@MarkMitchison because, I would really like to talk to you soon... but right now, I gota study.. I will be back in 1.5 hours or so... will you be there by then?
@DanielSank No worries if not. Actually I am pretty sure that such things can be engineered one way or another, particularly if you can couple, say, a superconducting qubit to 2 microwave resonators (which I feel certain has probably already been done).
Hey guys, I'm a DSP person. How does this notation for temporal averaging in the contex of light look? I=<<U|U>>_t ? Is there some other way to write averaging in bra-ket notation?
"For a Lipschitz continuous function, there is a double cone (shown in white) whose vertex can be translated along the graph, so that the graph always remains entirely outside the cone."
The question basically says it all. I am in the midst of writing a thermodynamics textbook, and there is a question I would like to answer that could be answered by pretty much just copying and pasting the relevant sections of the book. Is this a bad idea? Is it considered copyright infringement ...
I am currently working on a project about Pendulums. It is about a so called "Mach Pendulum"or "Mach`s Pendulum". I have been searching info about this for about an hour online and I did not even find this name on an article, not even Wiki. Maybe it is called differently?
Saying "$t^2$ is not injective" says that the map $\mathbb{R} \to \mathrm{Maps}(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{R}^2), t\mapsto \mathrm{d}\alpha_t$ isn't injective.
But you want to say that $\mathrm{d}\alpha_t$ isn't injective for some $t$, not that the assignment $t\mapsto \mathrm{d}\alpha_t$ isn't injective. Do you see the difference?
Genuine one, I'm not sure how many people come up with it themselves
Homeomorphisms preserve connectedness. Removing one point from the target space and its preimage from the source space thus need to make both spaces fall apart into equally many connected components
It's not hard, fortunately: Take the preimage of every connected component in the target space. Every one of these has to be a connected component of the source, and since the morphism is a bijection, it has to be a different one for each.
So you need to have a connected component in the source for every of the target, and conversely every component in the source maps to one of the target, so you get a bijection between the connected components, meaning there are equally many of them.
" The point about homology is that it measures defects/obstructions. Suppose I have a map of vector spaces, $f:V\rightarrow W$. What is the obstruction that prevents that being an isomorphism? There is the kernel of $f$, stopping it being injective and the cokernel of $f$ stopping it being surjective. Homology measures defects. Snake lemma tells you how those defects are related, it tells you that if you were looking at n-dim holes, you next need to take into account the n-1 dim holes."
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/exact-sequences.164213/ Why aren't math books writtten like this :\
@MarkMitchison Actually, if you're interested I can put you in contact with just the right person (and as a bonus, he's actively looking for theory input).
@ACuriousMind My thoughts on that: Let $f:X\to Y$ be continuous and $Y=Y_1\cup Y_2$. Assume that $Y_1\cap Y_2\ne \emptyset$. By definition of continuity, $f^{-1}(Y_1\cap Y_2)=f^{-1}(Y_1)\cap f^{-1}(Y_2)$ is open. Now take the complement and use a de Morgan law: $[f^{-1}(Y_1)\cap f^{-1}(Y_2)]^c=f^{-1}(Y_1)^c\cup f^{-1}(Y_2)$. Suppose now that $Y$ is not connected, i.e. $Y_1$ and $Y_2$ are clopen. Then $[f^{-1}(Y_1)\cup f^{-1}(Y_2)]^c$ is closed.
By hypothesis $X$ is connected, so $f^{-1}(Y_1\cap Y_2)$ must either be the empty set or $X$. There are no maps into the empty set and it cannot be $X$ because that would require $Y_1=Y_2$. Thus $Y_1\cap Y_2$ cannnot be empty and $Y$ must be connected.
That proof looks quite convoluted to me. How about this: Suppose $Y$ is disconnected, i.e. $Y = Y_1\cup Y_2$ with $Y_i$ clopen and disjoint. Then $f^{-1}(Y) = f^{-1}(Y_1) \cup f^{-1}(Y_2)$ would be the union of clopen sets, and $f^{-1}(Y_1)\cap f^{-1}(Y_2) = f^{-1}(Y_1\cap Y_2) = f^{-1}(\emptyset) = \emptyset$, so the union is disjoint and $f^{-1}(Y) = X$ is disconnected. Contradiction.
@0celo7 For $f: X \to Y$ and any $U\subset Y$, $X - f^{-1}(U) = f^{-1}(Y-U)$, where the minus is the "without" operation usually written with a slash (but I always forget in which direction it is slanted)
Assuming the universe had a discrete structure at the quantum scale, then it seems $Ï€$ would be an uncomputable value for all practical purposes. That is, if $Ï€$ is approximated by the number of sides in a polygon, then we could approximate pi with as low as 3 sides, to billions of sides or more....
"$\pi$ is essentially not real"...why are people so obsessed with not-computable numbers? Reality doesn't have to be described by computable things unless you are sure we're living inside a simulation.
I recently answered -How much forward force is exerted by an idling automatic car- but it was closed as too broad. I dont particularly care either way, and I respect the moderators judgment, but its closure confused me.
I understand it is a general question, broad because it does not specify ...
@0celo7 It's a specific case of "The restriction of a homeomorphism to a subset is a homeomorphism onto its image (in the respective subset topologies)".
I have accounts in Stack Overflow, Programmers, Unix & Linux and Area 51. I don't want to continue my Area 51 account, so I planned to delete my Area 51 account. I have performed the following steps to delete my account, but I couldn't!
Case 1
If your account has votes or posts do the follow...