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09:20
@runway44 I think you meant $(A-\lambda I)^nv=0$ where v is a generalized eigenvalue of T.
I said I was restricting to a generalized eigenspace
but if you want to think about it that way then sure
But still, having known $R_i$‘s I don’t understand how R is a square root of T. :(
I agree that we can construct a square root viz. $\sqrt{\lambda (I+\frac N \lambda)}$ and divisibility by lambda is allowed as T is invertible.
the problem with your question is that you never defined the $R_i$s
actually, no
you specifically said $R_i$ is a square root of $R$ restricted to the generalized eigenspace
by that very description, the eigenspace is invariant
I did. $R_i\in L(G(\lambda_i, T))$ is such that $R_i^2=T|_{G(\lambda_i, T)}$ etc.
that's not a definition
you say "the proof goes on to show there exists [...]" but never mention any of that proof
that proof presumably gives an actual construction, one which shows how it's a square root of (R restricted to the eigenspace)
09:26
Ok, so here's one small background to $R_i$.
in other words, $R_i$ is a linear operator defined on that eigenspace, so by definition its range is within that eigenspace
For every nilpotent operator $N$ a square root of $I+N$ exists over complex vector space.
And its proof is same as as you were suggesting earlier. (binomial expansion of (1+x)^(1/2))
@runway44 So here square root of $A$ (your notation) exists and that is R_i in my notation.
Do we have to explicitly write $R_i$? I thought no, so didn't write it in the question explicitly :(
@runway44 I agree. But in the question: my problem comes from $R_iR$. Had it been $R R_i$, then yes I would apply what you said here and be happy.
I mean, what's wrong with $RRe_j=RR_je_j=R_jR_je_j=Te_j$? Dunno why they wrote $R_jR$ instead of $RR_j$, but whatever.
The problem, I think is the definition of $R$. First we are writing v as a sum of elements $u_i$'s from generalized eigenspaces (this is possible and has been proven: that V can be written as decomposition of generalized eigenspaces) and these $u_i$'s are unique (thanks to direct sum) so we have $v=\sum_{i=1}^k u_i$ then $Rv:= R_1u_1+...R_ku_k$.
ok, and?
09:35
So to prove the statement: I want to show that $R(Rv)=R^2v=Tv$ for every v
which I just shows in my comment, no?
I said since this is going to be complicated, I'd show equality only at $e_i$'s which are basis of V consisting of generalized eigenspaces and that's the idea I had. So I must have $Re_i=R_ie_i$ which means $R_i^2 e_i=Te_i$ (by definition of R_i) and LHS is simply $R_iRe_i$ and that's how I end up with $R_i$ first.
@runway44 The problem is how do we know that $R_je_j\in G(\lambda_j, T)$?
that's what I don't understand.
you said $R_j\in L(G(\lambda_j,T))$ and $e_j\in G(\lambda_j,T)$, so $R_je_j\in G(\lambda_j,T)$ by definition
Ohh yess!!
You are so right.
Thank you so much. :)
09:41
You beat my question to death :)
If you answer it there, I'll accept it and the question will go away from unanswered query.
nah, you answer it
Thanks a lot, I've been thinking on this question since today morning.
(morning as per IST)
does anyone know why the following operator is continuous? Apparently its by holders inequality, but I don't see why $\frac{1}{z-w}$ is in $L^{p'}$ for any $p'>1$.. $L^p(K) \rightarrow \mathcal{C}(K)$, $K = B(0;R) \subset \mathbb{C}$ for some $R > 0$, $f \rightarrow \int_{K} \frac{f(w)}{w-z} dw_1 dw_2$, and $p > 2$
the target space is continuous functions on $K$, and the norm on the target space is the uniform (supremum) norm
here $w = w_1 + iw_2$ and $dw_1dw_2$ is the lebesgue measure
the presumption is we have $|\int_{K} \frac{f_1(w)}{w-z} - \frac{f_2(w)}{w-z} dw_1dw_2| \leq ||f_1 - f_2||_{p} ||\frac{1}{w-z}||_{q}$ where $q$ is $p$'s Holder conjugate, but then why is $||\frac{1}{w-z}||_{q}$ even finite?
