@enegue Enegue: (@BrianWeigand) - I will try - but I have to be honest - I really, really, do have a "disability" of sorts that makes it hard for me. B.) So, I try to rely on facts - than explain, (which causes more confusion);
@enegue @enegue - A.) In linguistics, an "Idiom" is a construction that has a meaning that: is not deducible from those of the individual words; C.) Saying that a Sabbath must be observed "From the Evening, at the end of the day on the 9th until the evening, at the end of the 10th - is non-idiomatic - because the plain meaning is crystal clear;
@enegue D.) But, for you then to say:** "For the Passover Sabbath, Evening of the 14th means the evening at the end of the 13th - is not consistent - and implies some sort of idiomatic use*;
@enegue And so the answer to: What do I think the current notion of the Jewish day is?" *E.) In Rabbinic thought - it is expressed in two different ways: - E.1) the plain meaning, (called the Peshat meaning); E.2) And the *Halakhaic meaning;
@enegue This means - that one reckoning is from the plain meaning - is as you say, from the end of the 9th, until the end of the 10th;
@enegue The other meaning - is also as you say - that regardless of the calendar day - to protect the Sabbath - the authorities ruled that Sabbath would begin at evening - to make sure.
@enegue Regarding the Day of Atonement - GOD Himself is pictured as safeguarding that Sabbath - by explicitly mentioning the evening before -- this is claimed to be unique in Scripture;
@enegue Regarding all of the other Sabbaths - God say "YOU safeguard the Sabbaths" - meaning - it was up to them;
@enegue H.) Again, your question was - what is my current notion of the "Jewish Day": I.) That explanation, I just gave, is a horrific paraphrase of a mountain of Rabbinic Literature;
@enegue If you would like references - I highly recommend you start with the Rashbam link - in that post.
@enegue - but ultimately - In Hermeneutics: It is an "Error of Reasoning" to inject Rashbam, Ibn Ezra, Saadia Gaon, and Rashi's commentary into the text; Because - We know, with absolute certainty - there was a schism in Judaism between the Sadducees and Pharisees regarding Babylonian customs and magic into Judaism; ***The Pharisees, (and Rabbinic Judaism tried to purge these positions from Judaism, (like killing those who rejected the Oral Law - without Trial);
@enegue Because we know that Jewish traditions were manipulated - we cannot know for sure; Perhaps your argument is right; Perhaps the Pharisees were right; But - because of the way the "Tradition has been received" - it is now no longer possible to know; - this is why - even though your conclusion may be right - the burden of proof is greater - because the evidence must necessarily be neutral - apart from Rabbinic Judaism;
