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01:05
@mercio hi
I have a question that is probably trivial for anyone familiar with CFT
02:04
Quick question, in my differential equations class, sometimes the solutions involve taking antiderivatives, other times using integrals whose lower bounds are arbitrary constants. Are these the same thing?
taking an antiderivative is the same as integrating
It definitely is not.
integrals with lower and upper bounds as constants are called definite integrals
Integration is only related to antiderivatives when the conditions for the fundamental theorem of calculus are satisfied. Conceptually the two are very different, and beyond single-variable calculus the distinction becomes significant
Howdy
@JohnDoe Let $a$ be an arbitrary constant. $\int_a^x f(t) dt = f(x) - f(a)$. $f(a)$ is an arbitrary constant in itself
02:12
JohnDoe it sounds like you know the answer to your own question
@SirCumference But that should still be different from writing an antiderivative like $f(x) + C$. $C$ can be anywhere in the real number line, whereas $f(a)$ is restricted to the image of $f$.
Shouldn't writing one instead of the other affect the solution?
Huh. Lemme think
You're saying the set of integrals with arbitrary lower bounds should be a subset of the antiderivatives?
Well at the very least, different.
02:29
What's the simplest latex package? Just for producing latexed PDFs.
All these different packages and subpackages are confusing.
02:54
ask here^
Are nonnegative measurable functions always bounded? I am reading a proof in Fatou's Lemma and it asserts that if $g_n = \inf(f_n, f_{n+1}, \dots \}$ increases to $\lim \inf f_n$. How do we know it will increase to $\lim \inf f_n$? Don't we need to know it is bounded first and then we can define $\sup g_n$?
@Hawk no, measurable functions are not always bounded.
you're taking the pointwise $\operatorname{lim inf}$
03:10
Everyone it's that time of week again! Gonna work through something for real this time and to make sure I stay focused I'll give commentary. Stay tuned
@Hawk limes inferior is defined for any sequence, but it might be $-\infty$
@MatheinBoulomenos pointwise? i still don't understand how this implies $g_n \to \liminf f_n$?
oh
but
oh we allow -\infty
Hmm, okay gonna try to convince myself fully that $\sum_{a=1}^{p-1} (\frac{a}{p}) \zeta_p^a = \sqrt{p^*}$
is it definition then, that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \inf_{k \geq n} (f_k) = \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n$ or is this something that needs to be proven?
yes it's definition
I mean, there exist other defintions, but it's a pretty common one
03:14
so now this means that $\sup_n \inf_{ k \geq n} f_k \leq \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n$. What is the justification for reverse inequality?
note that the sequence $g_n$ is pointwise monotonously increasing
you're taking the inf of subsequently smaller sets, this can only make things larger
right...and?
ah sorry I meant that $\operatorname{lim inf}$ can be $\infty$
@Hawk if you have an increasing sequence, then the limit is equal to the supremum
that extends to even here? because we are allowing \infty = \sup...here
I can only see a true
03:19
@Hawk yes, if the sequence diverges to infinity, then both the supremum and the lim inf are $\infty$
@si
@MatheinBoulomenos, will you please look at my post?
@Silent (A) is wrong (it's diagonizable, but not necessarily diagonal), (B), (C), (D) are true.
I can provide proofs if you want. How much linear algebra do you know?
03:26
@MatheinBoulomenos I think c is true because if $A^2=I$ then $(PAP^{-1})^2=I$ where $P$ is non-singular, right?
@Silent that's the idea, yeah. But you still have to check that $PAP^{-1}$ actually gives you infinitely many distinct matrices. If $A$ is a scalar multiple of the identity, then this is always equal to $A$
Also, can we do b and d without minimal polynomial?
@MatheinBoulomenos ok, so, $\begin{pmatrix}-1&0\\ 0&1\end{pmatrix}$ will be a good choice to go, right?
man how do people figure out all these weird tricky integral tricks
some of them are crazy
03:30
yeah, try to conjugate it with some infinite family of matrices (e.g. think of row operations and what matrices represent them)
Still thinking how to b and d without minimal polynomials
@MatheinBoulomenos no, its ok :}
how do u do it with min polynomials?
