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00:00
Can’t you solve explicitly?
I mean — I just did it in my head.
Honestly I don't know how to do it
Do you know how to take derivatives?
i wouldn't shy away from that, if you do. things simplify quite a bit when you set the thing equal to 0.
So I calculated the derivative: $e^{-n x^2} \left(n-2 n^2 x^2\right)$
and set it to 0: $\left\{\{n\to 0\},\left\{x\to -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}
\sqrt{n}}\right\},\left\{x\to \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}
\sqrt{n}}\right\}\right\}$
seems like it's indeed converging then
thanks a lot!
Yeah. Easier to get rid of the outside $n$ to start!
00:13
btw @TedShifrin I envy your skill to calculate that in head :D
with exponentials, you factor them out because $(e^x)’= e^x$.
then it’s just simple product rule and chain rule. Admittedly, I have 50+ years experience.
while i didn't do it in my head before i said "things simplify quite a bit", i did see that it was going to be solving a degree-2 polynomial in x.
my 'mental math' got me that far. i probably would have goofed on factors of 2 if i'd done it in my head.
I was not meaning to be obnoxious. I was indicating you just get your hands dirty and calculate.
Once again, the iOS version fails and I cannot edit
Finally, After 6 tries.
 
2 hours later…
02:20
hello why is electric flux same for any closed surface enclosing an electron?
is there a simple proof that it is $q/\epsilon_0$ for arbitrary closed surface enclosing an electron?
I know for a sphere where electron is at center of sphere it is true.
mm, it might depend on what multivar calculus you know. i forget if the physicists look at this differently.
I already forgot most of the multivariable calculus. Is there other way? If no I will try to understand as much as possible.
if you know the divergence theorem, i think it at least phrases the flux in terms of an integral of the divergence of a field, and the field has divergence 0 away from the place where maybe it isn't defined for a point charge. which allows you to say, okay, for any surface enclosing the charge, i should get the same flux as i would for a small sphere enclosing the charge. where you plug in your knowledge about that case.
there's probably some physicsy explanation of how the flux relates to the divergence but i don't know it. this is broadly known stuff (among people who are into it), surely someone can do a more competent explanation than i can.
02:42
@BannedUser Is the potential field you are considering around the electron $k/r$?
@robjohn well both proton or electron is okay but what is k/r?
03:01
@BannedUser The electron can be anywhere in the sphere. Do you understand the Explanation using liquid flow from en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divergence_theorem ?
The flux is the same for any closed surface whatsoever containing the charge and no others.
Physicists give a heuristic argument for spheres (noting that inverse square cancels the square growth of surface area). It’s hard to make that work for general surfaces.
So if the force is inverse square, the potential field is inverse distance (times a constant, thus the $k$).
The Laplacian of that field is $0$ away from the origin. Then you can apply the divergence theorem
@BannedUser The electric potential around the electron is inversely proportional to the distance.
03:21
So it seems that I need to relearn vector calculus to understand it ;_;
study using anki
never forget anything
03:38
You cannot understand E&M without serious vector calculus.
04:27
What is anki?
@BannedUser Do you know Gauss law?
If you know the basics of surface integrals you can prove it for yourself.
Gauss law states that net electric flux linked with a closed surface is equal to the ratio of net charge (add the charges with their conventional sign) with the permeability of free space, it is the same for all mediums. Note that net flux means net flux by all the charges in the universe not just due to the charges enclosed in the surface.
@Osmium spaced repetition program
This is a fancy name.
What does it mean?
Spaced repetition is an evidence-based learning technique that is usually performed with flashcards. Newly introduced and more difficult flashcards are shown more frequently, while older and less difficult flashcards are shown less frequently in order to exploit the psychological spacing effect. The use of spaced repetition has been proven to increase rate of learning.Although the principle is useful in many contexts, spaced repetition is commonly applied in contexts in which a learner must acquire many items and retain them indefinitely in memory. It is, therefore, well suited for the problem...
