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00:38
@BalarkaSen I made a mistake
The model for the differential on $B(F,A,F)$ is wrong
You also need terms $\epsilon(a_1)[a_2 | \cdots | a_n] + [a_1 | \cdots | a_{n-1}]\epsilon(a_n)$ where $\epsilon: A \to \Bbb F_2$ is an augmentation
Alternately, do what I wrote the firs ttime but replace every $A$ with $\overline A = \text{ker}(\epsilon)$
01:31
Anyone here into number theory?
01:52
Hey, ergodic theory exercise I'd like a hint for.
I need to show that an ergodic automorphism $T$ of a compact abelian group is mixing of all orders (via looking at what at what it does to the dual basis)
I can do it for the first order (i.e just mixing). In general I understand I need to show why we can't have $\chi_0(x) \chi_1(T^n_1 x) \chi_2(T^{n_1 +n_2})...\chi_k(T^{n_1 +n_2..+n_k}) = 1$ as $n_i \to \inf$
 
2 hours later…
03:49
8 hours ago, by Ante
i would like to see all the terms of

$(ab+1)(ac+1)(ad+1)(ae+1)(bc+1)(bd+1)(be+1)((cd+1)(ce+1)(de+1)$

does someone knows how to obtain that? (of course not on a paper)
04:07
@EnjoysMath text me when you are available
 
2 hours later…
user131753
05:51
Let $(P,\le)$ be a poset and $S,T\subseteq P$ such that the following holds, $$\forall t\forall s(t\in T\land s\in S\to s\le t)$$does this type of relation between $S$ and $T$ has a standard name?
06:29
my latest crackpottery
 
2 hours later…
09:02
No, no, here's my latest crackpotery now
0
Q: There exist fast, general integer factorization algorithms of integers under certain moduli and not others.

EnjoysMathThe below code checks all $\Bbb{Z}$-module homomorphisms (determined by assigning $a = f(1)$) and finds the ones (for each modulus $m$) that will work to factorize any integer $0 \lt x \lt m$. The reason this works is because for powers and prime numbers you don't need an efficient integer fac...

please upvote, it's indeed legit
I'm not joking, you can factor an integer in as little as a few lines of code as long as $m$ and $a$ are chosen for your given environment's integer size. Otherwise precomputation is necessary. Still though, it's an existence proof
@JackOhara see post
 
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10:51
Suppose I have a measurable function $f$ in two real variables $x,y$. I want to check the convergence of the integral of $f$ over R^2. Under which conditions can I do this by checking the convergence of the individual integrals? I.e., if $\int f(x,y) dx$ converges (for fixed $y$), and $\int f(x,y) dy$ converges (for fixed $x$), does the convergence of the double integral of $f$ over R^2 follow? Does this require Fubini?
 
