« first day (3816 days earlier)      last day (1204 days later) » 

4:00 AM
I am not going to think about stuff that makes no sense.
Maybe tomorrow.
 
ok, I just redid them and came to the conclusion the absolute value sign is not an issue
so I again stand behind my calculations and my claim
the hyperbolic distance between $iz,iy$ is $\ln\max(y,z)/\min(y,z)$, so the point lying $r$ hyperbolic units above $iy$ on the vertical ray is $ie^ry$ and the one lying $r$ hyperbolic units below $iy$ is $ie^{-r}y$ and the Euclidean distance between $ie^ry$ and $iy$ is greater than that between $iy$ and $ie^{-r}y$
 
4:21 AM
@Balarka isnt the issue with your argument that while the reflection maps the disks and the hyperbolic centers to one another, it neednt map the euclidean center of one disk to the euclidean center of the other
 
@Thorgott Oh right this is correct
Good point
Interesting result!
 
HA
get owned mate
 
Lmfao yea
 
@Thorgott its the same with inversion
 
But how the fuck is this happening
 
4:28 AM
but i still dont see how this fits with the poincare model
 
yeah this is a little insane
 
@robjohn right
 
the point at infinity is not contributing because most of the mass of the circle at infinity is on $\Bbb R$
so it gets pulled towards $\Bbb R$ anyway
Very strange!
Very good observation. Nice computation.
 
but i guess the translation between the two induces the asymmetry, cause half of a diameter becomes a short interval, whereas the other half becomes a very stretched interval
 
yeah
 
4:30 AM
so I guess that the Euclidean centers always overshoot is balancing this stretching by which we break the symmetry
pure category theory
 
lmfaooo
cant believe i dont know hyperbolic geometry
time to forget metrics and do pure TOP topology
 
I shall include this decisive victory in my memoirs
do some TOP topology and answer this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3981109/…
 
Insane question
I think $Y$ is heq to a CW complex by some old results of Milnor about being dominated by CW complexes
 
it should definitely not be a CW complex, because I think I've once seen an example of a non-Hausdorff space covered by a nice space, but homotopy equivalent to a CW complex?
 
I have to recall what being dominated means
 
4:36 AM
its like X->Y->X and the composition is homotopy-equivalent to the identity, no?
 
yeah... so guess that doesn't help
@Thorgott R^2/Z or something like this, it's in Hatcher iirc
You can cover the line with two origins by R x {0, 1}
The quotient map is a covering map or something lol
 
"25. Let ϕ:R2→R2 be the linear transformation ϕ(x,y) = (2x,y/2). This generates
an action of Z on X = R2 − {0}. Show this action is a covering space action and
compute π1(X/Z). Show the orbit space X/Z is non-Hausdorff, and describe how it is
a union of four subspaces homeomorphic to S1×R, coming from the complementary
components of the x axis and the y axis."
(x,y)->(2x,y/2) wtf
 
lol pure hyperbolic
 
nah, line with two origins quotient map isnt covering
the origins aren't evenly covered
just fiber cardinality doesn't match up
 
yeah
 
4:39 AM
I've though about whether one can cover the line with two origins by a Hausdorff space and have not been able to come up with anything (though of course that's far from saying it's not possible)
 
Should be possible
I got it
I see it, man, it's some Lovecraftian monster
 
tell me quick before you go insane
 
Take infinitely many copies of $\Bbb R$
Glue the $2k$-th copy to the $2k+1$-th copy along $(-\infty, 0)$
Glue the $2k+1$-th copy to the $2k+2$-th copy along $(0, \infty)$
 
That's still not Hausdorff tho
 
OK I just gave the universal cover yeah
 
4:44 AM
You gotta paste along closed subspaces
But yeah that's the universal cover for sure
 
yeah, I also pictured sth like that (or at least tried), but yeah, non-Hausdorff
 
But everything is a cyclic quotient of this
So maybe there's no Hausdorff example
Fundamental group of the line with two origins is $\Bbb Z$ lol
 
Yeah
 
sure, it's like the two origins are an infinitesimal circle yo
so is that weird quotient from Hatcher homotopy equivalent to a CW complex?
 