04:43
Flux through a surface is proportional to number of field lines passing through it. If you have a closed surface containing an electron at any point, it will be constant. This is because even if the charge moves inside the surface the net field lines due to it passing through the surface will be the same.
04:55
The number of field lines is infinite. This stuff doesn’t really quite make sense.
engineering speak
It is a convention to draw same number of field lines on paper through two surfaces if they have same net flux.
sounds kinda circular but i get it
in magnetism you can just shake some iron filings onto a paper under the thing in question and count 'em
05:26
You're right it is ciruclar. I took the converse of the convention to be true; which is false. Ted Shifrin is right that it doesn't make any sense.
Which type of enginner are you?
05:42
@shintuku I can't find gamelin.
it's on genesis library
there are also lectures on youtube that use gamelin as the main textbook
When I download it is saying it is a djvu file.
yeah i love djvu, the viewers are cheaper on RAM compared to pdf
But I have nothing to read djvu.
many math textbooks i have are in djvu
what's up koro
what are you studying lately
05:55
nvm I converted it to pdf.
Hey shin! what's up
I'm currently studying linear algebra.
argh i have to finish it up too soon enough
so little time
you need it for something else?
how fast you finish depends on your syllabus too. :)
heheh
@Koro did you sort out the svd issue?
06:07
@shintuku In metric spaces (gamelin) , ∀x,y ∈ X (d(x,y) ≥ 0) is stated as an axiom. But on wiki it is a lemma?
no it is not. it is a consequence of the first two axioms.
yes, some books take it as an axiom
@copper.hat This is what I am seeing in gamelin.
copper: I understood svd but I'm yet to know about many of its applications.
06:16
there's no law that says books have to use minimal sets of axioms, and many don't
rudin takes an equivalent approach as gamelin
my son wanted to learn stick shift today. after an hour he was cruising my aging wrx over the hills past inspiration point. i was surprised & impressed.
@leslietownes why?? if it is such a direct consequence , shouldn't I use white correction fluid to just remove that part?
when i was learning i found 'real' driving fairly easy on stick. hard is an hour of stop & go traffic.
@Prithubiswas typically to save space and for practicality
you can derive it yourself if you want
prithu, if you care, go right ahead
06:19
yeah, we did quite a bit of slow stop/start/reverse stuff at the start.
i wonder if any of the axiom-folks out there have come up with single-axiom axiomatization of metric spaces
can you actually single-axiom anything
@Prithubiswas focus on the point of the axioms rather than their minimality.
the one i hate is universal properties.
@shintuku well , you can just take the conjunction of all of the axioms :P
shin: do the general theorems spit out reasonable stuff for stuff like metric spaces? i had the impression that some of this was done best by hand
06:20
@Prithubiswas if d satisfies only 1.2 and $d(x,y)\le d(x,z)+d(y,z)$ for all x,y and z in X then also d is a metric space.
so you can actually replace 4 numbers of axioms by only 2.
don't let lists of axioms fool you, the precise choices made in axiomatizing metric spaces are not the point of anything in gamelin
at leslie: i just went with gamelin's axioms so I wouldn't know heh
this is like going to a burger joint and ordering a salad
particularly if you plan on doing analysis beyond the basics, almost no theorem or concept is phrased in maximal generality
which drives some people crazy the way redundant axioms drive some people crazy
but almost all of the interesting stuff isn't at that level of generality
i hate, i mean really hate, redundancy over and over again.
06:23
@Koro That is sort of different from only removing one axiom.
redundancy kills me. it literally makes me die. also imprecision in language.
i find myself using literally more and more each day
i think it is early brain rot
@Prithubiswas If d satisfies only the properties mentioned in my earlier comment, then you can show that all 4 axioms of the metric space in the image you sent are also satisfied and converse is also true of course.
@Prithubiswas why are you concerned about minimality?
since the day I had to write 70 lines to prove there exists a function between the natural numbers and the integers, i got tired worrying about axioms
06:26
no convex psqs :-( must be end of term time/
copper: I think Prithu is studying logics and is trying to put the definitions in line with that.
whoa. that sounds like my kid's highschool maths torture
@Koro thanks!