@runway44 done!
Thanks a lot :)
much less, for the same reasons, why is this operator even well-defined? Shouldn't we require $f \in L^{\infty}$ for this to make sense?
09:50
np
@porridgemathematics If it were Holder, then $\frac1{|w-z|}$ would also be bounded, but it is not.
im referring to the accepted answer in this post mathoverflow.net/questions/307713/…
its the remark made in the first sentence of that answer
well Holder will work if $f \in L^{\infty}$, because $\frac{1}{|w-z|}$ is integrable on bounded subsets of the plane
In mathematics, singular integrals are central to harmonic analysis and are intimately connected with the study of partial differential equations. Broadly speaking a singular integral is an integral operator T ( f ) ( x ) = ∫ K ( x , y ) f ( y ) d y , {\displaystyle T(f)(x)=\int K(x,y)f(y)\,dy,} whose kernel function K : Rn×Rn → R is singular along the diagonal x = y. Specifically...
They are bounded, but there is cancellation. It is not simply Holder.
@porridgemathematics wait.. you're on $\mathbb{R}^2$?
yes, $\mathbb{R}^2$
well, $\frac1{|w-z|}$ is not in $L^1$ in any case, so how is it bounded on $L^\infty$? How is it even defined on $1\in L^\infty$?
10:02
it is in $L^1$ on bounded subsets of the plane
its locally integrable
im not saying its bounded on $L^{\infty}$
but you're convolving over all of the plane.
im saying if you assume $f \in L^{\infty}$, you can directly apply Holders to see that $\int_{K} \frac{f(w)}{w-z} dw_1dw_2$ makes sense
no, over a ball
not the entire plane
$K = B(0;R) \subset \mathbb{C}$ for some $R > 0$
Ok, then $\frac1{|w-z|}$ is in $L^q(K)$ for $q\lt2$, is it not?
and how do you define $\frac1{w-z}$ on $\mathbb{R}^2$? how do you divide by $w-z$? I usually see $\frac{w-z}{|w-z|^2}$
like the Hilbert Transform on $\mathbb{R}^n$, which actually has a higher exponent in the denominator
10:20
presumably it's supposed to be interpreted with complex numbers
which will end up being the same as what you said you usually see, up to complex conjugation
@robjohn oh doh.. yes, it is in $L^q(K)$ for $q < 2$, and since $p > 2$, this is exactly the situation im in.. sorry!
@porridgemathematics yes
@runway44 yeah everything is assumed to be a complex number as you say
@shintuku can you explain to me the notation:
28
A: Predicate logic: How do you self-check the logical structure of your own arguments?

user21820Truth tables are not enough to capture first-order logic (with quantifiers), so we use inference rules instead. Each inference rule is chosen to be sound, meaning that if you start with true statements and use the rule you will deduce only true statements. We say that these rules are truth-preser...

"⇒sub     ⇒restate     (We can create a conditional subcontext where A holds.)"
I'm not sure if that belongs to the LaTeX above or below
it
Also, what good is $\implies \text{sub}$ if you don't also include $A$: $\implies \text{sub}(A)$?
10:36
here's a quick proof of the transitivity of the material conditional
1 A -> B
2 B -> C

3 If A:	(-> sub)
4	A (from 3)
5	B (from 1, 4)
6	C (from 2, 5)
7 A -> C (-> elim)
-> restate doesn't do anything, it's a superficial rule for readability that allows you to state things you've said previously
I see, so those are "descriptions of applied rules"?
The stuff in parentheses?
And what does the horizontal concatenation of the contexts mean? Is that just for compactness of their text?
putting figures adjacent
whoops, I didn't cite the correct rules. give me a sec
10:41
1 A -> B
2 B -> C

3 If A:	(-> sub)
4	A (from 3)
5	B (-> elim with 1,4)
6	C (-> elim with 2, 5)
7 A -> C (-> intro)
In the post, does the $(
$\implies \textbf{sub}$ go to the diagram above or below that?
i don't understand the question
below
okay, they could use some <hr>s
lol
10:46
heheh
So what's an algorithm for applying these natural deduction rules, elims, intros, etc?