Please let me know why or why not $x^2-1$ is minimal polynomial
03:33
We have that $A^2-I=0$
So the minimal polynomial divides $x^2-1$
actually what is e-value on?
it doesn't say
Well, if you know your matrix is diagonalizable over $\mathbb{R}$, you know it has some eigenvalues
@Daminark that's the tricky part, though
There's a clever to do it by passing to $\Bbb C$ and then doing a trick I learned from representation theory (though you can describe it only with linear algebra)
The only divisors of $x^2-1$ are $x^2-1$ itself $x-1$ and $x+1$. But if it was $x-1$, then $A$ would be $I$ and if it was $x-1$, then $A$ would be $-I$
So it is asking eigen values of A^2?
Hmm, well, if you know that $T^2 v = v$, then $T(Tv + v) = Tv + v$
03:35
@MatheinBoulomenos But those conditions are ruled out in question hence $x^2-1$ is indeed minimal. thanks.
So to show that 1 is an eigenvalue you need to find some $v$ such that $Tv + v\ne 0$, but since $T \ne -I$ that should be possible
what if your field has characterstic two so $-1 = 1$ 🤔
oh, wow
nvm, it's over $\Bbb R$
how boring
Sniped again
03:38
:44897274 s n i p e d
@LeakyNun according to our current knowledge, $\Bbb R$ does not have characteristic $2$
3
shit
@MatheinBoulomenos how boring
Oh speaking of that, funny thing
yeah, characteristic 2 is the best
so many things go wrong
03:38
I'm a bit agitated due to lack of sleep (04:39 AM)
In combo we talked a bit about multilinear functions because we used the wedge product to prove a theorem of Bollobás
@Daminark that's pretty slick. I was thinkin to much about the generalzation with $A^n=I$ and overlooked that
if A^2-I is minimal polynomial
then A^2-I is also characteristic polynomial
done
@MatheinBoulomenos "with only", not "only with"
@LeakyNun sorry, I don't English very well
@MatheinBoulomenos, since $x^2-1$ is minimal polynomial, hence $1,-1$ both of them are eigenvalues, not just possibilities, right?
03:40
@Silent yes
@Silent right
thanks you
Now, our prof mentioned alternating k-linear functions, and he was like "Okay, so a field is char 2 if 1+1 = 0. I don't feel like talking about characteristic in general but since I defined char 2 I can define char ≠ 2, so prove the converse of this in char ≠ 2"
then work in $\Bbb Q_2$ just because.
that has char 0
03:42
(surely the char of $\Bbb Q_2$ is $2$ right
Rekt
@MatheinBoulomenos e s . i s t . e i n . J o k e
@MatheinBoulomenos something unramified something something closure something something something direct limit
@Daminark did you go to the mariannoffice hours
marijuana?
Nope, kinda woke up at 1PM today :/
03:44
sad
@LeakyNun u holdin?
@MatheinBoulomenos do you know about that?
can you teach me?
Okay now for some weird tricks: take any inner product $\langle .,. \rangle$ on $\Bbb R^2$, then define a new inner product by setting $(v,w):= \langle v,w\rangle + \langle Av,Aw\rangle$. Note that since $A^2=I$, we get $(Av,Aw)=(v,w)$. Thus with respect to this new inner product, $A$ is orthogonal! Thus after choosing an orthonormal basis, $A$ will be a rotation or a rotation composed with a reflection.