@copper.hat It is kind of pointless for me to make 1 lemma an axiom.
Like if we have axioms A,B,C,D and it turns out D can be derived from A,B,C ; then it is pointless to me to let D be an axiom anymore.
well, as a sneak preview, many hypotheses of many theorems in analysis can be relaxed in about 20 directions. this is the beginning of a series of expository choices to avoid getting into that stuff
even if it's sometimes not strictly necessary
at least here you can be sure that you aren't losing interesting examples by adding the extra thing :)
06:30
@Koro I think you are replacing A,B,C,D with A,E. =)
And I am replacing A,B,C,D with A,B,C.
@Prithubiswas this is not possible in the case of metric spaces though (considering A,B,C,D as axioms you sent in the image.)
@Koro The numbering are note the same , I just used an random example.
And yes, you rightly pointed out I replaced A,B,C and D by B and E.
@Prithubiswas it depends on what you are trying to do and where you want to spend your time. redundant axioms are not an issue unless they are inconsistent.
Prithu: Do you think that at least one of the axioms in metric space definition (in the image you sent) is redundant?
06:36
Koro : (1.1),(1.2),(1,3),(1.4) ⇔ (1.2),(new)
Me : (1.1),(1.2),(1.3),(1.4) ⇔ (1.2),(1.3),(1.4)
@Koro Here.
@Koro The first one is redundant.
a lot of the theorems about metric spaces can be repeated, with similar proofs, without the metric at all, and the assumption of a metric actually excludes a lot of useful examples. still, nobody has to start with more general spaces first, and then only specialize when they "actually need" the metric
it's a similar vibe
Prithu: do you have any reason to believe why (1.1) is redundant? Do you have any proof of that? Would you like to share that please?
thanks, I'll take a look at that.
koro i think it is because you can derive it from identity of indiscernibles and triangle inequality
06:41
Oh yes, of course!!
Prithu: I think you are right. :)
I never noticed that before :(
commutativity of addition is a redundant ring axiom, if you assume a ring to have a multiplicative identity (which many books do). in particular in a book on field theory it is a redundant field axiom
@shintuku can you show me that proof?
06:57
here is an example of why i have no intuition for elementary modular arithmetic: show that for positive integers $m,n$ that $3^m+3^n+1$ cannot be a perfect square. it is straightforward if one follows the hint (mod 8), but without that hint i would be up all night.
am i missing something huge, is there something in the problem (other than the hint) that would suggest $8$ as an appropriate modulus?
copper, to my knowledge you are not missing anything huge
this might be a case where 20 minutes of somebody's cleverness could supply why it's a 'natural' choice (after 20 minutes and being clever)
thanks. that helps. (seriously)
from my POV, looking at small moduli in beginning number theory is just a natural move because it can be brute forced
if there's a layer beyond that, i don't know what it is
part of me was hoping i was missing something...
someone with enough number theory background could say more, maybe even at an elementary level
but intro textbooks tend to stop before pulling back whatever wizard of oz curtain is hiding us from any deeper truth
07:02
if it is down to a large collection of unrelated observations i might as well quit now :-)
i don't think it's such a huge collection. look modulo n for small n, or n connected to the problem in some obvious way.
at a high level though i think of almost anything about diophantine equations as like that
no coherent anything, just lotsa cases
imagine a number num=0.axby.... such that whatever combination of numbers 1,2,...,9,0 you can think of (repetition is allowed), it's all there in num. Can such a number be called "well-defined"?
and 'although some minor variation of this problem might be hard or unsolved, i wouldn't be asked about this if it were hard'
koro: the property you mention doesn't seem to define a number? it's just a property a number might or might not have?
like champernownes constant
i'm not sure i understand the condition
@Koro i think you can with decimal expansion
I recall having a discussion in another chat room, on denseness of {10^n a} in [0,1] where a is irrational.
