for a particle in a periodically-repeating environment, most commonly an electron in a crystal. A wavefunction ψ is a Bloch wave if it has the form: where r is position, ψ is the Bloch wave, u is a periodic function with the same periodicity as the crystal, k is a vector of real numbers called the crystal wave vector, e is Euler's number, and i is the imaginary unit. In other words, if you multiply a plane wave by a periodic function, you get a Bloch...
@DanielSank Yeah, but no, I corrected myself :)
@Danu Yes I'm aware of Wikipedia.
I also know the Bloch states
@DanielSank That was just to make sure we are talking about the same thing :)
@Danu Yes.
(you passive-aggressive ass haha)
17:54
I'm also aware of it, and Google.
Doesn't mean I can use it.
ORLY?
Oh, right
So you agree that this "decomposition" is possible right, @DanielSank
@DanielSank: To make us explain it in a not confusing way, please first state what confuses you ;)
@Danu What decomposition?
17:55
The Bloch form
@Danu Well, I know it's possible, but I'd like to go through everything from the beginning.
@ACuriousMind, I'm confused about what it means for $k$ to live in not the first Brillouin zone.
@Danu Don't start socratic questioning until you know what he actually wants to know :P
LMAO
I'm also confused about what an umklapp process really is physically.
I love this
umklapp? haha
Going full German
17:57
I don't think I have a chance at understanding this unless I go through everything from the start.
@Danu What's funny?
Also god-fucking-damnit chatroom, let me type quicker
@DanielSank I like talking to you both :)
@Danu Don't vent your frustrations at having a biological thought-electrical transducer. If you're displeased go upgrade to the latest cybernetics.
I am slightly inebriated
"slightly"
@DanielSank Lololol
@DanielSank I will slightly slap you if you don't shaddap with your smart remarks :)
17:59
Anyway, we surely can choose energy eigenstates which are also eigenstates of $T_n$.
Yes
Suppose we have such a thing $\Psi$, and suppose $T_n \Psi = C \Psi$.
Also I have to go for dinner
I WILL RETURNNNNNNN (soon-ish)
@DanielSank Oh god I have never found anyone who could explain those things. Most of the people who care about Brillouin zones and crystals seem to have never really heard of a Fourier transform :P
Sorry :\
I think I know this stuff---I had a thorough condensed matter 101 course
18:01
And the "reciprocal lattice vector" lingo is just plain obfuscatory
@ACuriousMind I know. I aim to be the hero this area of physics needs.
@Danu wtf a 101 course that does QM?
I remember asking my solid state physics professor if all this business were similar to aliasing and he looked like I were speaking Greek.
@ACuriousMind That part doesn't bug me. Anyway, let's see if we can sort this all out.
@DanielSank Okay, let's try it ;)
@ACuriousMind That part doesn't bug me. Anyway, let's see if we can sort this all out.
Well, it seems that it should be the case that $T_n^{-1}\Psi = C^* \Psi$, but I'm not sure why I think that.
I'm fishing for a reason to write $C = \exp(i \theta)$.
18:05
@DanielSank The translation operator is unitary, so $T^{-1} = T^{\dagger}$, so $T\psi = C\psi \implies T^{-1}\psi = T^\dagger \psi = C^\ast\phi$.
Is it obvious that it's unitary?
Ah, yes it is obvious.
Ok!
You can see it either by saying it's a symmetry or by saying it's generated by the momentum operator.
Right, so $T_n \Psi = e^{i \theta} \Psi$.
@DanielSank How do you experimentally prepare coherent quantum states from non coherent ones for your quantum experiments?
@Secret We... don't.
The system is put in a cryogenic environment such that $kT \ll \hbar \omega$ where $\omega$ is the lowest energy excitation in the system.
Therefore, the system sits in its quantum ground state.
Ok @ACuriousMind so I think we should define a "non-phase" part of $\Psi$ as $u(x) \equiv e^{-i \theta} \Psi(x)$.
Actually, screw coordinates, $|u\rangle \equiv e^{-i \theta} |\Psi\rangle$.
18:10
He's going full abstract now!!
That seems wrong.
Then $T_n |u\rangle = e^{-i \theta}T_n |\Psi\rangle = |\Psi\rangle$.
@DanielSank Why should we define that? The $\theta$ is the value for the specific translation you chose. You should define it as $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}\theta/L x}\psi(x)$ to remove the phase "uniformly", for $L$ the length by which your $T$ shifted.
wow, chat messages out of order.
Right, let's define $u(x) \equiv e^{-ikx}\Psi(x)$.
There's a coordinate independent way to write that, isn't there?
$|u\rangle = e^{i k \hat{x}}|\Psi\rangle$?
@DanielSank And what's $x$?
@ACuriousMind Position.
18:16
Ah, as an operator
Didn't see the little hat
@ACuriousMind Yes.
@ACuriousMind That's why I usually inline this stuff: $|u\rangle = \exp(i k \hat{x}) |\Psi\rangle$.
Is that right? Did I get the sign right?
