« first day (2807 days earlier)      last day (2512 days later) » 

09:00
@DawoodibnKareem how about you copy this x and just ctrl+v whenever you want to type x
@LeakyNun Good plan!
Zee
Zee
Why don’t you buy a new board ?
Because I don't have to type ecks very often.
Until I come to the Math room.
Zee
Zee
Lol
Use autohotkeys of something similar to get a custom hotkey that prints an x
09:11
@BalarkaSen Actually, just scratching around with pen and paper leads me to believe that the problem can be solved, on the domain where it actually makes sense (that is, for $y \geq 11/4$ where $y = \times^2+\times+3$). There's some unexpected magic going on here, which probably means there's a simpler solution.
Ooh, how unexpected! I could type unexpected!
Why would adopting the given convention make every complex number $(x,y)$ have a unique form $x+iy$? I mean, I don’t see what would be different if we didn’t adopt the convention? Would $\alpha\cdot(x,y)$ then just be undefined?
Yes, $\alpha$ doesn't live in your ring so formally that multiplication doesn't work
right, and how about uniqueness?
So the first thing is to show that $f(x) = 2x-3$ fits the original equation.
@ShaVuklia The uniqueness is really just linear algebra
09:16
I was thinking of that too
but then I realised we have more than a vector space,
but I guess that doesn't matter?
yea
okay
I was stupid
thx
Assume $x+iy=x'+iy'$ and show that $x=x'$ and $y=y'$, which is easy to do
Then Balarka's argument gives us uniqueness for all $x \geq \frac{11}{4}$.
And that is kind of anticlimactic.
@Abcd threw me off by asserting $f(15/4)= 16/3$, which it clearly isn't.
@DawoodibnKareem Yes, but I mean you're still proving $f(x) = 2x - 3$ on $[11/4, \infty)$, no?
Wasn't that your original objection?
No. My objection was that you had failed to prove that it didn't matter which $y$ you chose to put into $g(y)$ if you had $x$ and you had $x = y^2+y+3$.
09:30
Anyway, I think that's now done and dusted. What's next? Or shall I toddle on back to the h-bar?
I'll hit you up when I stumble upon more functional equations now that I know you are a functional equation enthusiast :)
Enthusiastic, but probably not particularly skilled. I was good at them when I was a teenager, but that is far too long ago.
Fair, me neither :)
Meanwhile, great track: youtube.com/watch?v=On7URfIArfE
guys, maybe I should know this, but is it formally allowed to just work with infinite sums like that? I’m talking about the third equality
That's an excellent question. The short answer is that you're allowed if everything converges.
09:45
The Taylor series for $e^z$ is absolutely convergent, so yes
@DawoodibnKareem Well yeah but things like $1 - 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 + \cdots$ is sometimes problematic.
Which converges to $\log(2)$, but it's not absolutely convergent (ie $\sum |a_i|$ converges)
@BalarkaSen Oh, I see what you're saying. It's not obvious that Sha Vuklia's sum is absolutely convergent.
Not totally obvious I'd say, but it is, actually! If $z$ is a complex number, $e^z = \sum_{k = 0}^\infty z^k/k!$, so it's "absolutified" series is $\sum_{k= 0}^\infty |z^k/k!| = \sum_{k = 0}^\infty |z|^k/k!$, but that's just $e^{|z|}$!
@Balarka o right, thx
So $\sum |a_i|$ in fact converges
Yes, it's a little bit obvious, but not totally so.
I shouldn't have made my vague waffly remark about everything converging.
09:51
It's alright :)
the problem is my book defines $e^{z=x+iy}=e^x\cdot e^{iy}$. And then they show that $e^{iy}=\cos y+i\sin y$, assuming "reasonable convergence", like wtf.