Do you just take the obvious / naive way in order to match the rules hypotheses?
there's no algorithm, the correct matching consists in thinking about a correct proof
Then output the attached conclusion with proper variables, etc
thx
there are a couple of exercises listed by user21820 over in the basic mathematics chatroom
and solutions by a couple of users
Thanks for your help @shintuku
10:59
np
11:43
@shintuku are we better off (as a computer program, not human) representing $M_1, M_2, M_3, \dots M_9$ as a map from $\{1,2,3,\dots, 9\} \to X$ or treating $M_1, M_2, \dots, M_9$ as variables themselves?
i don't understand what those mean
In the first case, variables are sort of limited to single latin letters, and you create the more complex integer-subscript (say for a 3x3 grid of $R$-modules $M_{i}$ in homological algebra
I mean
You know how syntactically you have these objects on paper called variables?
To a human, the distinction between variable and something else is done automagically, but for a computer system you have to be very specific about that
So I'm asking, would a computer program used for proof checking rather have simplest variables (single letters, latin or greek) and complex variables not actually variables but say maps from $\{1..9\}$ into some other space
With a base variable $M_{\cdot}$
no idea heheh, i haven't used proof checkers yet
where $\cdot$ shows where to put the number syntacticall
@shintuku, ok, thx
I will ask on a CS forum
actually the Lean Zulip chat exchange is best
I think I answered my own question
In homological algebra, things can get even wayyy more notationally complicated: $M_{1,2,3}$ etc
and you don't want to overcomplicated what we call variables in the system
Thus $M_{1,2,3}$ should be implemented always as a function $M_{-,-,-} : \Bbb{N}^3 \to R-\textbf{Mod}$ (e.g.)
or from some finite index set
This allows "made up / complex" variables to take any complicated form say in LaTeX at the end user point
while letting your formal notation of variable be just the base: $M$
I'm only going to allow single-letter variables in my code
greatly simplifies things I think, and mathematically that's what we do anyway!
yesterday, by Prithu biswas
@shintuku can you show me that proof?
11:53
busy atm heheh
@shintuku Oh ok.
@Prithubiswas are you asking to see a map from the natural numbers to the integers, or the particular one they mentioned?
@Prithubiswas link?
@robjohn they want a proof that the metric space axiom $d(x,y) \geq 0$ is implied by the others
I would then just give a coursest topology st that holds
You can define $d$ however you'd like as long as triangle, positivity, symmetry
and $d(x,y) = 0 \iff x = y$ (maybe there's 4 axioms)
Or that's how a human should do it
Not sure about in PA
12:13
@Prithubiswas
1 d(x,y) = 0 <-> x=y
2 d(x,y) = d(y,x)
3 d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(z,y)

4 d(x,x) ≤ d(x,y) + d(y,x)
5 d(x,x) ≤ 2d(x,y)
6 0 ≤ 2d(x,y)
7 0 ≤ d(x,y)
2
@shintuku This is what I meant.
yesterday, by shintuku
since the day I had to write 70 lines to prove there exists a function between the natural numbers and the integers, i got tired worrying about axioms
I am interested in "that" proof.
@shintuku thanks.
np. the proof consists in showing that the defined set is a well-defined function
13:24
Let $f:(X,x_0)\to (X,x_0)$ be a homeomorphism and $M_f$ be a mapping torus of $f$. Let $i:X\to M_f$ by $x\mapsto (x,0)$ be an inclusion map and $\gamma:I\to M_f$ by $t\mapsto (x_0,t)$ be a loop. Let $\Phi_\gamma:\pi_k(M_f,x_0)\to \pi_k(M_f,x_0)$ be a base changing homomorphism. In this setting, I'm trying to show $\Phi_\gamma\circ i_*([h]) = i_*\circ f_*^{-1}([h])$ for $[h]\in \pi_k(X,x_0)$.
i.e., $[f^{-1}\circ h] = [\gamma h]$.