So we were trying to characterise such irrationals for which the denseness condition will hold.
So I was suggested a number similar to the construction I gave above.
07:06
koro is there any reason why you couldn't define it with decimal expansions?
If we take any open interval (p,q) in [0,1] then by the virtue of num defined above there will be a pattern such that 10^n *num will have fractional part in (p,q) so such "num" makes fractional part of 10^n *num dense in [0,1].
shin: Isn't that decimal expansion only? We take 0.axbycd.... something like that.
But not sure if such a num is well defined in the sense that -if shin asks, what is 100th decimal place in the num-I wouldn't know or would I.
can't say i am following...
Let an arbitrary combination of numbers of arbitrary size be given and an arbitrary decimal place be given. then you can write a number that has that number combination starting at that decimal place
i guess you can prove it by contradiction
copper: for a background here's how the question arose
there's one try yourself problem: S={{2^n a}: n is natural} and a is an irrational number. {.} is fractional part. Then is S dense in [0,1]?
The answer to that seems no, not in general. Then my question was for what irrational a we can make S dense.
For that I was suggested that "num" kind of construction I gave above. But today I thought -how is it well -defined?
What is 100th decimal place there for example?
koro the recipe appears to be a garbled description of a property of a number that is intended (apparently) to make the property hold
one hoped to be equivalent to that property
a property of a number doesn't have a 100th decimal place. i'm confused by the question
07:18
Oh you mean since there are infinitely many ways to construct such a number, then we can choose one of those many ways to construct the number. And yes, with that "the question about 100th decimal place of num" is not a question anymore.
:)
choose $a$ to be $ 0.110010001...$ then you can see that this not dense in $[0,1]$.
One stupid question: I know I am missing something. Consider a pattern 1234. Now as per our assumption (that is the way num was constructed above), num has repetition of 1234 and hence num could be rational also as there is repetition.
So num could be rational also.
nvm, I'll think about that.
what assumption?
07:25
copper, I had difficulty thinking in terms of binaries so I switched 2^n to 10^n.
i see things in black & white
here's the construction: imagine a number num=0.axby.... such that whatever combination of numbers 1,2,...,9,0 you can think of (repetition is allowed), it's all there in decimal expansion of num.
it might help to introduce some notations. e.g S_n(x) for the truncation of the decimal part of x to n places, thought of as a sequence of decimal digits (where you will need to make a choice to make this well defined when x has two decimal representations). S_n is a map from positive reals to {0,...,9}^n. if x is such that for every n, the restriction of S_n to {10^k x: k a positive integer} is surjective, then {10^k x: k a positive integer} will be dense mod 1
and you can write down examples of x with this property
the question is whether the converse holds
@Koro you can't put an uncountable collection into a countable one?
07:28
(Leslie understands my questions so well). :)
it might really help to talk about maps with definitions, and not "combinations" "being there" in a number
@copper.hat for that, we allow repetition.
the converse would follow if you could arrange arbitrary but fixed length decimal truncations of two numbers to be the same by just making sure the two numbers were close enough
this doesn't sound like a very interesting problem, whatever the outcome is
more linear algebra please
@leslietownes The construction of S_n makes sense. Thank you so much :).
Converse (if the set S ={ {10^n a}: n is natural} is dense in [0,1] then a is of the form num) also seems interesting but I'll think about that some other time. :)
Hi.Can anyone help with this problem?
0
Q: Question about doing $f$ on basis vectors.

unit 1991We have $f:V_1\to V_2$ linear map and let's $(e_1,..,e_n)$ be basis for $V_1$ and $(c_1,..,c_n)$ be different basis for $V_1$ $(e_1,..,e_n)=(c_1,..,c_n)\Gamma_1$ where $\Gamma_1$ is change of basis matrix from $(c_1,..,c_n)$ to $(e_1,..,e_n)$. Then book says that from here follows that $(f(e_1),...

 
2 hours later…
09:42
> I went for a job interview and they asked me to state my biggest weakness in three words.