But since $A^2=I$, the only possibilities are rotation by $180°$, but that's $-1$, so the last remaining possibility is just a reflection, i.e. $A$ is similar to $\begin{pmatrix}-1&0\\ 0&1\
I'm so geometric right now, Ted would be proud
you've lived up to the title of his Book
I haven't read that book
03:49
@LeakyNun I know about $\Bbb Q_2$ yeah
@MatheinBoulomenos I'm talking about unramified extensions
I'm not sure I have time to teach you right now
that, too
of, say, $k((T))$ where $k$ is a finite field
I mean, I took courses on ANT
yeah we covered that as well
03:50
what do you want to know?
what in the world does unramified mean
so my professor says that an unramified map is a local isomorphism
like $z \mapsto z^2$ endomorphism in the Riemann sphere except at 2 points
not sure about that
htat's some geometric stuff
and then he says that this picture will correspond to the scheme picture
we're in algebraic number theory wonderland
then what does unramified mean to you?
03:51
you just have one prime above your prime from the base
he says that $k((T)) \subset k((\sqrt T))$ is unramified because it looks like a square map near some point
talking about the Spec map
@MatheinBoulomenos what does that mean?
if char k =2, that's ramified actually
wait no, that's always ramified
ramified. I mean ramified
square map is ramified
I don't really agree that the map looks like a square map but whatever
I recall something about uniformiser
$\sqrt T$ is the uniformiser in the latter field
03:54
okay so these fields that you have there $\Bbb Q_p$ or $k((T))$ are pretty special. You have a canonical subring given by $\Bbb Z_p$ and $k[[T]]$ respectively and these are local rings, so they have just one maximal ideal
actually they also are PIDs, so they have a unique irreducible element up to a unit
that's $p$ and $T$ respectively
let's look at the inclusion $k[[T]] \hookrightarrow k[[\sqrt T]]$
$(\sqrt T)$ is a prime ideal
so you take the prime ideal from $k[[T]]$
$(T)$
and you extend it to $k[[\sqrt{T}]]$
$(T) = (\sqrt T)^2$
because that's a Dedekind domain (local PID actually), it decomposes as a product of prime ideals
right
so that's ramified
could you define ramified?
03:56
because we have an exponent $\geq2$
in what generality?
5 mins ago, by MatheinBoulomenos
you just have one prime above your prime from the base
just this generality
I just don't understand it
okay just having one prime in the base isn't the only thing special about $\Bbb Q_p$ or $k((T))$ here
Let's assume that you have two rings $R$ $S$ an injective homomorphism $R \hookrightarrow S$ and both $R$ and $S$ have only one non-zero prime ideal and they are PIDs and the morphism has the property that it doesn't send non-units to units, so proper ideals stay proper
so let $\mathfrak{p}$ be the unique maximal ideal in $R$ (using fraktur is important), then we can look at the extension $\mathfrak{p}S$
that's some ideal inside $S$ and by assumption it's proper
so we know it's some power of the unique maximal ideal $\mathfrak{q}$ inside $S$ (unique factorization, we have a PID)
so $\mathfrak{p}=\mathfrak{q}^n$ for some $n \geq 1$. If $n=1$, then this is an unramified extension
else it is ramified
there are various generalizations, that's the simplest case possible, basically
Hey @MikeMiller
oh and uniformizers are just generators of the respective unique non-zero prime ideal
since we have PIDs, you could also do everything with elements instead of ideals
what does this p=q^n thing translate geometrically?
04:03
why obfuscate the algebra with geometry?
I guess under some vague analogies it's like how the map $z \mapsto z^n$ behaves around the origin
because I need to do geometry lol
you need geometry, but only need this simple case of the definition?
I don't know
algebraically you can also say that unramified means that if you extend your prime ideal, it's still prime
I personally think of factorization of primes for intuition about ramification and not about Riemann surfaces
04:08
but everyone's different in that regard, I guess
Hi @Mathei
Very silly sanity check: holomorphic maps between complex manifolds preserve orientation, right?
I feel this should be obvious
it's basically a LA statement: if you take a $\Bbb C$-linear automorphism of a finite-dimensional vector space and then consider it as an $\Bbb R$-linear map, then it has positive determinant
but why is that true?