I feel confused, even though I know what they're doing. I don't like what they're doing. anyhow, #endrant
o, and they define $e^{iy}=\cos y+i\sin y$
yea, alright it's ok. I was just annoyed for a sec
(I should have written they show that $\sum_{j=0}^\infty\frac{(iy)^j}{j!}=\cos y+i\sin y$, assuming reasonable convergence)
@ShaVuklia just define $e^{iy}$ as $\cos y + i \sin y$
there won't be any problem there, trust me
..not
spot the problem
omg:P
let me see
first of all, this is not going to be a mathematical argument, but my book defines it, and I trust them:P
they define a lot
trust me
maybe you're assuming they don't define everything in a certain way
10:05
how do you define $\cos$
with power series
and $\sin$
then why not just define $e^z$ with power series and then define $\sin$ and $\cos$ in terms of $\exp$
less power series, less problem
I was also annoyed at first
but then I was like, whatever
10:07
alright
Hi, if $v_1$ is the only eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$, but the multiplicity of $\lambda$ is say $m=2$, then why does $(A-\lambda I)v_2 = v_1$ have a solution?
$v_2$ should then be the generalized eigenvector
I know that $(A-\lambda I)^2 = O_\text{mat}$. Does this help me somehow?
@philmcole pick $v$ to be a vector perpendicular to $v_1$
then $(A-\lambda I)^2 v = 0$ but $(A-\lambda I) v \ne 0$
@LeakyNun But still why does this system have a solution in the first place?
For it to be consisten we need $v_1 \in C(A- \lambda I)$. I don't know if that helps me anything
10:22
I haven't finished
so impatient
now let $w = (A-\lambda I)v$
we have $(A-\lambda I)w = 0$ but $w \ne 0$
i.e. $w$ is an eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$
so $w$ is a linear multiple of $v_1$ (at this point you should notice what is wrong with your first sentence)
so let $w = cv_1$
then we see that $c \ne 0$, since $w \ne 0$
so set $v_2 = \frac1c w$
wait that's wrong
let's recap
$w=(A-\lambda I)v$, $(A-\lambda I)w=0$, $w=cv_1$, so $(A-\lambda I)v = cv_1$
right, now, let $v_2 = \frac1c v$
then $(A-\lambda I)v_2 = v_1$ as required, QED
Nice, it's kind of not a direct approach but it works I see. At least if you can pick a $v$ orthogonal to $v_1$.
@LeakyNun what was wrong with my first sentence?
@LeakyNun But what does orthogonal mean without an inner product?
We are only on $\Bbb R^n$ so I guess there is always the standard inner product?
10:29
let's say... pick a vector that is linearly independent of $v_1$
How would you show that $(A- \lambda I)v \neq 0$? When $v$ is orthogonal to $v_1$ then it's easy, since $v_1 \in N(A- \lambda I)$ it must be $v \notin N(A- \lambda I)$.
@philmcole up to a scalar, $v_1$ is the only vector in the kernel of that matrix
(that was part of the assumption you started with)
Yes. I guess this solves my question then. Is this the standard proof of showing that $(A-2I)v_2=v_1$ is consistent?
10:53
I'll try something. Since $v_1 \neq 0$ we need to have $v_2 \notin N(A-2I)$ to begin with. It may not exist but if it does, then it must not be in the nullspace. Now $v_1$ is in the nullspace $N(A-2I)$. So we want to show that the linear map $(A-2I): N(A-2I)^\perp \to N(A-2I)$ is surjective so that for every $v_1 \in N(A-2I)$ there exists $v_2 \in N(A-2I)^\perp$ such that $(A-2I)v_2=v_1$. By some theorem this happens if the map is injective.
A map is injective if its kernel is trivial. But we know that $N\left((A-2I)|_{N(A-2I)^\perp}\right)=\{0\}$ since only $x \in N(A-2I)$ are mapped to zero which we excluded with the complement.
Probably overkill though
 
1 hour later…
12:06
Hi there,
Any suggestions for a good resource(s) for function norms? I've just found out vector norms and matrix norms. No information is found in Calculus textbooks I've read.
12:21
@CroCo you’d probably want a linear algebra book over a calc book. But I’d be curious as well as to a good reference text
guys, is there a smart way to see this equality?