1 hour later…
12:09
(take $f$ to be complex-valued)
take $f$ to be the indicator function of $\{ x \le y \le x+1 \}$
Sorry, I don't understand. I wanted to have conditions, which have to be fulfilled, such that my claim follows.
13:14
@AlessandroCodenotti
I don't think you will find any such conditions
So one always (or in general) has to consider the iterated integral (at least one of them, and then apply Fubini-Tonelli)?
13:30
I mean, Fubini-Tonelli already gives you equivalence, so yes. I doubt that there is a general condition which allows you to deduce convergence of the iterated integral just from the inner integral (also note that the inner integral doesn't need to converge everywhere).
Of course, there are other methods to see whether an integral converges: either finding an integrable dominating function or seeing whether you can break your function down into something continuous on compact subsets should take care of most non-pathological functions.
@MikeMiller My earlier map was wrong. I'll write down the correct map. I'll work finite-stage, so let $G_{n, m}$ be the Grassmannian of $n$-planes in $\Bbb R^m$ and $\gamma_{n, m}$ be the tautological $n$-plane bundle over this, $\gamma_{n, m}^\perp$ orthocomplement in $G_{n, m} \times \Bbb R^m$.
Let $\Bbb R^m \to \gamma_{n, m}^\perp$ be a proper map; make it transverse to the zero section and take preimage to get a submanifold of $\Bbb R^m$ of codimension $\text{codim}_{\gamma_{n, m}^\perp}(0) = m - n$, so of dimension $n$. The map was the same as a map $S^m \to \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m}^\perp)$ preserving $\infty$ by one point compactifying. This gives a map $\Omega^m \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m}^\perp) \to \coprod_{\dim M = n} \text{Emb}(M, \Bbb R^m)/\text{Diff}(M)$.
I would like to say you can take the limit as $m \to \infty$ to get a map $\Omega^\infty \text{Th}(\gamma_n^\perp) \to \coprod_{\dim M = n} B\text{Diff}(M)$.
Hello, @BalarkaSen and @MikeMiller. I'd like to draw your attention to a question of mine.
in Category Theory, 6 hours ago, by Martin Sleziak
I will also mention that Balarka Sen and Mike Miller are often also in the main chatroom. But perhaps now it's reasonable to wait first whether you get access to that room.
-1
Q: Show that $\Gamma$, $\Lambda$, and the associated sheaf functor are all left exact.

ShaunThis is Exercise II.6 of Mac Lane and Moerdijk's, "Sheaves in Geometry and Logic [. . .]". According to the first few pages of this Approach0 search, it is new to MSE. The Details: The functors $\Lambda$ and $\Gamma$ are discussed in the following: Just what is Mac Lane & Moerdijk's $\Lambda$...

An answer would be greatly appreciated :)
13:55
@Thorgott My question was under the assumption that both single integrals converge everywhere. But I understand that estimating one inner integral, and then calculating the outer integral and applying Fubini-Tonelli, might be more promising in general.
@MikeMiller There are natural inclusions $G_{n, m} \subseteq G_{n, m+1}$. Clearly, $\gamma_{n, m+1}|G_{n, m} = \gamma_{n, m}$ so $\gamma_{n, m+1}^\perp|G_{n, m+1} = \gamma_{n, m}^\perp \oplus \varepsilon^1$, so $\text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m+1}^\perp|G_{n, m}) = \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m}^\perp) \wedge S^1 = \Sigma \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m}^\perp)$, so we have an inclusion $\Sigma \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m}^\perp) \to \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m+1}^\perp)$.
There's a natural map $X \to \Omega \Sigma X$ adjoint to the identity map $\Sigma X \to \Sigma X$, using which we get a map $\Omega^m \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m}^\perp) \to \Omega^{m+1} \text{Th}(\gamma_{n, m+1}^\perp)$.
Take colimit over these to get $\Omega^\infty \text{Th}(\gamma_n^\perp)$
I'm mainly concerned about transversality conditions, and I am sure this seems wrong
This suggests that homotopic elements of your first space are sent to diffeomorphic manifolds, yes?
I am not sure I understand. Homotopic elements of my domain space are sent to cobordant manifolds, right?
Your codomain is a disjoint union of BDiff(M)
Elements in the same connected component get sent to the same connected component
So that seems an issue to me.
Ah. Hrm.
The correct codomain space just literally feels like a space where points are $n$-manifolds and paths are bordism between $n$-manifolds
That's exactly the $\infty$-category $\text{Cob}(n)$ you were speaking of
14:14
Hello. This is perhaps a strange question, but I'm looking for two mathematical quantities that can take the place of A and B in the statement 'A is smaller than B'. It would be good if A and B were non-trivial quantities (e.g. not 1 and 2), and even better if they were quantities such that it is an open question in mathematics whether A really is smaller than B. If anyone can give a good pair of quantities, I'd be much obliged.
\coprod BDiff just describes the 0-skeleton of the space, hence the issue
@BalarkaSen Look at the GMTW paper, you'll find it helpful I think
Hi all.
Thanks, reading, @MikeMiller.
15:07
@BalarkaSen are your classes all online now, or did they just cancel them?
We're hanging in the middle. One class is happening online, nothing else.
Wild.
One of mine basically just handed us the lecture notes and called it a day. The other two are trying to use Zoom and stuff.
15:28
Afternoon all
Hi Eddie
Ed, Eddie, Eddy, E-dog, ...
Waddduppppp
It's unusual for someone to write Eddie instead of Eddy lol
Really? That was my gut feeling
Yeah it was my nickname as a child but always with -ie, and everyone always spelt it wrong ahaha
Wild.
15:43
crazy tiiiiimes
16:04
Eddie Murphy baby.
Or Eddie Van Halen.
Or Eddie Munster.
Always "Eddie". :-D
5
Q: Is the use of the sigmoid as the activation of the last layer of a neural network theoretically justified?