I guess you can JNF everything and then choose your $\Bbb R$-basis such that the non-real eigenvalues become some \begin{pmatrix}a&b\\ -b&a\end{pmatrix}$ block and you still have a lower block matrix with 2x2 blocks on the diagonal
@MatheinBoulomenos The stupid reason is GL_n(C) is connected
yeah that should work
@MikeMiller that's much simpler
and it's connected because by GAGA analytically connected is equivalent to Zariski connected and in the Zariski topology, it's a dense subset of affine $n^2$-space
I guess that's not the standard proof
@Mathei All the 2 x 2 blocks commute, right? So det(A) is det(matrix of 2 x 2 blocks) = Det(the complex determinant considered as a 2 x 2 matrix) = 1
04:18
wait, the determinant of that block is $a^2+b^2$
I don't see how the complex determinant comes in
Then I have explained poorly, I think
Wait, if $L/K$ is finite Galois, then we have $\operatorname{det}_{K} \circ \operatorname{Res}^L_K = N_{L/K} \circ \operatorname{det}_{L}$
The determinant of the matrix of 2 x 2 blocks is taken by considering the 2 x 2 blocks to be part of a commutative algebra, right? And that commutative algebra happens to be C
Also I agree, a^2 + b^2 is not 1, my b. But it is positive!
@MikeMiller I don't see how the commutative algebra thing is relevant, tbh. We just have a lower diagonal block matrix. That our blocks live inside some algebra (commutative or not) doesn't matter for computing the determinant
@MikeMiller the reason I was asking this is because I think I found some proof (that's probably not new) of FTA based on computing some Lefschetz numbers
The JNF thing is not very elegant
@MatheinBoulomenos No, I am sorry. I'm not using your JNF argument. I am considering an arbitrary matrix of complex numbers, then considered as a $2n \times 2n$ matrix of real numbers, whose 2 x 2 blocks all commute with one another.
04:25
ohh, now I see what you're doing
It is then a theorem that the determinant of the 2n x 2n matrix may be computed by taking the determinant of the n x n matrix of 2 x 2 matrices, and then taking the determinant of the resulting 2 x 2 matrix.
true
okay, I think 4 different proofs are enough to convince me
I think this is probably the "right" proof in my mind, just uses straight linear algebra
I like the formula $\operatorname{det}_{K} \circ \operatorname{Res}^L_K = N_{L/K} \circ \operatorname{det}_{L}$
and comes down to det(a + ib) = a^2 + b^2, considering that complex number as a 2 x 2 matrix
Oh I had missed that
04:27
I haven't checked the proof that I have in mind
but it looks too nice to not be true
Can you remind me what the norm map is in general? I have long forgotten
The averaging map I was talking to you about before in group cohomology is also sometimes called the 'norm map' so I got confused for a second when trying to understand that formula
Suppose $L/K$ is separable and finite, then the norm map is given by $x \mapsto \prod_{\sigma \in \operatorname{Hom}_K(L,K^{sep})} \sigma(x)$ where we take the (finitely many) embeddings into a fixed separable closure
If $L/K$ is Galois, then this is just the norm map from group cohomology on $L^\times$
So for $\Bbb C/\Bbb R$, we have $N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2$
it's basically the fact that the image under the norm of $\Bbb C^\times$ is $\Bbb R_{>0}$ again, like in the proof of the classification of associative division algebras over $\Bbb R$
number theorists use these norm maps basically always
Okay, this makes sense, it is still averaging
There is still a norm map in non-separable cases?
yeah
you can still take embeddings into some algebraic closure and then you take some power to make it have the right homogenity
So in general $x \mapsto (\prod_{\sigma \in \operatorname{Hom}_K(L,K^{alg})} \sigma(x))^{[L:K]_{insep}}$, where $[L:K]_{insep}=[L:K]/|\operatorname{Hom}_K(L,K^{alg})|$
makes sense
04:41
@MikeMiller anyway, the thing I was actually using the orientation-preserving thing for: if $f: \Bbb{CP}^n \to \Bbb{CP}^n$ is orientation-preserving, then it has a fixed point, right? Since if we take a generator $x$ of $H^2(\Bbb{CP}^n)$, then we get $H^2(f)x=ax$ for some $a$. But since $x$ generates the cohomology ring, we get that $H^{2k}(f)x^k=a^kx^k$. Now if $n$ is odd, then $a$ must be positive for this to be orientation preserving.