Well, let's evaluate the wavefunction: $u(x) = \langle x \vert u\rangle = \langle x\vert \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}kx}\vert\psi\rangle = \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}kx}\langle x\vert \psi\rangle = \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}kx}\psi(x)$
Looks good to me.
Right.
Groovy.
Ok, now let us find out if $|u\rangle$ has any interesting translation properties.
$T_n |u\rangle = T_n(\exp(i k \hat{x}) |\Psi\rangle)$...
Looks like a case for writing $T_n = \exp(\mathrm{i}L_n \hat{p})$ and using Zassenhaus
What's $L_n$?
18:22
The length by which $T_n$ translates
Ok, then we do:
$T_n \exp(ik \hat{x}) T_n^{-1}T_n |\Psi\rangle$.
That does something simple to the $\exp$ part, does it not?
@DanielSank Ah, yes (it's directly below the Zassenhaus formula in the article I linked)
It gives $T_n\exp(\mathrm{i}kx) T_n^{-1} = \exp(\mathrm{i}kx) + [\mathrm{i}L_n p,\exp(\mathrm{i}kx)]$, I think.
Reading...
Hm, wiat, I have to write this out somewhere...
The article says:
$\exp(X) Y \exp(X)^{-1} = \exp([X,Y])$, I think.
But my notes say:
If $[a, b] = \eta$ where $\eta$ is a number, then $e^{ia}be^{-ia} = b + i \eta$.
18:36
@DanielSank What about: $T_n \exp(\mathrm{i}kx) T_n^\dagger$ is the transformation of the operator in the middle under the shift $x\mapsto x+L_n$, so the result is $\exp(\mathrm{i}k(x+L))$.
Yes, that matches what my notes say.
actually, I think the sign is backwards.
@ACuriousMind This expression may have the wrong sign.
Yes, I am currently checking that
@ACuriousMind Are there baked beans in Germany?
Hah, you've also ignored $\hbar$, but I'm ok with that.
@DanielSank $\hbar=1$
18:41
Is there a way to vote to close chat messages?
I vote to close @0celo7's last message.
@0celo7 You cannot set dimensionful things to dimensionless numbers. it makes no sense.
I don't want to get into that here though.
@DanielSank Imagine the horror if everyone thought like you
Can you imagine writing $\frac{8\pi G}{c^4}$ all the time in GR!!
particle physicists tend to use natural units
PS one of my physics classmate always said "fuck hbar" whenever I told him to add hbars
@Secret I really really don't want to get into this right now, but calling what particle physicists do "natural units" is a horrible abuse of language that confuses the shit out of countless students.
18:44
Does it?
ok then, focus on the problem first, we will chat later about that
Setting dimensionful things to dimesionless numbers should be illegal.
@DanielSank Personally, I only get confused when you try to explain to me why I'm confused.
And I get confused by what I'm supposed to be confused by.
@ACuriousMind The operator $T_n$ as you defined it converts $x$ to $x - L_n$.
So we should just reverse the sign and be happy.
Doing this, we get:
$T_n |u\rangle = \exp(ik(x+L_n)) T_n |\Psi\rangle$.
@ACuriousMind you can't use BCH or zassenhaus for unbounded operators... T__T
18:50
@yuggib Sure you can.
@yuggib Lol
@yuggib A physicist can
@DanielSank Arrrrgh, I found my mistake. Yes, I agree (and this should have been this hard to get :D )
Well ok, $T_n |\Psi\rangle = \exp(i \theta) |\Psi)$, so in the end we have:
@yuggib How does the mathematician compute $[x,\exp(\mathrm{i}Lp)]$, then?
18:52
$T_n |u\rangle = \exp(ik(x + L_n)) \exp(i \theta) |\Psi\rangle$
$=\exp(ik L_n + i \theta) \exp(ikx) |\Psi\rangle = \exp(i(kL_n + \theta)) |u\rangle$.
@DanielSank Yep, and since $\theta = kL_n$...the sign is wrong :D
Oh, yeah we'd like those to cancel, wouldn't we?
Yeah. $\lvert u\rangle$ is supposed to have eigenvalue 1 for $T_n$
Right but now I'm confused because I did my math assuming that $T_n \hat{x} T_n^{-1} = x + L_n$, didn't I, and isn't that what it should do?
In other words, where did I mess up the sign?
Oh wait, this isn't a real problem. I can just say that $T_n |\Psi\rangle = \exp(-i \theta)|\Psi\rangle$.
Now, @ACuriousMind why do you say that $\theta = k L_n$?
@DanielSank Because we defined it that way
18:59
@ACuriousMind We did?
46 mins ago, by ACuriousMind
@DanielSank Why should we define that? The $\theta$ is the value for the specific translation you chose. You should define it as $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i}\theta/L x}\psi(x)$ to remove the phase "uniformly", for $L$ the length by which your $T$ shifted.
I wrote that, and then you decided to write $k$ for my $\theta/L$.
Interesting, I didn't notice that. I need to re-read.

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