How can I show this?
 
3 hours later…
16:11
What would you say are the ways a teenager I.e 18 can earn money ? Please share your experiences as well & what did you do. Person who hasn’t done undergraduate yet but only high school.
@S.M.T This has nothing to do with mathematics, and is off-topic in this room. Why are you asking it here?
@XanderHenderson Sir , I totally agree with you that we only talk about maths here. I have also seen a little bit we do talk about off topics things as well & here are many experienced people & I have spent a lot of time here as well. That’s why I though I could ask here. I’m sorry as well. Could you recommend which site should I ask it at ?
@love_sodam your last formula is wrong, you want conjugation by $\gamma$
as for how to show this, understand geometrically why it ought to be true
picture the cylinder $X\times I$ and then pass to the quotient
SMT i think the answers would vary extremely based on location, particularly in view of covid. maybe a location-specific forum? a lot of info you might get from older people, even near your location, may be extremely out of date
@S.M.T The classified section of your local newspaper?
16:26
that would be an example of very out of date information :D
2
16:51
Hi! I have a question: Suppose that a primitive $I$ there's not exists on $\mathbb{R}$, so it is possible that the definitive integral associated there exists? For example we have the following integral on $\mathbb{R}$, $\int \frac{x}{a^{2}-\cos^{2}x}{\rm d}x$ with $a>1$ there is not exists on $\mathbb{R}$ but $\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x}{a^{2}-x^{2}}{\rm d}x=\frac{\pi^2}{2\alpha\sqrt{\alpha^2-1}}$ why?
why do you say that that function would not have a a primitive?
i'm not sure i understand the relation between the first function and the second, but that's the first question i have
@leslietownes hi, wolfram give is: wolframalpha.com/input/… and the primitive is in $F\in \mathbb{C}[x]$ or is this not correct?
it's possible that all of the complex stuff cancels out. you see this in its polynomial root finding algorithm (e.g. wolframalpha.com/input/?i=solve+x%5E3+-10x+%2B+1+%3D+0 where the polynomial has three real roots but WA expresses them in terms of complex radicals)
also, the fact that WA is producing a nightmarish symbolic formula doesn't mean that the function has no primitive, only (at most) that it might not have a primitive with a nice formula
from the fundamental theorem of calculus, int 0...t x/(a^2 - cos^2(x)) dx is a real valued function that is a primitive of t/(a^2 - cos^2(t))
a lot of methods of evaluating specific definite integrals (e.g. specific bounds) do not involve finding a nice formula for a primitive and then evaluating that primitive at the end points
a separate issue, i'm not sure how int x/(a^2 - cos^2 x) dx relates to int x/(a^2 - x^2) dx. a trigonometric substitution x = cos(t) in the latter integral would transform both the numerator and the denominator of the integrand
17:49
@S.M.T programming
wherever you are in the world
18:23
@Alex The second integral is wrong. Did you mean $a^2-\cos^2(x)$ in the denominator?
18:36
I was wondering why, while solving an integral, I can assume that sqrt(cosh^2 (x) - 1) = sinh(x)
Why not |sinh(x)|?
often there are domain restrictions relevant to the integral that guarantee sinh is nonnegative in the relevant places
in general you'd need that
18:54
@robjohn Yes, I'm sorry. It was a typo. The correct should be $\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x}{a^{2}-\cos^{2}x}{\rm d}x=\frac{\pi^2}{2\alpha\sqrt{\alpha^2-1}}$.
@leslietownes :-( I'm trying to understand
morning @leslie @robjohn
@TedShifrin hello. Just finished clearing out our gutters for the upcoming rain. Last I looked, we were in for 1.91"
that's 4.85cm for those who need it ;-)
Consider integral of x^3 * sqrt(2x^2 + 1)
u^2 = 2x^2 + 1
sqrt(2x^2 + 1) = sqrt(u^2) = |u|
But |u| became u for some reason o_O
Whoa. Well, no question that we need it. We're due for less than an inch, however.