So the Lefschetz number is $1+a+a^2+\dots+a^n$ and this is always non-zero since either $n$ is even or $a$ is positive
Indeed
This implies FTA: if $f \in \Bbb C[x]$ is a non-constant polynomial, assume wlog $f(0) \neq 0$. Then take a matrix with $f$ as a characteristic polynomial, which will be invertible, so it induces some holomorphic map $\Bbb{CP}^n \to \Bbb{CP}^n$, which must thus have a fixed point. But this means that the original matrix leaves some 1-d subspaces invariant, so it has an eigenvalue, thus $f$ has a root
Hey @TobiasKildetoft
@MatheinBoulomenos Hi
@TobiasKildetoft one of my friends has a problem with a statement from a source for his bachelor thesis
it's about representations of algebraic groups
So we have $G=\operatorname{GL}_n(\Bbb F_q)$ where $q=p^n$ and $T$ is some maximal torus, say given by diagonal matrices. We're considering representations in some fiel of characteristic $p$. (We can assume algerbaically closed if it simplifies things) $A$ and $B$ are $G$-modules. Then it is stated without proof, or any indication that it is non-trivial that if $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic as $T$-modules, then they have the same composition factors as $G$-modules
Do you know why this is true?
He looked at simple $G$-modules and saw that they are isomorphic over $T$ iff they are isomorphic over $G$, but I don't see how that is enough
@MatheinBoulomenos I have seen this proof, I like it. Here's a similar one: if $L / \Bbb C$ is a finite division algebra, then $\Bbb PL = (L \setminus 0)/\Bbb C^\times$ is a Lie group. In particular, multiplication by any nonidentity element is a map homotopic to the identity with no fixed points, so Lefschetz says $\chi(\Bbb PL) = 0$ if there are non-identity elements; but $\chi(\Bbb PL) = \dim L + 1$. So $\dim L = 0$ (and there are no non-identity elements).
"connected compact Lie group"
04:56
that's nice
there really are a lot of proofs for FTA
yeah @MatheinBoulomenos
what's your favorite? It will probably be new to me
Let $K$ be an ordered field with the following properties:
- any odd degree polynomial over $K$ has a root in $K$
- any positive element has a square root in $K$
Then we claim that $L=K(\sqrt{-1})$ is algebraically closed, so an algebraic closure of $K$.
It follows from the quadratic formula and the second condition on $K$ that any quadratic over $L$ has a root in $L$, because $L$ is closed under taking square roots
Suppose $F/L$ is a non-trivial finite extension. By passing to a Galois closure (everything is separable, since we have char 0 due to the ordering), we may assume that $F/K$ is Galois. Let $G=\operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$ and $H$ be a $2$-Sylow subgroup of $G$. Then $F^H$ is some odd degree extension of $K$, which must be equal to $K$ due to the first condition on $K$. This shows that $G=H$, so $G$ is a $2$-group. Thus $\operatorname{Gal}(F/L)$ must also be a 2-group as a subgroup of G
We know from group theory that a maximal subgroup in a p-group has index p, so let take some index 2 subgroup $W$ in $\operatorname{Gal}(F/L)$. Then $F^W/L$ is a degree 2 extension, but this is impossible since all quadratics over $L$ split
to check that $K=\Bbb R$ satisfies the two properties, we only need the intermediate value theorem
(that's why I carefully separated the pure algebra from the analysis)
@MatheinBoulomenos Well, if he knows that being isomorphic over $T$ implies being isomorphic over $G$, then that also means they have the same composition factors.
