Guys, the math chat is dead, so I'm hoping I could try here: Say we consider exponential decay $N(t)=N_0e^{-\lambda t}$. Now we can normalize this formula to convert it to a probability density function. We get $\lambda e^{-\lambda t}$, which is the probability density function of the exponential distribution.
This is all fine and well, but I don’t understand why we were converting to a probability density function in the first place, and not for instance to the distribution function? What is the ‘intuitive’ (or maybe even mathematical reasoning) for this?