I tried writing it out for $n=1$
where I let $z=x+iy$ and $w=u+iv$
but that yielded in a huge sum
13:01
LOL
13:34
(btw, got an answer for my previous q)
$|z|^2=z\bar z$
(Better late than never)
Thus $|w-z|^2=(w-z)\overline{(w-z)}$${}=(w-z)(\bar w-\bar z)=w\bar w-w\bar z-z\bar w+z\bar z$
${}=|w|^2-(w\bar z+\overline{w\bar z})+|z|^2$
${}=|w|^2-2{\rm Re}(w\bar z)+|z|^2$
Hm… Is this the cosine rule?
Huh, yeah.
'Cause if $w=|w|e^{i\omega}$ and $z=|z|e^{i\zeta}$ then $w\bar z={|w|}{|z|}e^{i(\omega-\zeta)}$
so ${\rm Re}(w\bar z)={|w|}{|z|}\cos(\omega-\zeta)$
Right. You also have that the real part of $(x_1+i y_1)(x_2-i y_2)$ is $x_1x_2+y_1 y_2$
So that’s just the usual dot product
Yeah, we could use vectors rather than complex numbers from the start, with $\|w-z\|=(w-z)\cdot(w-z)=\|w\|^2-2w\cdot z+\|z\|^2$
13:47
Right
Heh, and ${\rm Im}(w\bar z)=\det[w,z]$
modulo a sign
yep, which means it’s basically the cross product
Oh, and then you have the whole pure imaginary quaternion shebang
(View them as 3-vectors in the plane: then the cross product is in the z-direction)
13:51
where the real part of $qr$ is the dot product and the imaginary part is the cross product
Let’s have no Slutsky-shaming here
I guess the connection here is that, in the quaternions, if $w$ is complex (no $j$ or $k$ component) then $wj=j\bar w$.
So $-w\bar z=w(jj)\bar z=(wj)(zj)$
and if $w=w_1+w_2i$, then the latter is $(w_1j+w_2k)(z_1j+z_2k)$
and then the thing I just said about pure imaginary quaternions happens
and the cross product is in the $i$ direction, with two explanations: $w\bar z$ is obviously complex, and the cross product is perpendicular to $w_1j+w_2k$ and $z_1j+z_2k$.
(The real part of $qr$ is the negative of the dot product, sorry)
@BalarkaSen Imagine if Slutsky marries Tits-Cox and does a double name.
Tits-Cox already has a double name
it's a double name but could also be single
13:59
@0celo7 JESUS CHRIST WILL YOU STOP IT
@BalarkaSen lol you've lost it
YES IM HAVING A PTSD NOW
Why didn’t I have another cup of coffee this morning
Oh god.
14:03
A function named after your mother
@BalarkaSen don't tell me you're turning into Jasper? :P
Hmm, is there a special name for a one-form with constant coefficients?
Eg dx+2dy
Constant 1-form? Idk
Hmm
I mean, it’s dual to a constant vector field
@AkivaWeinberger this is actually quite inappropriate
you should be ashamed of yourself
Akiva is going full thonk mode
let's just work on keeping captain freeze out of here, please
Can someone give me a pointer how one would go about computing an expectation like $E[ \min { i | \Sum_{k=0}^i Z_k >= \gamma ]$ (where $Z_k$ iid Bernoulli)? Basically the expectation after how many steps the sum of iid random variables exceeds a threshold. I'm thinking this has something to do with "random walks", but am missing the specifics.