@Curio It is NOT |u| it is often written that way, but it is either u or -u. it won't change sign in the midst of things.
19:06
@Curio Better to just say $u=\sqrt{2x^2+1}$ from the beginning and realize $u>0$.
i don't see anything wrong with taking u to be the positive square root of 2x^2 + 1 there
@robjohn Why? Is |u| incorrect?
because that gives the impression that u can change sign
since $|u|\ge1$ from your condition, it never even gets close to $0$
OK
What about this last example?
Integral of sqrt(x^2 - a^2) dx
x = a*cosh(t)
...
a^2 * integral ( sqrt(sinh^2(t))*sinh(t) dt )
So for the same reason it becomes sinh^2(t) and not |sinh(t)|sinh(t)
19:51
@Curio Sorry, I had to go afk for a while. In this case, $\sqrt{\cosh^2(t)-1}$ can approach $0$, and $\sinh(t)$ can change sign as $\cosh(t)$ passes through $1$.
but away from that point, it is either $\sinh(t)$ or $-\sinh(t)$
@TedShifrin I'm sorry it's not more. Our forecast had been for 2.4", then dropped to 1.66", then went back up to 1.91"
we'll see what it actually ends up being (usually less than predicted).
20:18
hercules (a little north of albany) has over 2" in the last 2hrs.
a friend has his own station (part of the wunderground setup).
they're guessing maybe a half inch around here.
Accuweather tells me 0.01" here today and 0.74" tomorrow.
Hello, I have a curious question.

"In a model for change in the amount of individuals in a
population, where N(t) is the amount of individuals in the population to the time t (calculated in days).
Below is shown a graph for N.
Use the graph to decide N'(10), and write what this number tells you about the change in the population."
@copper.hat not so strange for NY, for SoCal, it is more extraordinary to have 2" of rain.
@TedShifrin I hope we get the 1.9" we are forecast.
How would one go about and solve this? This is an old exercise from 2011
@robjohn I would love if it rained in my country!
20:32
@NemanjaVuksanovic $\frac{\Delta N}{\Delta t}(10)$ is approximately $100$.
@robjohn Sorry, your text is kinda wierd looking, I can't really read it sorry ://
i'm curious about finding an elementary way to see the following: Given $a,p\in(0,1)$, the expression $\dfrac{a\sqrt{1-p}+(1-a)\sqrt{p}}{\sqrt{a(1-p)+(1-a)p}}$ is largest when $p=1/2$
@NemanjaVuksanovic have you looked at link for installing ChatJax in the sidebar?
I bet a lot of things here look weird if you don't have that installed.
@robjohn No, I have not, pardon me. Could you perhaps point me where to do that?
20:35
@NemanjaVuksanovic The link is in my last comment.
i can verify that the first $p$-derivative vanishes at $p=1/2$ and the second is negative there, so that's indeed the local maximum
but it feels like there should be a better way of doing it
It all looks so cryptic
I did bookmark it, but nothing happens?
have to click the bookmark while you're in this room
the 'start chatjax' bookmark to be specific
Ahhh, it worked!
@robjohn Can I ask where you knew this was the way to go?
@Semiclassic It looks like convexity stuff. Page @copper.
20:37
Anyhow you can link me to further reading perhaps? :)
And remember, I am supposed to find the differentiated to N(10), so N'(10)
@NemanjaVuksanovic the derivative is the limit of the ratio of differences. The plot is not very precise, so just dividing $\Delta N$ by $\Delta t$ would give an approximation of $\frac{\mathrm{d}N}{\mathrm{d}t}=N'$
the more symmetric version of this is of course $(a\sqrt{q}+b\sqrt{p})/\sqrt{aq+bp}$ where $a+b=1,p+q=1$ and all variables are positive
if i square that, i guess i have $1+\dfrac{2ab\sqrt{pq}}{aq+bp}$
I just approached it a little differently. Let $x=\sqrt{1-p}$, so $p=\sqrt{1-x^2}$ and it looks like $a\cos\theta + (1-a)\sin\theta$.
