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06:55
I shall embark on the journey of L&L ENM!
07:13
@DIRAC1930 Your statement about verifying energy conservation is very iffy because in the time-energy section they directly say energy conservation can only be verified up to some error. When the particle is free ($t \to \pm \infty$) we can measure things, that's what it's all saying, i.e. only then can we talk about measuring energy to check energy conservation, I think you are not happy that one can only do it when the particle is free at $\pm \infty$.
About this distribution thing, he means it is a trick they use to analyze Green functions when studying the Landau pole and strong interactions, check the papers he refers to there, it's not challenging/impacting this Section 1 thing if that makes sense, he separately refers to that result in your paper and assumes the result is true to say something else (which turned out to be a big mistake) about fields.
 
1 hour later…
08:35
Looking for some natural bundle information and i find some math stack exchange post by Michor
 
3 hours later…
11:59
Is it possible that Carroll does not define observers?
12:14
It wouldn't be that strange
It's not a common thing for GR books to not go that deep into observers
@Slereah I think of an observer in GR as a worldline, and each point on the worldline is attached to a set of basis vectors. The temporal basis vector is aligned to the tangent to the worldlien. Is this correct?
it is a common one yes
So when we switch to this basis, we r suposd to get the observer's local "view" of spacetime
You can also attach a clock to it
Yea
Is this basis completely determined by the wordline? @Slereah
The time vector of this basis is determined by the tangent, yes
I'm thinking that, to deduce wut the observer wud observe, we wud switch to this basis
I mean one basis at each point of the wordline
@Slereah I'm thinking that, once we hav determined the temporal basis vector using the worldline tangent, we can choose any three basis vector in the space orthogonal to this tangent as our spatial basiss
12:27
@RyderRude It is not
Even for an orthonormal basis you can still rotate it
i now think only the time direction is determined by the tangent to the worldline. We hav choice of the spatial vectors
But all choices r equally good
@Slereah And i shud also note that performing this procedure on a worldline will not necessarily give a locally minkowski metric along the worldline. We can hav other metrics too. Is this correct?
I mean... The observer will not necessarily experience minkowski spacetime locally. Is this really tru? @Slereah
I mean you're just defining a frame along a curve
by itself that does not define a coordinate system
@RyderRude Would be weird if it wasn't since that's one of the basic axiom of GR
That's what the equivalence principle is
There exists such a coordinate system
In the mathematical theory of Riemannian geometry, there are two uses of the term Fermi coordinates. In one use they are local coordinates that are adapted to a geodesic. In a second, more general one, they are local coordinates that are adapted to any world line, even not geodesical.Take a future-directed timelike curve γ = γ ( τ ) {\displaystyle \gamma =\gamma (\tau )} , τ {\displaystyle \tau } being the proper time along γ {...
Yeah, thats tru. But wut about the metric that the observwr wud actually experinece locally
We can find local minkowski metric at all points of spacetime. But wud the observer really experience this metric locally?
Try to mind your spelling
it's a bit exhausting to read
I'm sorry
I mean that acceleration is absolute. So, a non-inertial observer would locally observe a non-minkowski metric? @Slereah
12:39
No you can always diagonalize the metric locally
@Slereah I mean suppose we talk about the set of locally minkowski bases at a point of spacetime. Is it possible for the temporal basis vector in any of these to be tangent to a non-geodesic at the point?
I mean it's just one vector
If you want to do any basis, given one vector, you can always form an orthonormal basis from it
By the Gram-Schmidt construction
@Slereah thanks. I had forgotten about this
So, for non-inertial observerse, we can choose a locally minkowski basis
Gram-Schmidt I remember for SR is for a flat metric otoh*
lemme check if it works to diagonalize it
I vaguely remember Fermi coordinates having two different timelike vectors involved
it does indeed vanish on the curve
see 1.7
12:58
Yeah. I just saw
But they also say they're doing it for geodesic worldlines
@Slereah I guess u can also do this for non-geodesics using Gram Schmidt. But what u cant do for non geodesics is to make the first-derivative of the metric vanish...( Perhaps something like this)
But you can still diagonalise it locally
Oh wait
looks like the metric is indeed changed by acceleration
if you consider the basis to be constructed from the tangent
I guess that way you locally obtain that the observer is non-inertial
so this means that non-inertial observers dont experience local minkowski spacetime?