AIM_BLBNeural networks are commonly used for classification tasks, in fact from this post it seems like that's where they shine brightest. When we want to classify using NNs, we just take the last layer to take values in $[0,1]$; typically, by taking the last layer to be the sigmoid function $x \maps...

@courge9 Ed, Edd, and Eddy, though...
Yeah, true...
16:19
Given a map $f : X \to \Omega^n S^n$ from a compact manifold $X$, this gives rise to a proper map $F : X \times \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ which we can make transverse to $0$ and pullback to get a submanifold $F^{-1}(0) = M$ of $X \times \Bbb R^n$ with normal bundle $\nu = (dF)^*(T_0 \Bbb R^n)$ which is rank $n$ trivial, so we have an isomorphism $TM \oplus \varepsilon^n \cong TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$.
This is a stable isomorphism $TM \to TX$ which covers the projection $M \to X$ I think
16:32
Should be a bit more precise. It's an isomorphism $TM \oplus \nu \cong T(X \times \Bbb R^n)|_M \cong \pi^* TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$, where $\pi : M \to X$ is restriction of the projection $X \times \Bbb R^n \to X$.
So that's the stable isomorphism $TM \to \pi^* TX$ (aka isomorphism $TM \oplus \varepsilon^n \to \pi^* TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$) of bundles over $M$ so a stable isomorphism $TM \to TX$ covering $\pi : M \to X$.
Let's try conversely. $M, X$ be equidimensional compact manifolds. Suppose $(F, f) : (TM, M) \to (TX, X)$ is a map of pairs such that $F : TM \to TX$ is a stable isomorphism covering $f : M \to X$.
$f$ factors as an embedding and a projection $M \to X \times \Bbb R^n \to X$ for some large $n$ so we get an isomorphism $TM \oplus \nu \cong f^* TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$, so an isomorphism $TM \oplus \nu \to TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$ covering $f$. Identify $TM \oplus \nu$ with $TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$ using the stable isomorphism $F$ so that we have an isomorphism $TX \oplus \varepsilon^n \to TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$ of bundles over $X$.
Hm, getting a little confused
We have two isomorphisms (1) $TM \oplus \nu \cong (df)^* TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$ and (2) $F : TM \oplus \varepsilon^n \to TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$.
OK, so two isomorphisms $TM \oplus \nu \to TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$ and $TM \oplus \varepsilon^n \to TX \oplus \varepsilon^n$ covering $f : M \to X$. Certainly this means $\nu \cong \varepsilon^n$ as bundles over $M$
17:08
Ok, so the map is probably given by collapsing everything outside a little neighborhood of $M$ in $X \times \Bbb R^n$, which gives $\Sigma^n X \to \text{Th}(\nu) \to S^n$ where the last map is induced from the proper diffeomorphism $\nu \to M \times \Bbb R^n$ composed with $M \times \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$
So that's $X \to \Omega^n S^n$
That should mean $\Omega^\infty S^\infty$ classifies all stable isomorphisms $TM \to TX$ (aka isomorphism $TM \oplus \varepsilon^n_M \to TX \oplus \varepsilon^n_X$) covering $M \to X$ upto concordance, i.e., stable isomorphisms $(F_1, f_1), (F_2, f_2) : (TM_0, M_0), (TM_1, M_1) \to (TX, X)$ are concordant if there is a stable isomorphism $(F, f) : (TW, W) \to (TX, X)$ such that $W$ is a manifold with boundary $\partial W = M_0 \sqcup M_1$ and $(F, f)$ restricts to $(F_i, f_i)$ on $M_i$)
Maybe should do it with $X \times I$ on the base
Otherwise doesn't make sense
17:26