@TobiasKildetoft that's only for simple modules, though
05:10
Ahh, right. But then it follows by going to the Grothendieck group
But the way I would prove these things relies on knowing that all of these things comes from the algebraic group side
What if we have simple module over $G$ that decomposes over $T$ as $X^2+Y$ and the other one decomposes over $T$ as $X+Y^2$ and yet other ones decompose as $X^3$ and $Y^3$, where $X$ and $Y$ are simple modules over $T$
then the condition that simple modules that are isomorphic over T are isomorphic over G is still satisfied
@MatheinBoulomenos The "proper" statement here is that the simple modules are linearly independent in the Grothendieck group
And considering something as a $T$-module is precisely the same as going to the Grothendieck group
but we can write down two modules over G that are isomorphic over T with different decompostion factors
this is the same Grothendieck group as in the third part of Serre?
Possibly
It is the Grothendieck group of the category of finite dimensional $G$-modules
Actually, that this is the same as considering $T$-modules is basically what we are claiming here
So I suppose that is the crux of the matter
I need to drop off the kids at daycare and school now. Be back a bit later.
@TobiasKildetoft okay, thanks for your help!
@MikeMiller that proof is just one part (probably the easiest) of an equivalence that basically states that any field has a finite, but non-trivial absolute Galois group looks more or less like $\Bbb R$ (at least algebraically) in the sense that it satisfies those two conditions
that sentence is missing something
I meant to say that a field satisfies these two conditions iff it has finite non-trivial absolute Galois group
05:30
@Mathein what's absolute Galois group? That of its algebraic closure?
separable closure
so basically yeah
05:46
Oh tru
In Riemann surfaces land - every map of Riemann surfaces locally look like the map $z\mapsto z^n$. When $n>1$ this map is ramified. Intuitively away from the point $0$, each point hss $n$ distinct preimages - but they come together as you approach the origin.

In algebraic geometry land - the projection $y=x^2$ to the axis $y=0$ is ramified at the point $(0,0)$. Draw the picture - and you see that generically each point has two distinct preimages which are coming together as you approach $(0,0)$. In a sense you can say that your map is ramified if you have less than your expected number of
@loch but how does the map $\operatorname{Spec} k[[\sqrt{x}]] \to \operatorname{Spec} k [[x]]$ "look like" $z \mapsto z^2$? I don't get that statement
@loch hi
we only have one closed point and one generic point
how is the sheaf map defined?
lemme find what my prof said
05:57
One the whole space you have the inclusion $k[[x]] \hookrightarrow k[[\sqrt{x}]]$ on the generic point (which is open), you have the inclusion $k((x)) \hookrightarrow k((\sqrt{x}))$
> Do you realise that you should think of this space -- one open point and one closed point -- as like a small open disc?
sagt mein Prof
> The centre is the closed point
and all the other points are the open point
they're the stuff that's "close to zero, but not actually zero"
That's the generic fibre
That's k((T))
hail his wisdom
I still don't see the similarity to $z \mapsto z^2$
we always have one preimage
so far, we don't have anything about the map $\operatorname{Spec} k[[\sqrt{x}]] \to \operatorname{Spec} k [[x]]$ that couldn't be said about the identity on $\operatorname{Spec} k[[x]]$
@Mathei Nice! I think I have seen this before but this is probably the cleanest exposition
o. .o
@mercio hola como estas
06:03
estoy bien
@MatheinBoulomenos After thinking about it some more, I have concluded that by far the easiest argument uses that we know about the relationship between the finite group of Lie type and the corresponding algebraic group
I don't see any particularly easy way to avoid that.
@TobiasKildetoft do you have some keywords to look for?
does anyone know where @BalarkaSen is? he hasn't been online for more than a day and, not knowing his activity habits well enough i'm a bit worried because he didn't say anything beforehand.