But i thinl Gram schmditt should work. I'm confused now
I will have to read in detail. Thanks
Gram-Schmidt works at establishing an orthogonal basis in a given metric, and you can diagonalize the metric given an appropriate basis
The hard part is making sure you can make the two coincide
Although idk if what I'm saying is accurate, this is just on top of my head
 
1 hour later…
14:37
> Technically both litigants could propose any penalty; indeed Socrates is said to have proposed that his ‘penalty’ for his conviction should be that he be dined at private expense like an Olympic victor for the rest of his life.
15:37
@Slereah expected the definition posted by Ryder Rude at least
15:57
@Mr.Feynman check MTW if you want a lot of observer talk
16:19
@RyderRude If the proper acceleration is constant (i.e., it feels like constant gravity) we can use the Rindler metric. Greg Egan has a nice page about it: gregegan.net/SCIENCE/Rindler/RindlerHorizon.html
@RyderRude You might enjoy the "Mary's Room" thought experiment about colour qualia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Knowledge_argument
16:40
@Slereah Oh, I can finally use it
17:16
It seems that P&S define the two point GF as $\langle\Omega\lvert T\phi(x)\phi(y)\lvert\Omega\rangle$ where $\lvert\Omega\rangle$ is the "ground state of the perturbed theory, which is in general different from the free theory ground state $\lvert 0\rangle$. Now, other books define the two points GF as $\langle0\lvert T\phi(x)\phi(y)\lvert0\rangle$, which is different
The result both get is the same, though
are you sure that it's not just different notation
The result is the same, though. Namely that one can calculate the two point GF as $\frac{\langle0\lvert T\phi_I(x)\phi_I(y)exp{-i\int_{-T}^T H_Idt\lvert0\rangle}{ \langle0\lvert Texp{-i\int_{-T}^T H_I\lvert0\rangle}$
that doesn't render but it definitely looks like the expression for the interacting n-point function $\langle \Omega\vert T\prod_i\phi(x_i)\vert \Omega\rangle$, where $\lvert \Omega\rangle$ is the interacting vacuum
but I would not be surprised if there are texts that just use $\lvert 0\rangle$ for both vacua :P
I fixed it $\frac{\langle0\lvert T\phi_I(x)\phi_I(y)T\exp\{-i\int_{-T}^T H_Idt\}\lvert0\rangle}{\langle0\lvert T\exp\{-i\int_{-T}^T H_Idt\} \lvert0\rangle}$ as $T\to\infty$
@ACuriousMind yes. The only book I've seen using a different vacuum in the interacting theory is indeed Peskin
I mean, in the way I've read other books it seems that we are dealing with the same vacuum in the LHS and the RHS
17:35
@Mr.Feynman ...and where do the interaction terms appear from in these other books?
oh, I guess it depends on whether you think you're in the Schrödinger or the Heisenberg picture?
The interaction term appears going from the Heisenberg to the interaction fields and combining the time evolutions
but where do you get the denominator from
I think I've only ever seen the version that's apparently in P&S
17:54
oh, and Weinberg of course has a completely different way of going about this
LSZ only appears when he starts talking about field renormalizations
They get it from 5.64
There is that assumption about the ground state, which I guess is the critical point
@ACuriousMind Yeah, I checked it too and couldn't find anything about this
18:16
@bolbteppa Why can't we measure things when particles aren't free? It would just take an infinite time still, right?