Lol it's like four cylinders open-glued along $\{x-axis\} \cup \{y-axis\}$
If it was homotopy eq to a CW complex it would send {x-axis} U {y-axis} to a point because mapping to a Hausdorff space, right?
 
4:52 AM
Any map to a Hausdorff space factors through the Hausdorffification. What is the Hausdorffification of that quotient?
 
@BalarkaSen I can't compute any more today
 
So it factors through some wedge of four cylinders
 
Nice
 
But the guy has fundamental group G where 0 -> Z -> G -> Z -> 0
Or what am I saying
 
You're close to something
Dunno what
 
4:54 AM
yeah that's it, $0 \to \pi_1(\Bbb R^2 - 0) = \Bbb Z \to \pi_1(X) \to \Bbb Z \to 0$
how can Z^4 inject into a semidirect product of Z and Z
cannot
 
I don't think this is gonna be the contradiction. It has to be geometric, not algebraic
 
so its not a homotopy CW complex
how would you prove line with two origins is not heq to a cw complex
give me the geometric contradiction
 
im still trying to just picture that quotient, this action is so bizarre
 
@BalarkaSen OK I get your point, but I think you have to explain the pasting of cylinders more clearly
 
yeah my description is trash
 
4:59 AM
You have to actually do a calculation to get fundamental group of Hausdorffification
Doubt it's Z^4
 
its going to be massive tho
 
Still your idea probably works
The fundamental group here is either Z^2 or Klein group
 
because when you pinch all the shit then boogaloo happens
 
Only subgroups are Z^2 and Klein group and Z and nothing
 
I didn't mean Z^4 I meant F_4
But now I think it might be F_5
 
5:01 AM
ok, I think I'm starting to see where the cylinders are coming from
the orbits are discrete subspaces of hyperbolas and each orbit in a hyperbola is represented by an element of some half-open interval along that hyperbola, so each hyperbola gives rise to some S^1 and that should give the S^1XR for each open quadrant and then these are glued together some way
 
what am i doing with my life
this is such a fucked space
 
That's correct Thor
I did this exercise a couple months ago before deciding not to assign it
 
I thank you on behalf of your students
 
i never did this exercise i just know it exists
 
No I knew that I forgot that after the quotient each open axis becomes a circle
 
5:06 AM
yeah that one got me
 
I'm guessing you Hausdorffify or maybe T1ify by identifying all points which are the limits of the same convergent sequence
 
Screw this man. Take action of $[2, 1|1, 1]$ on the torus, that acts along some hyperbolic foliation where every leaf is dense
$T^2 \to T^2/\Bbb Z$ is a covering map, right? The quotient is indiscrete
 
God you're right
That's terrifying
 
PSEUDO ANOSOV
WHOS THE HYPERBOLIC GEOMETER NOW
 
indiscrete quotient can't be covered man
 
5:14 AM
Yeah ok that's not a covering map
 
covering is local homeomorphism
 
I was more interested in the fact that the quotient is indiscrete
 
CW complex aint gonna be locally indiscrete
 
I don't think the quotient is indiscrete
It's leafspace of a foliation
Some nonhausdorff manifold
@MikeMiller Let's do geometrization theorem for nonHausdorff 3-manifolds
Should be wide open
at the end of the joint paper by us we'd write
GOTCHA THURSTON WHOS THE HYPERBOLIC GEOMETER NOW
There's a vector field tangent to this foliation (the boundary circles are included)
The flow is defined throughout $\Bbb R$. This is an action of $\Bbb R$ on the annulus, restrict to $\Bbb Z$
That's definitely a covering map, yeah?
The quotient is a nonHausdorff manifold-with-boundary $Q$ given by collapsing the leaves to points. Set-theoretically, $Q = S^1 \cup \{b_1\} \cup \{b_2\}$ where $b_i$ corresponds to the two boundary leaves.
Given any point $p \in S^1$, any neighborhood of $p$ intersects any neighborhood of either $b_1$ or $b_2$
Imagine neighborhoods of $b_1$ as spiral arcs coming out of $S^1$ but only an infinitesimal part of it escapes the circle
Same for $b_2$
Any neighborhood of $b_i$ contains any given point on $S^1$
What's the Hausdorffification? It's a point, right?
But it has fundamental group $\Bbb Z$ (simply wind around the $S^1$ part)
A homotopy equivalence to a CW complex has to be a constant map but domain has $\pi_1 = \Bbb Z$ so cannot be isomorphism
@Thorgott @MikeMiller
What was even the definition of a covering space action?
 