I haven't put in the denominator yet.
So if I choose, let's say, to calculate the difference between 500 and 100 which is 400, what would the difference in t then be?
yeah, that seems sensible
20:43
The denominator seems to be $\sqrt{a\cos^2\theta+(1-a)\sin^2\theta}$.
So maybe now it's natural to square the whole fraction and play.
my 1+ statement was nonsense, so ignore that
I was ignoring it all because I was working on my approach :)
So, if I didn't mess up, $a$ is fixed and we're looking at $$\frac{(a\cos\theta+(1-a)\sin\theta)^2}{a\cos^2\theta+(1-a)\sin^2\theta}.$$
It's sorta surprising that $a$ is irrelephant.
well, it does need to be 0<a<1 for this to work: if a is outside that interval, the second derivative ends up being positive so this becomes a local minimum
i guess a simpler observation is that $\theta=0,\pi/4,\pi/2$ respectively give $a,1,1-a$
so $1$ can only be the maximum when $0<a<1$
20:50
or so they would have us believe
@robjohn i meant albany CA :-)
So now I can get the natural variable $m=\tan\theta$ and look at $$\frac{(a+(1-a)m)^2}{a+(1-a)m^2}.$$ Is this any clearer?
it feels like it should be
So that is optimized at $1$. Symmetry somehow?
@copper.hat Oh... I didn't even know there was an Albany in CA.
20:52
its a pimple beside berkeley
@robjohn Just up the bay from Berkeley a hop.
my kids call it smallbany
for some reason they decided that solano avenue should have a mayor
@copper We paged you because things looked convex.
@TedShifrin Ah. I will add that to the geographic database that is loosely packed between my ears.
20:53
@TedShifrin thanks, am taking a look :-)
@Semiclassical Ah, the square root in the denominator is longer than when I looked last.
@robjohn Does my last formula (with $m$) seem more tantalizing?
@TedShifrin Actually, the original looks a lot like Jensen...
Yeah, it all sorta does.
with square root being concave
20:55
I got rid of the square roots.
and $a+(1-a)=1$
And used the natural nature of the circle.
@TedShifrin hmm. mathematica says $$1-\frac{(a+(1-a)m)^2}{a+(1-a)m^2}=\frac{a(1-a)(1-m)^2}{a+(1-a)m^2}$$
That would indicate that the quantity is less than $1$
which is nonnegative for all $m$ and zero only if $m=1$
20:57
Aha. Done. :)
This all looks rather tantalizing.
But I like my modification :)
Robjohn will soon have the slickest interpretation.
this is a better solution than "compute derivatives at p=1/2$, but still feels like it's not as simple as possible
20:58
Well, the introduction of the slope as the natural variable seems right.
I'm gonna make a sandwich and check back in a bit.
sure. but it'd be great if Jensen were enough
$$
\begin{align}
\left(\frac{a\sqrt{1-p}+(1-a)\sqrt{p}}{\sqrt{a(1-p)+(1-a)p}}\right)^2
&=\frac{a^2-a^2p+p-2ap+a^2p+2a(1-a)\sqrt{p(1-p)}}{a+p-2ap}\\
&=1+\underbrace{\frac{a(1-a)\left(-1+2\sqrt{p(1-p)}\right)}{a+p-2ap}}_{\le0\text{ and }=0\text{ only when }p=\frac12}\\
\end{align}
$$
The $p$ in the denominator might throw a wrench in the works
Otherwise, the numerator is maximized at $p=\frac12$
@Semiclassical since $f(t)=\sqrt{t}$ is concave, we have $ af(x)+(1-a)f(y) \le f(ax+(1-a)y)$ so the quantity above is bounded above by $1$. If you substitute $x=p={1 \over 2}, y = 1-p$ you get $1$ so this is the $\max$.
i'm only on my first pot of tea, so take the above with a bag of salt
at $p=\frac12$ the square of the whole thing is $1+2a(1-a)$
oh, i misread then
i still get $1$, let me put on the kettle
21:10
Oops, I missed an $a^2$ for an $a$...
there we go
wonder why the caffeine time constant seems to get longer as i age? metabolism, i guess
now it is correct
there is some geometric context to this: this is arising as the dot product between two specific unit vectors
i am frequently wrong, but i think what i wrote above holds...