we measure things when particles aren't free all the time
it's just not particularly tractable in QFT
If i wanted to model $$\begin{cases} t, & 0\leq t < 1 \\ 2-t, & t \geq 1\end{cases}$$ in terms of step functions $\mathscr{U}(t-a) = \begin{cases} 0, & 0 \leq t < a \\ 0, & t \geq a \end{cases}$ why does this seem so unintuitive
@Mr.Feynman I don't have access to any text that does not distinguish $\lvert 0\rangle$ and $\lvert \Omega\rangle$ right now - do they even discuss the idea that the interacting vacuum has to be different from the free vacuum
argh whatever i just gotta do it to learn it
no point trying to think around something u just gotta do
I think it's $t\mathscr{U}(t) + (2-2t)\mathscr{U}(t-1)$
also i meant to write 1, t >= a
Hmm but when I transform that I get $$\mathcal{L}\left\{t\mathscr{U}(t)+(2-2t)\mathscr{U}(t-1)\right\}$$ which gives me $\frac{1}{s^2} + (\frac{2}{s}-\frac{2}{s^2})e^{-s}$ which is wrong
the $\frac{2}{s}$ term shouldn't be there, idk why
18:40
This is the part that is confusing me. Why isn't it tractable? Won't the $\sin^2 E_{mn} t/(E_{mn})^2$ formula also apply to having a Hamiltonian $H_1+H_2+V_{12}$ and then adding the measurement interaction $M_{12}$. Here $V_{12}$ is a function of the fields e.g. the QED interactiong term $\gamma_\mu A^\mu \overline{\psi} \psi$ or something
On second thoughts, is it because I can only separate $H_1$ and $H_2$ for free theories only?
@Mr.Feynman Okay, so I think what's happening is this: You can ignore the difference between the interacting and the free vacuum in the usual LSZ formalism, but the price you pay is that a) this makes even less sense that the usual approach one you start thinking about this and b) you will be completely surprised at finding out that there is an interacting and a free mass (or "bare" vs. "dressed")
@ACuriousMind I'm checking but the one I have posted above apparently does not and comparing with the image it's clear they are using the free vacuum in both cases. Even more confusing, they quote P&S, which uses interacting vacuum some pages later :P
@ACuriousMind I'll check Srednicki too and I'll answer to this
what I mean with the masses is this - the derivation of the LSZ formula that results in us wanting to compute an expression like $\langle 0\vert T\prod_i\phi(x_i)\vert 0\rangle$ involves some $(\box_{x_i} - m^2)$ in front of this expectation value
the crucial question is what you think that $m$ is
if you just wave your hand and say it's the $m_0$ from your Lagrangian, then sure, $\lvert \Omega \rangle = \lvert 0\rangle$, both are vacua of free fields with the same mass
but the more careful consideration should be that $m$ is the lowest-lying pole of the full propagator of the interacting theory, i.e. a physical mass $m\neq m_0$
I dunno, this is so difficult to figure out but it is one of the most important thing in QFT that people seem to ignore
now, in the end this distinction kind of ends up blowing up in our faces anyway because renormalization means we have to formally have $m_0(\Lambda)$ diverge in order to get a finite $m$
18:53
@ACuriousMind that is mass renormalization, right?
@ACuriousMind okay, yes
@Mr.Feynman in some uses of language, yes
there's an annoying ambiguity in whether or not we call the mere phenomenon of an interacting theory shifting parameters compared to a free theory "renormalization" or whether we call the process of curing the divergent quantities "renormalization"
both meanings are used freely alongside each other
I think I've seen people saying regularization & renormalization to distinguish the various step of the renormalization procedure
regularization is something else still - it's the step of making divergent quantities "finite" by letting them depend on some parameter $\epsilon$ so that they diverge only as we remove that parameter again
I might ask on the site also to see if I can catch someone that knows the other books I've consulted (e.g. Srednicki and Maggiore) and also clarify why they would decide to proceed like this. Do you think that would make a well posed question?