5:35 AM
Every point has nbhd such that the images of this nbhd under the group elements are pairwise disjoint
 
So need only to check this at the boundary leaves
Seems scary
 
Go back to the original one this isn't a good idea
 
yeah lol you get screwed at the boundary leaves
The original one has a messed up quotient space. It's also a leafspace
 
The Hatcher one
 
Thats a leafspace man
Thats why I tried this one
 
5:38 AM
It's not a leaf space since it's a Z action not an R action
 
the R action is (rx, 1/r x)
 
It feels safer to me since the original thing is noncompact
I don't trust this compact one
Yeah I know but you have to understand the Z quotient
 
This one doesn't work the boundary leaves swirl under the Z-action
Not prop disc
There must be other ways of checking something stupid isn't heq to a CW complex damnit
 
I could do this if I felt like calculating sequences :(
Your idea was quotient by the R action, understand Hausdorffification there, then sort of imagine an S^1 bundle over that?
 
5:45 AM
I think the Hausdorffification is the thing you get when you identify the four axes all to a common point. Then your Hausdorffification of the R action is just an infinite X.
Then upstairs I imagine Hausdorffification is S^1 x R sqcup_{S^1 x 0} S^1 x R
Homotopy equivalent to circle.
 
there are four cylinders so that cannot be right
i think its that but done 4 times cyclically
 
The four cylinders are the four rays S^1 x (0, inf) and S^1 x (-inf, 0)
In the original space each of those accumulates to two S^1's as you approach 0
You must identify the S^1s it accumulates to
 
This is so bad
 
After doing that you end up with four rays only accumulating to a single circle
After Hausdorffifying you have Z fundamental group. Therefore any map from X to a CW complex has cyclic image in pi_1
Done
 
Write it now
You can't
 
5:51 AM
It should be easy with explicit definition of Hausdorffization.
You'll see the four axes must be pasted together
You've got it from here
 
I reject this approach! I will Carl Gustav Jacob Jacobi it. Take $[0, 1)$ and $(0, 1]$. Identify the two along $(0, 1)$. What you get I am pretty sure is the leafspace of the Reeb foliation on the tube, $\Bbb R \times I$, on which the flow action of $\Bbb Z$ is in fact completely properly discontinuous
 
Write it now
 
You can't
 
I'm going to bed
 
So stupid nothing helps
I will downvote this question wait
Done. Now I can sleep in peace
 
5:55 AM
The Hatcher problem is fine
Just use the explicit definition
Oh this is silly, Hatcher's comment gives a complete description of the space. I don't know why you were so stuck
 
What is the comment man
This is crap space
Thats the complete description
 
Show the orbit space X/Z is non-Hausdorff, and describe how it is
a union of four subspaces homeomorphic to S
1×R, coming from the complementary
components of the x axis and the y axis.
It's S^1 x R sqcup_{S^1 x (0,infty)} ... done four times cyclically. The Hausdorffification is going to be S^1 x R sqcup_{S^1 x [0,infty)} ... done cyclically. This is clearly S^1 x (R sqcup_{[0, infty)} R) done cyclically, which is quite clearly S^1 x an X shape.
 