> By Grothendieck, Galois theory is like covering spaces
The punctured open unit disc has fundamental group isomorphic to Z
so there's a unique unramified cover of degree n for each n
(deleted)
wait that's not right
those covers are unramified covers of the torus
but they ramify at the closed point
Those covers are k((T^{1/n})
@MatheinBoulomenos The idea is that any simple module for the finite group is the restriction of one for the algebraic group
So we just need to show it for the algebraic group (keeping a bit of track of what might happen when we restrict from the maximal torus of the algebraic group to that of the finite group, but this part is quite easy to see)
06:08
@MatheinBoulomenos I guess in the open point, the uniformiser is sent to the square of the uniformiser?
@LeakyNun yes. That's the purely algebraic defintion.
it's true on the open and on the closed point
> I'm using the fundamental duality in Galois theory
The ramified function is from Spec(R') to Spec(R)
it's a map from a small disc to a small disc
and the question is whether it's a local isomorphism near the origin
and the weird thing is that if we make the residue field bigger
then it satisfies the "e=1" criterion for being a local isomorphism
or at least being unramified
the field got bigger
so Grothendieck said that an extension of fields must be unramified
(strictly speaking a separable extension)
I think intuitively you should be thinking of them as neighbourhoods about the origin for the map $k[x] \rightarrow k[y]$ mapping $x\mapsto y^2$, but I'm slightly hesitant about this because I think there are these things called formal schemes for these things which I've never read.

But of course you can choose some actual DVRs, for example $\mathrm{Spec} k[x,y]/(y-x^2)_{(x,y)} \rightarrow \mathrm{Spec} k[x]_{(x)}$, and you have this problem with both spaces having one closed point and one generic point (because they are DVRs). Morally your generic point of the DVR is including some data a
@loch what is the origin?
and DVR?
oh, discrete valuation ring?
06:12
why do you write things like $k[[ \sqrt x ]]$ and $k[[x]]$ when you could be writing $k[[y]]$ and $k[[y^2]]$ instead
okay, so the explanation why it's like $z \mapsto z^2$ needs étale fundamental groups
@MatheinBoulomenos so why?
it seems you understood my quote
yeah it makes sense now
good
my professor knows what's going on, you know what's going on, and I have no idea
oh - so I would like to say I am thinking of $\mathrm{Spec} k[[x]]$ is something like the analytic neighbourhood of \mathrm{Spec} k[x]$ at $0$, but I'm slightly unsure about this (for the same reason as above) - maybe I should read about them later today.
06:13
well, there is some subtlety when $n=\operatorname{char}(k)$
@MatheinBoulomenos Anyway, the statement that the simples are restrictions of ones from the algebraic group is not trivial, but it is probably fundamental anyway to understanding anything about this situation
I guess the fundamental group of the punctured disk is actually $\prod_{q \neq p} \Bbb Z_q$ where $p=\operatorname{char}(k)$
@LeakyNun If you like these things you can read "Galois Groups and Fundamental Groups"
And once that is on place, the statements for the algebraic group are fairly easy, using all the root system stuff that becomes available.
Since the Frobenius $k^\times \to k^\times$ is not etale
@TobiasKildetoft thanks a lot! I'll pass this along to my friend
06:17
@MatheinBoulomenos The "standard" reference for this is Humphreys' book, but that is written at a very advanced level and basically assumes one to be familiar with most of Jantzen's book as well.
@LeakyNun that is really eye-opening, thanks to your professor
@MatheinBoulomenos aber kannst du meine Augen offnen?
@TobiasKildetoft the thing is, he doesn't know algebraic groups, he only needs some facts about $GL(n, \Bbb F_q)$, because that comes up in the function field analog of modular forms
@MatheinBoulomenos hi
@mercio hi
06:20
apparently you were there when my laptop woke up at 3am and it made me log in into here
yeah, you appeared as online
@MatheinBoulomenos I also have a detailed explanation of some of this in my thesis pure.au.dk/portal/da/persons/…
I know a tiny bit about CFT if you still have that question
But I will need to think about whether there is a more direct argument. The main issue that is hard to avoid is that we need to somehow distinguish linear combinations of the simples, and this is usually done by noting that each has a unique highest weight with weight space of dimension $1$, and that these highest weights uniquely determine the module
@mercio So the question is: we know that the Galois group of the Hilbert class field is the ideal class group and the Galois group of the narrow Hilbert class field is the narrow ideal class group. Is there some simple description of some kind of "class group" that is isomorphic to the maximal abelian extension unramified outside some non-archimedean prime? I only know the idelic formulation and it's not quite clear what happens in terms of ideals
06:25
hmm probably not
oh wait
well ,ray class groups correspond to maximal abelian extension with some controlled ramification in a finite number of primes
which is kinda the opposite of what you want ?