'Not very good at maths' I replied
09:59
@Osmium I can only prove for a sphere
I don't know about other surface
show me if you can
i think it's impossible to prove with basic surface integration
10:28
Thanks I will try to digest that
 
1 hour later…
11:38
This may be too simple, but what is the name of the theorem where $$\int_a^b \int_u^v f(x) g(y)\,dx\,dy = \left(\int_a^b f(x)\,dx\right)\left(\int_u^v g(y)\,dy\right)?$$
I noticed that $f(x)\,dx$ is constant when integrating in terms of $dy$ and $g(y)\,dy$ is constant when integrating with respect to $dx$.
 
3 hours later…
14:40
@Osmium Thank you so much for the proof. Thank god there was a proof by geometry.
but the proof is bit sus...
steradian part is bit sus
15:47
Glad I was able to help you. And it makes me more happy that I helped someone in physics, my field of interest. But my advice is that you learn multivariable calculus. You won't be able to understand the definition of potential, its relation with the field and many more things.
16:16
Have you read the article on the wiki: google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://…
steradian: short for radian on steroids.
But in French, which is why the word order is reversed (as with the natural logarithm, which is abbreviated $\ln$).
16:30
In the context of complex analysis, what are bounded and unbounded components?
of what?
for a subset A of C, "A is bounded" means there's M with the property that |z| < M for all z in A, and "A is unbounded" means "A is not bounded" in the sense just defined
with more context maybe we can say more or address a specific setting
Yes, a subset. In the theorem I am reading, I think the subset is taken to be open.
often in complex analysis one considers 'simple closed curves' in the plane. they have an open 'inside' that is bounded and an open 'outside' that is not
actually proving this from the definitions can be fairly difficult but it is easy to see in specific examples (e.g. circles)
for just an entirely arbitrary curve there is no reason why the complement of the curve has to have any bounded components, or have any unbounded components, or why it couldn't have more than one of both type, but you still might classify them according to whether or not they are bounded or unbounded
16:47
hi, does anyone know why in this answer, it is claimed that $\sum_{w} \frac{1}{|w|^3}$ converges, where $w = n_1 + n_2 \tau$ and $n_1,n_2$ run through integers such that $(n_1,n_2) \neq (0,0)$? Apparently showing $|w|^2 \geq C(n_1^2 + n_2^2)$ for some $C > 0$ is enough, but I do not see why
3
Q: Why is the modular $\lambda$ function a quotient of two meromorphic functions in the U.H.P.?

user1337In Ahlfors' complex analysis text, page 278 it says: It is quite clear from (9) that $\lambda(\tau)$ is the quotient of two analytic functions in the upper half plane $\text{Im} \tau > 0$. Formula (9) is the definition of the Weierstrass $\wp$ function $$\wp(z;\omega_1, \omega_2)=\frac{1}{z...

as far as I can tell, this just tells us this series is dominated by $\sum_{(n_1,n_2) \neq (0,0)} \frac{1}{(n_1^2 + n_2^2)^{\frac{3}{2}}}$ and I don't see why this converges
oh never mind, I see why it converges now :/
some counting and some estimates
yeah
if you have ahlfors around i think he does at least a few examples although maybe nothing in general
@leslietownes
Do you mind if I ask this question to you? https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/59858082#59858082
yeah im using ahlfors, he doesn't prove this at all though, he covers the convergence of a kind of similar series for the p function, but that just involves showing $\sum_{(n,m) \neq (0,0)} \frac{1}{(|n| + |m|)^3}$ converges, which is imo much easier than this
because the counting you need to do is simpler, and then you just compare to $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}$
oh wait. i am an imbecile , $\sqrt{n_1^2 + n_2^2} \geq C_0 (|n_1|+|n_2|)$ by equivalence of norms... then just use the 'easier' result I mentioned
where the counting is just there are $4k$ pairs $(n_1,n_2)$ s.t. $|n_1|+|n_2| = k$, hence our sum is basically $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{4k}{k^3}$
the way I originally saw it was by comparing that sum to an integral..
soupless i don't know if that has a name. as you've phrased it it's just the fact that int a..b c f(t) dt = c int a..b f(t) dt applied twice. if you were referring to something like \int_D f(x) g(y) dA, where D is a rectangular region in the plane and the thing is defined as a double integral, then fubini's theorem is what lets you express that thing in terms of iterated single variable integrals
but if you've got it in iterated integral form already it's just the linearity of the integral
@leslietownes It's a weaker version of Fubini's Theorem, isn't it?
