The problem, I think is the definition of $R$. First we are writing v as a sum of elements $u_i$'s from generalized eigenspaces (this is possible and has been proven: that V can be written as decomposition of generalized eigenspaces) and these $u_i$'s are unique (thanks to direct sum) so we have $v=\sum_{i=1}^k u_i$ then $Rv:= R_1u_1+...R_ku_k$.
I said since this is going to be complicated, I'd show equality only at $e_i$'s which are basis of V consisting of generalized eigenspaces and that's the idea I had. So I must have $Re_i=R_ie_i$ which means $R_i^2 e_i=Te_i$ (by definition of R_i) and LHS is simply $R_iRe_i$ and that's how I end up with $R_i$ first.
@runway44 The problem is how do we know that $R_je_j\in G(\lambda_j, T)$?
does anyone know why the following operator is continuous? Apparently its by holders inequality, but I don't see why $\frac{1}{z-w}$ is in $L^{p'}$ for any $p'>1$.. $L^p(K) \rightarrow \mathcal{C}(K)$, $K = B(0;R) \subset \mathbb{C}$ for some $R > 0$, $f \rightarrow \int_{K} \frac{f(w)}{w-z} dw_1 dw_2$, and $p > 2$
the target space is continuous functions on $K$, and the norm on the target space is the uniform (supremum) norm
here $w = w_1 + iw_2$ and $dw_1dw_2$ is the lebesgue measure
the presumption is we have $|\int_{K} \frac{f_1(w)}{w-z} - \frac{f_2(w)}{w-z} dw_1dw_2| \leq ||f_1 - f_2||_{p} ||\frac{1}{w-z}||_{q}$ where $q$ is $p$'s Holder conjugate, but then why is $||\frac{1}{w-z}||_{q}$ even finite?
In mathematics, singular integrals are central to harmonic analysis and are intimately connected with the study of partial differential equations. Broadly speaking a singular integral is an integral operator
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{\displaystyle T(f)(x)=\int K(x,y)f(y)\,dy,}
whose kernel function K : Rn×Rn → R is singular along the diagonal x = y. Specifically...
They are bounded, but there is cancellation. It is not simply Holder.
@porridgemathematics wait.. you're on $\mathbb{R}^2$?
Truth tables are not enough to capture first-order logic (with quantifiers), so we use inference rules instead. Each inference rule is chosen to be sound, meaning that if you start with true statements and use the rule you will deduce only true statements. We say that these rules are truth-preser...
"⇒sub ⇒restate (We can create a conditional subcontext where A holds.)"
I'm not sure if that belongs to the LaTeX above or below
it
Also, what good is $\implies \text{sub}$ if you don't also include $A$: $\implies \text{sub}(A)$?
@shintuku are we better off (as a computer program, not human) representing $M_1, M_2, M_3, \dots M_9$ as a map from $\{1,2,3,\dots, 9\} \to X$ or treating $M_1, M_2, \dots, M_9$ as variables themselves?
In the first case, variables are sort of limited to single latin letters, and you create the more complex integer-subscript (say for a 3x3 grid of $R$-modules $M_{i}$ in homological algebra
I mean
You know how syntactically you have these objects on paper called variables?
To a human, the distinction between variable and something else is done automagically, but for a computer system you have to be very specific about that
So I'm asking, would a computer program used for proof checking rather have simplest variables (single letters, latin or greek) and complex variables not actually variables but say maps from $\{1..9\}$ into some other space
Let $f:(X,x_0)\to (X,x_0)$ be a homeomorphism and $M_f$ be a mapping torus of $f$. Let $i:X\to M_f$ by $x\mapsto (x,0)$ be an inclusion map and $\gamma:I\to M_f$ by $t\mapsto (x_0,t)$ be a loop. Let $\Phi_\gamma:\pi_k(M_f,x_0)\to \pi_k(M_f,x_0)$ be a base changing homomorphism. In this setting, I'm trying to show $\Phi_\gamma\circ i_*([h]) = i_*\circ f_*^{-1}([h])$ for $[h]\in \pi_k(X,x_0)$.
What would you say are the ways a teenager I.e 18 can earn money ? Please share your experiences as well & what did you do. Person who hasn’t done undergraduate yet but only high school.
@XanderHenderson Sir , I totally agree with you that we only talk about maths here. I have also seen a little bit we do talk about off topics things as well & here are many experienced people & I have spent a lot of time here as well. That’s why I though I could ask here. I’m sorry as well. Could you recommend which site should I ask it at ?