sure, that's a fine question
18:58
Alright, thank you
but I'd be surprised if the answer is any deeper than what I said - if you don't think about $m$ vs $m_0$ nothing in this process really depends on the distinction
@bolbteppa So a free theory is one that is written as $\sum_i \hat{H}_i$ where the $i$ degrees of freedom evolve independently. Hence if we have two momenta states, their evolution is determined by $H_1+H_2$. By measurement, does Landau also mean interaction i.e. if we assume the states are interacting, we have a perturbation causing H to become non linear i.e. $H_1+H_2+V_{12}$. We can then only talk about the momentum of the free states in the asymptotic limit of $\Delta t \rightarrow \infty$.
Isn't this true for 2 particle QM though also?
There must be something I'm missing
and since we're gonna get divergent integrals anyway I think that's defensible, if somewhat strange pedagogically
wait
I wait :P
@Mr.Feynman actually I've figured it out, the two approaches are equivalent
because the approach where there is an interacting vacuum ends up with equations that also imply the equations in your text
well, not quite
hm
no, this doesn't make any sense, I think it's really the $m\neq m_0$ issue
19:31
I'm back after dinner :P
In cond mat, (if I recall correctly) they explicitly write the interaction term $\int \mathrm{d}X \int \mathrm{d}Y \psi^\dagger(X) \psi^\dagger(Y) U(X-Y) \psi(Y) \psi (X)$ where $U(X-Y)$ would be the Coloumb interaction. It seems justified that in the asympototic limit, particles become free because the coloumb interaction dies off
I wonder if you can show something similar
It seems like this problem would arrise even just in a theory with just as little as 2 degrees of freedom
The Yukawa potential dies off but I'm not sure if this is relevant
@DIRAC1930 I think what you want is the cluster decomposition principle
Maybe you could write an effective interaction term and show that it will die off
Weinberg constructs QFT more or less from this principle instead of doing the things you keep complaining about
I'm not complaining lol
And thanks
19:36
maybe you should
QFT is awful
@DIRAC1930 dunno, claiming that people "keep ignoring things" sounds like complaining to me
Weinberg's book is a bit hard to read but I think it remedies many of your problems because it approaches QFT very much from the particle side instead of treating fields as the central objects
People need to stop ignoring this though!
It's the most important thing about QFT
again - it isn't, because QFT isn't rigorous anyway
I feel you keep trying to find this one thing that will magically relate free and interacting particles rigorously, but this is provably impossible: Haag's theorem says there cannot be a unitary equivalence between free and interacting fields
in particular this means that any sort of claim that a field can be interacting at $t=t_0$ but effectively non-interacting at some $t=t_1$(or even $t_1\to\infty$) can't have a rigorous justification
because the time evolution operator is unitary, and so turning an interacting into a non-interacting field via time evolution would be a violation of Haag's theorem
your attempts to compare this to ordinary QM are doomed precisely because of this: Haag's theorem holds for the infinite d.o.f. of a quantum field but not for the finite d.o.f. of ordinary QM perturbation theory
so what's possible in the finite case fails rigorously in the infinite case
this is not, exactly, being ignored: Haag's theorem is not exactly obscure, but not everyone is disturbed by the lack of rigor it implies about our usual formulation of QFT. I will again repeat that there is, in fact, a known rigorous formulation of perturbative QFT in the form of Epstein-Glaser renormalization, so not only is this not being ignored, it has, in fact, been solved
For some reason you seem to think you can somehow insist that there is some sort of "better" solution to this based in what you already know about QM and then at solution will appear. Again, Haag's theorem says this is not only unlikely, but impossible: You will not find a satisfactory formulation of QFT in terms of the perturbative formulations of QM that you are used to because the two theories are fundamentally mathematically different
20:01
Why do people care about qft so much anyway
well according to DIRAC1930 they apparently don't care enough :P
We don't even have a proper basis for fluid mechanics
@Slereah because GR books are expensive af
Who buys books
20:21
I do
I like paper
Wait, I thought you owned 50+ GR books
I also steal them
Do you also steal differential geometry books from kids?