but wait, isn't the ray class group just the subgroup of the ideal subgroup of those ideals coprime to $p$?
so you can probably take their limit
in the case where we allow ramification at $p$
no it's not a subgroup of the ideal class group
you know how you quotient by principal ideals in order to make the ideal class group ?
yeah that was nonsense
06:29
well if you quotient by principal ideals who have a generator congruent to 1 mod p, you get a ray class group
I think
which is bigger than the normal class group since you are not quotienting with as many things
Hom(GL1^n,GL1) = Z^n
and if you want to include the archimedean primes, the 1 mod p condition turns into "is positive in the embedding into R"
Hom(GL1,GL1^n) = ?
@mercio okay that cleared things up, thanks
so then you would want to take the limit of those things with the conditions 1 mod p, 1 mod p², 1 mod p3 and so on
06:32
So we get something with $1+\Bbb Z_p$?
@TobiasKildetoft thanks a lot! I will pass this all along to my friend
in Q's case, the abelian extensions that are only ramified at p are the Q(cos(2pi/p^n))
@mercio could we describe this in terms of embeddings to some p-adic field somehow?
there is probably something to be said because of how the chain O/(p^n) looks like a bunch of Zp
iirc the limit group is abstractly isomorphic to (a finite group) * (a finite product of copies of Zp)
@LeakyNun The point is that the map $k((T)) \to k((\sqrt{T}))$ is actually unramified, assuming that char k is not 2, because any separable extension of fields is unramified
what does unramified mean here?
06:39
0
Q: Test the series for convergence or divergence

ApplepieTest the series for convergence or divergence (a) $$\sum_{n=2}^\infty{1\over{{(\ln n)}^{\ln n}}}$$ (b) $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty{(\sqrt[n]{2}-1)}$$ and I found out that these two are some what converging but don't know how to reason it. Please help!! Now I think I got (b) so Please help with ...

@LeakyNun A split torus has the same group of characters and cocharacters (i.e. those two Hom spaces are the same)
Can you verify my answer?
@LeakyNun
@TobiasKildetoft are they related?
@LeakyNun Not sure what you mean by related
@LeakyNun basically the definition for schemes is such that this is unramified by definition
06:41
"co" suggests some sort of a duality
@LeakyNun right, characters are maps to the multiplicative group, and cocharacters and maps from it
is there a notion of a module dual to an abelian group?
@MatheinBoulomenos the maximal abelian extension unramified outside p should have Galois group (Op)*/U where Op is the limit of the (O/p^n), the * is for group of invertible, and U is the image of the unit group of O into that
and if you want to include archimedean primes you only pick units that are totally positive
I see
06:44
and maybe I should multiply that with the class group
@mercio I think we have to take the closure of U or take a profinite completion, since that doesn't look profinite
Op isn't profinite ?
no, Op is profinite, but U is not closed in (Op)* I think
probably not
But (Op)*/U is an infinite group, shouldn't the maximal abelian unramified outside of p be a finite extension?
06:47
I don't think so, look at all the Q(cos(2pi/p^n))
oh, so it's the union of that
I see
I guess it's the limit of the (O/p^n)*/(U mod p^n)
it's probably nicer with adeles or ideles
:s
@mercio thanks a lot! that looks good
one nice thing that doesn't show is that you should be able to predict the size of (U mod p^n) as n grows
(and this is the point where you should start using different letters for an ideal p of O, and a prime number p of Z)
On my notes from a month ago when I was conversing with my friend:

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