12 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
i think its that but done 4 times cyclically
WTF bro
 
You misparsed my original thing
I gave the X shape answer from the start
I didn't describe it in terms of interval pastings
But rather as R cup_0 R
I got it in a different way than Hatcher had in mind
 
Do you think I read any of it carefully? The space looks hazy as shit if I try to imagine it
 
6:01 AM
You can get it
Each quadrant accumulates to both arcs, right?
Both of its bounding axes
Because in a Hausdorff space you can only accumulate to one thing the axes must get glued
 
I agree you pinch the X
 
The R quotient is like if you took the set |xy| = 1 except forced the hyperbolae together and then pushed the seam down to the origin except for an infinitesimal bit so that the seams themselves don't join
The transitions between the seams are each points
But then you push slight further to get a Hausdorff space and the seams are identified, X
You've lost your pi_1 = Z
 
Ya agree
 
Upstairs ought to literally be an S^1 bundle over this
I think I see the local trivializations
 
Sounds fine yes
 
6:05 AM
Hausdorffifying should preserve S^1 bundles probably
Maybe
Anyway an S^1 bundle over X is trivial, so the Hausdorffization is S^1 x X ~ S^1.
But the original space has fundamental group Z^2 probably, but maybe Klein bottle group
Contradiction
Good night
 
Write it
You cant
 
Look up Hausdorffization and use the formula. It's easy.
On MO suitable would be to say the Hausdorffization is ...
 
Who's going to answer the question bro not topospaces.com
 
You
 
No way I am doing this for free
They wasted my time man
 
6:13 AM
I commented on MO
Since it's an exercise I stopped there
 
Nobody asked
Garbage question
Also downvoted on MO
Fuck cant downvote on MO
dont have enough reputation
 
6:41 AM
4
Q: Status of Larry Guth's Sponge Problem

JHMLet $D^n$ be the $n$-dimensional unit disk in euclidean $\mathbb{R}^n$. Larry Guth's Sponge Problem asks: Does there exist a constant $\epsilon=\epsilon_n$ such that every open subset $U\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ satisfying $vol(U)< \epsilon_n$ admits an expanding embedding $f: U\hookrightarrow D^n$? ...

This is an insane question
 
6:52 AM
Also an insane question (not to detract from Balarka's link): amazon.com/ask/questions/TxBXMBFM9CLRIJ/ref=ask_dp_dpmw_al_hza
 
I don't understand this guy's example though
 
7:21 AM
They mean disks of diameter $1/2 + \epsilon$ for any $\epsilon > 0$ maybe.
 
 
2 hours later…
9:36 AM
does Cantor's theorem shows that card(X)<card(P(X))?
Oh it is
 
9:54 AM
yes
 
 
2 hours later…
12:01 PM
@BalarkaSen I wrote that comment and OP deleted the question.
 
which comment
Oh the Hausdorffification one
LMAO
good
 
12:15 PM
@Alessandro You there?
 
12:48 PM
what's the best stack to ask "what algorithms are available to solve this problem in a computationally optimal way?"
here? or one of the coding stacks?
 
I'd say coding
Maybe StackOverflow
 
I was looking and I was undecided between here and SO. I can't find another coding stack where they seem to take this kind of questions.
And I'm scared of SO
 
Hey yall, does Greg Martin ever hang out in here?
 
@BalarkaSen I am now
 
1:11 PM
Q2-4 and Q2-5
 
1:36 PM
 
2:10 PM
That question seems to be either not knowing the statement of Dehn-Nielsen-Bahr or not understanding the definition of proper map and proper homotopy. I suppose it could also be mainly interested in the case of infinite topological type but there are some comments which suggest it's really one of the former options ...
@ThomasMarkov No
 
@User873110 is this self promotion
@AlessandroCodenotti i was thinking about something related to amenable groups but now i think its stupid so nevermind
 
Now I'm curious
 
i was thinking of what would be a natural Folner sequence in the Heisenberg group
i was sort of doubtful it may not be balls because Heisenberg's Cayley graph swings upward
but maybe thats not enough
 
It has polynomial growth
 
balls always work for those?
maybe
 
2:19 PM
5
A: Is there any relationship between growth rate and amenability?