I've got a bunch of GR books for kids
I recently bought Black holes and time warps by Thorne
20:44
90's were a golden age for pop sci GR
Not 100% sure why
I guess Hawking maybe
Also Einstein was still cool
I want closed timelike curves
Maybe you're on one right now
But your memory has been reset by boundary conditions
@Slereah Isn't Einstein still cool?
Not as much as he used to
I think Landau was right about QFT
Although apparantly he made it so that noone could get a paper published on it after the 50s
E.g. the Fadeev Popov paper on ghosts couldn't get published in the USSR
so they had to find an american journal
Although he did have ulterior motives cause of Femi-Liquid theory etc.
21:07
@ACuriousMind While asking my question I found an old post with this comment by Valter Moretti
And in the comments above they're comparing exactly the same books I've used
@Mr.Feynman I mean, I agree
neither of the two approaches makes rigorous sense
I pinged you with this only to inform you I had found this comment, it's not like I understand it :P
And now I must get some sleep, so goodnight
that's more or less what I meant when I said
2 hours ago, by ACuriousMind
and since we're gonna get divergent integrals anyway I think that's defensible, if somewhat strange pedagogically
Oh, ok. I don't know Haag's theorem so I didn't catch that
@Mr.Feynman effectively the problem here is this: The approach with the $\lvert 0\rangle$ everywhere that argues about the phase has a problem once it turns out the integral in the denominator is divergent
because certainly a divergent quantity is not a phase :P
similarily the approach with $\lvert \Omega\rangle$ needs to talk about a similar phase that's $\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}E_\Omega t}$ where $E_\Omega$ is the energy of the vacuum in a scheme where $E_0$, the eigenvalue of $H_0$, is zero
both approaches make no sense once you realise this $\langle 0\vert T\mathrm{e}^{...}\vert 0\rangle$ in the denominator is divergent
and ultimately you see that this not actually being a phase essentially reveals that the assumption of a unitary time evolution that turns free fields into interacting fields makes no sense
Haag's theorem is more or less the statement that this is not some flaw in these particular approaches, but a fundamental issue: Anything that pretends that the interacting and free fields are connected by a unitary time evolution operator must necessarily run into such inconsistencies, because you can prove that mathematically there exists no unitary operator that relates interacting and free fields
21:20
Oh, I remember you once said that the interaction picture "does not exist". Now the pieces of the puzzle are starting to match. I'll look Haag's theorem up tomorrow. Again, thank you. Good night :)
21:47
I think a book laying out the physical problems with QFT would be helpful. Rigor is not needed. I'm not sure, but a lot of these problems are identical in many body theory but unfortunately, people interested in fund theory don't care about qft in cond matter and vice-versa. Statistical Physics II L&L Vol 9. is a very good book that shows just how similar they are.

With cond-mat, I assume it becomes more natural to put the system in a box etc. and elementary excitations in fund theory for a dressed one particle state now becomes the elementary excitations above the free theory
which are naturally motivated as being a particle in free space outside of the system you are studying
22:07
Haags theorem seems to be causing a stir
17
A: Haag's theorem and practical QFT computations

Luboš Motlevery theorem is only as powerful as its assumptions (and propositions). The answers are clearly that The LSZ formula always works for the field theories where it's used. No actual calculation relevant to physics fails because of Haag's theorem. Haag's theorem is just a philosophy. Haag's the...

22:19
Space and Time in the Microworld by D. I. Blokhint͡sev has some interesting remarks
22:35
'A way of understanding the laws which govem the worId of elementary
particIes has not been found yet. Present-day theoretical physicists have
to be satisfied with compromises which, at the best, promise some success
at the expense of generality and unity.'
First sentence straight out the door
My kind of book

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