21:16
so i guess in context a simpler argument is: "you're taking a product betweeen unit vectors, so of course 1 is the largest you could get. now verify it works when p=1/2"
@Semiclassical: yes, at $p=\frac12$ it is $1$
and Jensen says it should be less than or equal to $1$.
as long as $a+p-2ap\gt0$
which it is as long as $a\ne 0$ or $p\ne0$ (divide by $ap$ and it is clear)
the simpler argument is that $\sqrt{\cdot}$ is concave :-)
@copper.hat That is where we used Jensen
for context, the vectors here were $\sqrt{a} e_1+\sqrt{1-a}e_2$ and $$\frac{\sqrt{1-p} \sqrt{a} \, e_1+\sqrt{p} \sqrt{1-a}\,e_2}{\sqrt{a (1-p)+p(1-a)}}$$
21:24
i think of jensens as the extension to probability measures
it's easy to see that both vectors are unit vectors, so Cauchy-Schwarz guarantees that their inner product can't exceed 1 and should only be attained when $\sqrt{p}=\sqrt{1-p}\implies p=1/2$
for me the concave bit makes it easier to understand.
Okay. I have removed the need for Jensen ;-)
@Semiclassic I agree that Cauchy-Schwarz is the optimal approach.
yeah. i know why i missed it---the solution for the HW I'm grading assumed they'd compute the inner product and grind out the derivative by hand---but Cauchy-Schwarz is much simpler
21:39
@Semiclassical we are assuming that $e_1\cdot e_2=0$? That is, basis vectors.
have my nice new SE t-shirt & fancy socks :-)
no idea why
21:54
They must be mine!
22:11
:-) i have two now,but the MSE one tore the first time i put it on
You’re just too muscled and strong!
those days are long gone :-(
22:28
they cut him off at the bar and he hulked out (readiness to anger is a characteristic of his people)
goodbye, mse shirt
they should send out swag for maintaining a friendly, approachable, decent but by no means stellar amount of reputation
they're not getting it back he said, clutching his socks tightly
and listening to the rain pelting the glass
@copper.hat I have two too to wear. (homonyms). I love my zip up hoodie, almost seven years old, but it was better made than the T-shirts. I do love the socks I recently got!
@copper.hat No email asking for your size?
22:43
@amWhy i did get an email asking for size, but still have no idea what prompted the second round. the 100k ones took forever to arrive, and i am not, nor am likely to ever be, near the 250k mark which i think is the next boundary...
my goal was reached when i answered a question for my daughter :-)
@copper.hat When I passed 200K, I got the email. Something about having been backlogged. Maybe they couldn't confirm that we were sent swag for 100K, so just to be sure, they sent us swag again?
copper: sounds like reputation fraud to me
stop the t-shirt steal
Because like you, I assumed "250K" was required.
i replied saying that i already had the first round swag but they sent it anyway
@leslietownes Hah!
22:48
i would like to have an MSE specific t-shirt that lasts :-)
I also won swag from a Christmas challenge on SE from years ago. It took them 2.5 years to send it. I had given up on it after a couple of months....
you know, when i work on the driveways it always opens up the convo
i would even pay for (gasp) a reasonable quality MSE shirt.
they could have a pay for rep thing going that gets printed on the shirt :-)
what, you are a 500k MSE user, omg
yeah, only cost me $20
you want gravel on top of the tarmac as well?
@copper.hat Hah!
i do feel bad for travelers, much as i implicitly make fun
that's for you @leslietownes
it is difficult to escape a cultural anchor
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