SMT i think the answers would vary extremely based on location, particularly in view of covid. maybe a location-specific forum? a lot of info you might get from older people, even near your location, may be extremely out of date
Hi! I have a question: Suppose that a primitive $I$ there's not exists on $\mathbb{R}$, so it is possible that the definitive integral associated there exists? For example we have the following integral on $\mathbb{R}$, $\int \frac{x}{a^{2}-\cos^{2}x}{\rm d}x$ with $a>1$ there is not exists on $\mathbb{R}$ but $\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x}{a^{2}-x^{2}}{\rm d}x=\frac{\pi^2}{2\alpha\sqrt{\alpha^2-1}}$ why?
it's possible that all of the complex stuff cancels out. you see this in its polynomial root finding algorithm (e.g. wolframalpha.com/input/?i=solve+x%5E3+-10x+%2B+1+%3D+0 where the polynomial has three real roots but WA expresses them in terms of complex radicals)
also, the fact that WA is producing a nightmarish symbolic formula doesn't mean that the function has no primitive, only (at most) that it might not have a primitive with a nice formula
from the fundamental theorem of calculus, int 0...t x/(a^2 - cos^2(x)) dx is a real valued function that is a primitive of t/(a^2 - cos^2(t))
a lot of methods of evaluating specific definite integrals (e.g. specific bounds) do not involve finding a nice formula for a primitive and then evaluating that primitive at the end points
a separate issue, i'm not sure how int x/(a^2 - cos^2 x) dx relates to int x/(a^2 - x^2) dx. a trigonometric substitution x = cos(t) in the latter integral would transform both the numerator and the denominator of the integrand
@robjohn Yes, I'm sorry. It was a typo. The correct should be $\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x}{a^{2}-\cos^{2}x}{\rm d}x=\frac{\pi^2}{2\alpha\sqrt{\alpha^2-1}}$.
@Curio Sorry, I had to go afk for a while. In this case, $\sqrt{\cosh^2(t)-1}$ can approach $0$, and $\sinh(t)$ can change sign as $\cosh(t)$ passes through $1$.
but away from that point, it is either $\sinh(t)$ or $-\sinh(t)$
@TedShifrin I'm sorry it's not more. Our forecast had been for 2.4", then dropped to 1.66", then went back up to 1.91"
we'll see what it actually ends up being (usually less than predicted).
"In a model for change in the amount of individuals in a population, where N(t) is the amount of individuals in the population to the time t (calculated in days). Below is shown a graph for N. Use the graph to decide N'(10), and write what this number tells you about the change in the population."
i'm curious about finding an elementary way to see the following: Given $a,p\in(0,1)$, the expression $\dfrac{a\sqrt{1-p}+(1-a)\sqrt{p}}{\sqrt{a(1-p)+(1-a)p}}$ is largest when $p=1/2$
@NemanjaVuksanovic the derivative is the limit of the ratio of differences. The plot is not very precise, so just dividing $\Delta N$ by $\Delta t$ would give an approximation of $\frac{\mathrm{d}N}{\mathrm{d}t}=N'$
well, it does need to be 0<a<1 for this to work: if a is outside that interval, the second derivative ends up being positive so this becomes a local minimum
i guess a simpler observation is that $\theta=0,\pi/4,\pi/2$ respectively give $a,1,1-a$
$$ \begin{align} \left(\frac{a\sqrt{1-p}+(1-a)\sqrt{p}}{\sqrt{a(1-p)+(1-a)p}}\right)^2 &=\frac{a^2-a^2p+p-2ap+a^2p+2a(1-a)\sqrt{p(1-p)}}{a+p-2ap}\\ &=1+\underbrace{\frac{a(1-a)\left(-1+2\sqrt{p(1-p)}\right)}{a+p-2ap}}_{\le0\text{ and }=0\text{ only when }p=\frac12}\\ \end{align} $$
The $p$ in the denominator might throw a wrench in the works
Otherwise, the numerator is maximized at $p=\frac12$
@Semiclassical since $f(t)=\sqrt{t}$ is concave, we have $ af(x)+(1-a)f(y) \le f(ax+(1-a)y)$ so the quantity above is bounded above by $1$. If you substitute $x=p={1 \over 2}, y = 1-p$ you get $1$ so this is the $\max$.
i'm only on my first pot of tea, so take the above with a bag of salt
so i guess in context a simpler argument is: "you're taking a product betweeen unit vectors, so of course 1 is the largest you could get. now verify it works when p=1/2"
for context, the vectors here were $\sqrt{a} e_1+\sqrt{1-a}e_2$ and $$\frac{\sqrt{1-p} \sqrt{a} \, e_1+\sqrt{p} \sqrt{1-a}\,e_2}{\sqrt{a (1-p)+p(1-a)}}$$
it's easy to see that both vectors are unit vectors, so Cauchy-Schwarz guarantees that their inner product can't exceed 1 and should only be attained when $\sqrt{p}=\sqrt{1-p}\implies p=1/2$
yeah. i know why i missed it---the solution for the HW I'm grading assumed they'd compute the inner product and grind out the derivative by hand---but Cauchy-Schwarz is much simpler
@copper.hat I have two too to wear. (homonyms). I love my zip up hoodie, almost seven years old, but it was better made than the T-shirts. I do love the socks I recently got!
@amWhy i did get an email asking for size, but still have no idea what prompted the second round. the 100k ones took forever to arrive, and i am not, nor am likely to ever be, near the 250k mark which i think is the next boundary...
my goal was reached when i answered a question for my daughter :-)
@copper.hat When I passed 200K, I got the email. Something about having been backlogged. Maybe they couldn't confirm that we were sent swag for 100K, so just to be sure, they sent us swag again?