YCorHere the short proof of the fact that every f.g. group of subexponential growth is amenable. Let $S$ be a symmetric generating subset with 1. If $G$ has subexponential growth, then clearly $\liminf |S^{n+1}|/|S^{n}|=1$. So we can extract from $(S^n)$ a Følner sequence. The converse fails: many...

 
@MikeMiller I think the guy doesn't know Dehn-Nielsen-Bear, seeing the comment section.
 
@Alessandro ah ok
I actually didn't know polynomial growth implies amenable without Gromov's theorem! lol
 
subexponential is enough actually
 
yeah thats very cool
Fekete's lemma
thats all
 
@BalarkaSen sorry, I don't understand?
 
2:26 PM
nothing i was asking if you were the author of the question
but with an alt account or something
 
ohh.
BTW, I don't see any math symbol here. Al appears with $...
 
@BalarkaSen The name amenable is the second worst pun ever to appear in mat
h
 
@user873110 check the link in the top right corner
 
what about sofic groups
i attended a talk on sofic groups yesterday
the main open problem is to prove all groups are sofic
 
@Balarka do you know stable commutator length
 
2:29 PM
Not a pun
 
yeah @Thorgott sort of
 
why is hyperbolic geometry so insane
 
what are you reading bro
i dont know any hyp geom
@Mike do you know Kazhdan property T
 
I have heard of the property
 
a ggt text i was reading mentioned stable commutator length, so i checked the Calegari paper to see what the point is and now im scarred
 
2:34 PM
ping pong lemma helps you play Kazhdan proper TT
oh right you're taking ggt
nuts that you'll know more geometry than me now
 
i dont know any geometry
 
yeah but you will
most of it will be untranslatable to 2-topos or whatever
 
I'm just gonna learn Gromov theorem and a bit about hyperbolic and perhaps amenable groups, I think, nothing you don't know
 
gromov actually likes categories very much and his biggest inspiration is to write math formally
but thats only an inspiration
he writes in the literal opposite way
 
thats his second biggest inspiration
his biggest inspiration is the font dropdown menu
 
"a proper (infinity goes to infinity) distance decreasing map "
thanks for that parenthetical
 
Lolol
 
this guy talks about torical symmetrization of mu-bubbles without further ado, but feels the need to given an intuitive explanation of properness
 
Let X be a compact Riemannian band (in the sense of [M.G. 2018]), of dimension
m (also called condenser in [M.G. 2019]),
M.G. = Misha Gromov
who else
 
condenser??
i dont even wanna know
 
2:43 PM
@RyanUnger how are you reading this?
 
also congratulations on the forthcoming paper with Yau
saw it on Chodosh-Li
 
please help mith problem 2-5
I am not getting the correct answer...
 
at least he doesnt call equations by a pair of scissors in this
 
lol
 
2:46 PM
"the inequality $[\bigcirc^m]$"
 
thats his notation for the $m$-torus
 
why does that inequality have the same name as the m-torus
 
@user586228 I think you need to post in math stackexchange.
Probably this is only for chat, am I right?
 
not really..I am having doubts with the answer only..
theory seems fine with me...
Can u verify the answer for me @User873110
 
Ohh sorry, I very new in Math stack.
 
2:50 PM
it's completely ok to ask questions like that in here
 
@Thorgott Did u reply to me??
 
I'm just clarifying
 
@Thorgott Couldn't get u
 
I am a beginning master student trying to learn some geometric group theory from 0, can anyone suggest to me some book, reference, etc.?
 
3:11 PM
I've been reading Löh's book and I like it. Very clear exposition of proof strategies, nice illustrations, lots of interesting references/applications to related areas of maths, instructive exercises.
 
3:22 PM
I second that
@Balarka do you have a reference where I can read more about the "flows on trees" thing you mentioned some time ago?
 
Lyons-Peres
Probability on Trees and Networks
 
"a group of finite type is a group that has type $\mathbf{F}_{\infty}$"
math is stupid
 
gasps
 
3:50 PM
Somebody please check my query once
I do not think it is very easy..
 