17:03
yes, even the thing you see in calculus books is a weaker version of fubini's theorem
it's one of the many consequences of results commonly called fubini's theorem
the iterated-integral thing in fubini makes sense even if your f(x,y) isn't of the form u(x) v(y)
I asked you about the average mass from the Cafe last night. Here is my take: let $x$ and $y$ be the BMI and height in meters, respectively. The average of the mass $(xy^2)$ where $16.9 \leq x \leq 29.9$ and $1.2192 \leq y \leq 1.778$ is, if I am right, $$\frac{1}{(29.9 - 16.9)(1.778 - 1.2192)}\int_{16.9}^{29.9}\int_{1.2192}^{1.778}xy^2\,dx\,dy$$
Wait, that's too much. I could've just taken the average of $x$ and $y^2$ independently
for a discrete data set it could just be a sum. if you had a continuous thing you'd have an integral like that for the average value of xy^2
@leslietownes I used an integral since mass and height are continuous. not the mass and height themselves, you know what i mean :)
17:26
its funny you mention u(x)v(y), it turns out that fubini-tonelli holds in arbitrary measure spaces as long as your functions are of this form (you can drop the sigma finiteness assumption )
so you get something even stronger
do you even need countable additivity of the measures?
i wasn't gonna go there, but let's go
havent thought about that
i believe you may still need it
but thats just because the proof in my heads uses approximation by simple functions.. and im guessing the limit theorems wont play as nicely with non countably additive 'measures'
some of that still works although sometimes you need an epsilon of room that won't go away
ah well, if you have monotone convergence, then it sounds like it could work?
i don't think you do have MCT, in general
 
2 hours later…
19:55
@XanderHenderson In French, most adjectives follow the nouns they modify. There are a few exceptions.
20:16
or so the teds shifrin would have us believe
@TedShifrin Sure, but I don't speak French, and was making s*** up. :P
20:34
Well, you did inquire. I merely responded ... je n'ai que répondu.
20:54
I've been looking at this for about 10 min, and I'm stuck: Let $a, b \in \mathbb Z$ with $a \neq 0$. Prove that if $a | b$, then $a| (-b)$ and $(-a) | b$.
You should not be stuck.
I know this should be very simple.
I'm not sure why I'm not seeing it.
I'll try rubber ducking
Write definitions.
Assume $a|b$ such that $b = ac$ for some $c \in \mathbb Z$.
What is rubber ducking?
Not such that. Say this means
20:58
Where you say your thought-process out loud to see where you're misunderstanding. I think the original idea was for it to be an inanimate object such as a rubber duck.
@TedShifrin Hm?
ok
Oh, talking to the rubber duck.
$a | b$ means that $b = ac$ for some $c \in \mathbb Z$.
Ok, that’s all you need. Look at the things you must show.
ted a great-aunt gave us binoculars. this has increased the amount of birding we do at the duck pond.
Oh, very cool. Does munchkin binoculate?
21:00
First, I need to show that $a | (-b)$. This means that $-b = al$ for some $l \in \mathbb Z$.
Wait, let $l= -1$?
Don’t use the same letter, @Under. $c$ already is in play.
she does binoculate. they're a small pair, just her size. we used them to see a group of northern shovelers swim in a circle to create turbulence that brought food to the surface at the duck pond.
i didn't know that northern shovelers did this until much later in life. what a head start she is getting
LOL
I still have no idea, earthly or otherwise.
under: this is nitpicky but for things yet proven it may help to adopt language that reflects that. "I need to show that a | (-b). This would require me to show that there is some integer d with -b = ad."