@solisoc this isn't quite the kind of example you wanted, but you can frame stuff like "Are there any odd perfect numbers" in a similar way. Let A be the set of even perfect numbers and B be the set of perfect numbers. One certainly has that A is a subset of B (if it's an even perfect number, then it's perfect). What's open is whether there's odd perfect numbers. If there aren't, then actually A=B. So that's analogous to "we know A isn't bigger than B, but we don't know if B is bigger than A."
Another route would be via the Riemann hypothesis. There's a bunch of results of the following form: "Let X be the largest difference between the real part of a Riemann zeta zero and 1/2. Then X does not exceed Y."
for some choice of Y
The Riemann hypothesis is that this is true no matter what (positive) Y you pick
which amounts to X=0.
17:49
@Balarka jesus
A @balarka, where are the moving frames?!
Hi demonic @Alessandro
@EdwardEvans in the US it's always Eddie.
@EnjoysMath Link does not work for me
@TedShifrin interesting
didn't know that :P
also hey @TedShifrin and @Alessandro
17:55
Hi @Edward
You eating your neighbours yet, @Alessandro ?
Nah, that'll be next week
Ah nice, first neighbours' pets
The UK government has realised that its policy was totally wrong and very damaging and is now scrambling to turn the situation around
rofl
@EdwardEvans Your humor is darker than my basement
well, I'm saying "rofl" but it's sad really, I just use "rofl" and "lol" as bookends
17:59
Hmm, we should buy you some nicer bookends.
I blame the leaders of the countries
There are a lot of incompetent ones, yes.
big corporations are the leaders of the countries and those are to blame
The US went from "don't worry, everything is fine, we don't need any particular measure" to being the third country in the world by number of cases as soon as they started testing for them (also looks well on its way to overtake Italy and China in the next few days)
What a surprise, who would have guessed...
18:08
The testing is still almost non-existent. Worst possible time to have idiots like Tromp and Johnson.
it is all about money if you think about it, they are aware of the dangerous situation but choose not to act and lie to people just so they keep them working . the ones who can afford it has been taking safe measurements from the start .
Trump is a business man so nothing he said is for the best of the people , just his pocket and the pockets of his surroundings
@TedShifrin Oops :)
18:24
@TedShifrin Too late in many places at this point, testing en masse would lead to greater spread (at least in CA, NY, IL). Probably already the case everywhere, but obviously we will never know.
 
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r9m
r9m
20:29
ugh .. there goes 200 points down the drain I guess .. :( waste
 
1 hour later…
21:56
@MikeMiller Why we still need to test widely (538), even when we believe it's so widespread as to defy containment.
22:20
I think testing "en masse" means large gatherings of people wanting to get tested @nitsua60
> a group of people do something en masse, they do it together and at the same time:
drive-thu testing is a good idea
22:44
in English Language & Usage: Multi-Layered Discourse Room, 2 mins ago, by skullpatrol
They should turn all drive-thru restaurants into testing stations, immediately.
pipe dream^
Bob
Bob
23:23
Does anybody here have a good model to tell me when the situation in the US will peak?
@JackOhara that's because I deleted it, algorithm turned out to be a bad performer
23:51
if a vaccine is found, then those drive-thru testing stations can become vaccination centres.
smoke^ from the pipe
Don't smoke crack
^_^

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