@BalarkaSen Is this stuff used in applications
Just curious
 
What is a first principles/brute force way of showing how stuff like $\sum \sigma_1(n)q^n$ transform under $\tau \to -1/\tau$?
(Related to showing how non-modular Eisenstein series transforms.)
 
4:08 PM
So how is $(\Bbb Z / 2 \Bbb Z )[y] / (y ^ 2 - y - 1) \cong \Bbb F_4$ because $y^2 - y -1$ has no root in $\Bbb Z / 2 \Bbb Z$ ?
 
Since it has no roots in $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$ what you get is a proper extension, and since it must have degree 2 there's not many options
 
yeah I think that's the right way to think about it
 
degree 2 + no roots => irreducible
 
I think I just had a small brain fart. I got why each of the antecedent and the consequent were true
yeah, also saw why it was irreducible, but remembering that quotienting by the ideal generated by an irreducible poly gave you an extension field was this basic fact I tripped over
 
quotient by irreducible polynomial is a field, it clearly has 4 elements and finite fields are unique
right
 
4:11 PM
yep yeah, thanks @AlessandroCodenotti and @Thorgott
 
4:25 PM
@JamalS I'm guessing you want $q = e^{2i\pi\tau}$ ?
 
I agree: Löh's book is very nice.
 
4:50 PM
Somebody can help explain this: "If the unit group of Z[\sqrt(3)] were finite then all units would be roots of unity (+-1)"? I don't understand why "all units would be roots of unity" :(
 
0
Q: Confusion in resultant velocity and relative velocity?

user102532A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed direction of car to the passenger in the train is. I drew the diagram like this (blue one)and got answer as north east or east north direction. My questions are It is normal right if relative velocity and...

 
elements in finite groups have finite order
 
Please help in this question mine everyone
 
@Thorgott Ah.. so, this contradicts the fact that the solutions to x^n = 1 are only +-1 in R?
Or, simpler, 2 + sqrt(3) is a unit, and it is not a root of 1
 
5:05 PM
yup
 
@Thorgott Cool, thanks again!
 
the point is that a subgroup generated by an element that does not have finite order, i.e. is not a root of unity, is already infinite cyclic
 
Thank you :)
 
@Astyx Yes
 
5:46 PM
Here's a silly question,

why's $(\Bbb Z/2 \Bbb Z ) [y] / (1-y) \cong \Bbb Z /2 \Bbb Z$?
I figure if you mod by $y$ it should be true, but it surprises me that if you mod by $(1-y)$ it is also true
 
mapping $y$ to $1-y$ induces an automorphism of $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}[y]$ that switches the ideals $(y)$ and $(1-y)$, so this shouldn't be too surprising
 
I figured the answer had to be something like that... it's just so weird
it's like $0 \to 1, 1 \to 0$
 
in one case the isomorphism comes from evaluating $y$ at $0$, in the other case it comes from evaluating $y$ at $1$
 
Whoa it's as if the three berlin universities take turns with going wild. Last semester TU had quite a few advanced lectures, this semester HU is going crazy and FU will offer a lot
 
you should convince yourself that every element has a constant representative when you mod out by a degree 1 polynomial
then all that's left is convincing yourself that the multiplication of this representatives agrees with the regular multiplication
 
5:55 PM
yeah that seems reasonable. So really all that was ever left was $0$ and $1$, but the roles are reversed
 
no, $0$ and $1$ are the one from the copy of $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ in $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}[y]$ in either case
the role of $y$ is what gets reserved, it's residue class is $0$ in one and $1$ in the other case
 
I see... I have to sit and think about this more
I'm sure your right, I just need to internalize it
yeah what I said was surely wrong
 
I don't have a clue what to choose. Apparently there will be Random Dynamical Systems, Probability IV: Stochastic Homogenisation, Nonlinear Functional Analysis, Bifurcation Theory (Dyn. Systems III), Computational Dynamics, "Gaussian measures in infinite dimensions and invariant measures for PDEs" and "Functional Analysis Applied to Modeling of Molecular Systems"
 

« first day (3816 days earlier)      last day (1204 days later) »