21:03
Ha, yes. I see why that helps.
even for purposes of talking to a rubber duck.
we have two rubber ducks. one is a child's duck and another is a piece of swag i got at a professional event with the name of a law firm printed on it. i don't know why they thought this was a good tchotchke to represent their law firm.
I feel left out. I have cat toys, but no rubber duck.
maybe the law firm swag store was out of everything. "i'm sorry. no stationery. no, no tiny single-use umbrellas. no tide pens, no ballpoint pens. no crappy rubiks cubes. all we have left is the rubber duck."
It's ok, I don't have an actual rubber duck either. Just action figures.
the rubber duck can double as a cat toy. it's a little heavier than your average cat toy, but because of its odd shape and center of gravity, it rolls unpredictably, which makes it ideal.
ugh, this reminds me that today is a bath day for the daughter. these can go smoothly or very unpleasantly.
21:12
Still easier than trimming Screech’s claws. It’s impossible.
we can do that only on fridays when we watch tv or a movie. after livvy sleeps about 30 minutes in my lap, i can grab livvy's paws and trim them without her waking up.
on weekdays she doesn't sit in my lap for longer than 5 or 10 minutes and never goes into a deep sleep. we have to be watching something.
I have no solution.
get the vet to do it at yearly checkups, i guess? you get a few weeks of slightly duller claws, anyway.
they make those claw caps that can go on and stay on for longer, but olivia would never forgive me if i put her in those
The vet wants her sedated if I take her in. Such trouble…
So, @Under, you got those proofs?
21:28
So if $|G|$ is coprime to characteristic of $k$, $kG$ is semisimple. What's an orthogonal family of idempotents, explicitly? Probably, for every conjugacy class $\mathcal{O}$ of $G$, you take $e = \sum_{g \in \mathcal{O}} g$
Wow, this is like Balarka 1.5 days.
@TedShifrin I like the name! That would be fitting, at times, for my cat; though he's grown into a "howler"!
?
Didn't understand the reference
Balarka 1.0-1.5 was doing so much algebra.
I have an exam. I can't afford to be a 100 years if I want to pass.
21:32
@amWhy I named her Screech when I thought she was a he, but the name still fits.
What does orthogonal even mean in that question, @Balarka?
@TedShifrin Sweet!
Assume $k$ alg. closed. You know $kG$ is semisimple, $kG \cong \prod_{i = 1}^r M_{n_i}(k)$, the number of factors $r$ is number of conjugacy classes. Pick the identity matrix from each factor, call them $e_1, \cdots, e_r$. These satisfy $e_i^2 = e_i$, $e_i e_j = 0$
That's what I mean by an orthogonal set of idempotents
balarka that sounds right by loose analogy to stuff i understand that is not this.
I want to explicitly understand these inside $kG$
i hate unexplained downvotes.
21:34
@leslietownes It sounds like the right thing but I am getting confused trying to compute $e^2$
Maybe I am dumb
Oh, thanks, @Balarka.
Maybe think dually, $kG$ is the space of functions $G \to k$, multiplication is convolution. I just look at the characteristic function of each conjugacy class $\mathcal{O} \subset G$
You're saying that if you add the elements of a fixed conjugacy class that should be an idempotent? Can we do an example?
It sounds suspicious that $\chi_{\mathcal{O}} * \chi_{\mathcal{O}} = \chi_{\mathcal{O}}$
I don't think that works
We probably need @Thor again.
I never knew this stuff at all.
21:42
I think we need to bring in characters or something
Wait - is the brachistochrone problem the same as finding the geodesic in a weird metric? 'Cause the speed of the particle is solely determined by the vertical position
(from conservation of potential+kinetic energy)
berkeley just phoned me asking for donations. who gave them my number?
I don't quite see it, @DogAteMy.
They call me incessantly, and I never answer. I just give money mid-December every year. MIT doesn't usually harass me.
they didn't have my number for a long time. they must have bought some data somewhere.
Something like $ds^2=-\frac1{y}(dx^2+dy^2)$
21:46
On the new iOS on my iPhone, I activated the option to send all unknown numbers to voicemail. It works wonderfully.
which differs from the metric of the half-plane mode in that the $y$ isn't squared
You don't mean the $-$, DogAteMy.
Yeah OK this is the classic confusion. The indicator functions $\mathbf{1}_{\mathcal{O}}$ of the conjugacy classes of $G$ forms a basis of $Z(kG)$, but also the characters of irreps form a basis of $Z(kG)$. It's the latter that's an orthogonal family of idempotents.
The inner product $\langle \chi_1, \chi_2 \rangle$ of characters is actually convolution.
So the usual Euler-Lagrange turns into the geodesic Euler-Lagrange?
It's additionally confusing that the brachistochrone is also a tautochrone, DogAteMy.
Or rather, $\langle \chi_1, \chi_2 \rangle = (\chi_1 * \chi_2)(1)$
21:50
Physically it seems suspicious, DogAteMy. Because gravity isn't the only force acting. There's the normal force on the bead exerted to keep it on the wire.
One side is $1/|G| \sum \chi_1(g^{-1}) \chi_2(g)$, the other side is $1/|G| \sum \chi_1(xg^{-1}) \chi_2(g)$ evaluated at $x = 1$
This stuff is so hard to organize in my head and nobody writes a good account
22:06
@TedShifrin I do. This acts on the lower-half plane, where $y<0$
Oh, with starting the bead at $y=0$?
Sort of a singular situation.
Yeah, we're drawing a geodesic from an ideal point
22:18
Better perspective: Let $(V, \rho)$ be a rep of $G$ and $(V^*, \rho^*)$ the dual rep, where $\rho^*(g)$ is the dual of the operator $\rho(g^{-1})$, the inverse is there to keep $G$-actions on the left.
Then $V \otimes V^*$ is a representation of $G \times G$.
There's a $G\times G$-equivariant map $V \otimes V^* \to k[G]$ where $k[G]$ is naturally a $G\times G$-module by left & right actions, given by $v \otimes \xi \mapsto \sum_{g \in G} \xi(\rho(g) x) \mathbf{1}_g$.
Hi.Where I can find proof of $cos^2mx=\frac{1+cos2mx}{2}$ ?
Google double angle formulas.
Addition formula for $\cos$ is the obvious thing to do.
I meant $v$ in place of $x$
@TedShifrin Can you give some hints?
In other words, the function $G \to k$ corresponding to $v \otimes \xi$ just eats $g \in G$ and spits out $\xi(\rho(g) v)$, the $\xi$-th component of the vector$\rho(g)v$
22:28
@unit1991 Do you recall the formula for $\cos(A+B)$?
@AkivaWeinberger Yes
Try $A=mx$ and $B=mx$
Also useful: $\cos^2+\sin^2=1$ (and therefore $\sin^2=1-\cos^2$)
Just do it with $m=1$ and then substitute when you're done.
@TedShifrin @AkivaWeinberger Thank you
 
1 hour later…
23:43
@BalarkaSen why are they idempotent?
This is what I had come up with: Assume $a | b$ such that $b = ac$ for some $c \in \mathbb Z$.
i) Observe that $(-1) b = ac(-1) = a(-c)$. As $-c \in \mathbb Z$, so $a | -b$.
ii) Observe also that $(-1)b = -a(c)$

I'm not sure what to do about the second one. This would be stating $-a|-b$, right?
ha! yes, but you might need to cite a proof that (-1)b = -b. or this might not be the point. depends on the class and how deep down the integer rabbit hole they went.
or rewrite the proof so you don't need to compute (-1)b
23:58
I doubt I would need to go that far for this particular class. At least at this point -- at the beginning, we had a discussion about why those kind of manipulations were ok, but that was pretty much it.

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