@skullpatrol the math chat is the new ME
14:11
perhaps
Monday, great memories
Is the common appliance a freeze gun
@NikiC the | should be be }
Also, >= in latex is \geq
@Semiclassical \ge
\greaterthanorequalstosymbolplease
So $E\left[ \min_{ i } \sum_{k=0}^i Z_k \geq \gamma \right]$
14:14
why use \geq when \ge works
B/c I didn’t realize \ge worked lol
why use \ge when => works
$A => B$
simple
@Semiclassical $E\left[ \min \{ i \mid \sum_{k=0}^i Z_k \ge \gamma \} \right]$ is what I meant :)
$A\Rightarrow B$
14:18
$A\!\! =\!\! >\!\! B$
My thinking, anyways, would be to start calculating the prob that i=1, 2, 3 ie just a few small values
And then see if you can do an argument (by induction, say) to get the probability for i = n
Once you have that, the expectation should be doable
(There may be a better way, this is just the most obvious approach)
@BalarkaSen did you respond to me
@BalarkaSen Well it seems like, according to this answer, that $\dim S\le n-1-\epsilon$ works, for any $\epsilon>0$.
@BalarkaSen Is there a notion of a set "locally disconnecting" another one?
14:36
dimension is a cardinal
#changemymind
What about $\Bbb R^{1.5}$
15:07
@AkivaWeinberger doesn't exist
I know, was joke
I wonder, can one put a natural topological structure on the set of bijections of $\Bbb R$ with itself?
Or a vector space structure or anything otherwise geometricalish
Oh, they're functions, so sup norm metric?
Zee
Zee
Every set of mappings is associated with a topology
@AkivaWeinberger you can take the subspace topology coming from the product topology $\Bbb R^\Bbb R$
I kinda want to make it a topological group though
Problem: If $\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of measurable functions on the measurable set $E$ that is Cauchy in measure on $E$, then there is a measurable function $f$ such that $f_n \to f$ in measure. Attempt: I have already been able to show that there is a subsequence $\{f_{n_j}\}$ such that $f(x) := \lim_{j \to \infty} f_{n_j}(x)$ exists for each $x \in E$. I don't know how to use this to show that $f_n \to f$ in measure, though...
I was thinking of using the fact that $$\{x \in E : |f_n(x)-f(x)| \ge \eta\} \subseteq \{x \in E : |f_n(x) - f_{n_j}(x)| \ge \eta \} \cup \{x \in E : |f_{n_j}(x) - f(x) | \ge \eta \}, $$ but that would require showing that $f_{n_j} \to f$ in measure...
15:15
@MatheinBoulomenos How does that compare to the sup norm?
Oh, one would be finer probably
the product topology gives you the notion of pointwise convergence and the sup norm gives you uniform convergence
Would they be the same topology though?
Given a metric we can medically induce a topology
oh btw when the functions aren't bounded (which they are never if you assume they're surjective), the sup norm is not actually a norm
True
Given a norm $d$, is $\tanh(d)$ a norm? Yeah, yeah?
I mean - It is, isn't it?
I never saw the supnorm for unbounded functions tbh so I'm not sure what you get
15:20
Assuming by bijections you mean homeomorphisms theres a few (compact open/uniform convergence/pointwise convergence).
Nah I mean like (excuse the notation) $\Bbb R!$
So all bijections
$|S!|=|S|!$
!
Gotta go
That sounds utterly pointless.
why do you expect anything natural in this case? I mean, anything natural would make use of the topology on $\Bbb R$, but if you don't include that information in the definition on the set, why should there be a topology that cares for the topology on $\Bbb R$
the natural topology for a purely set-theoretic object is the discrete toplogy
I guess that's a nicer way of saying what I said, but I'm not sure it should be said a nicer way.
How do I show this? Let $X$ be a Banach space. Prove that $ \{ J(W) : W \in \sigma(X,X^*) \} \subset \sigma(X^{*},X^)$
Let $X$ be a Banach space. Prove that $$\{ J(W) : W \in \sigma (X, X*) \} \subseteq \sigma (X**,X*)$$.
15:35
There's a lot of notation there I don't know.
Is this asking you to show pullbacks or evaluations or something are bounded?
@Semiclassical Huh, in the end I got that the solution is trivial, just ceil(gamma)/p
I thought that would just be an approximation, not the exact solution
neat.
how did you approach it? in retrospect, the smart way is probably to find the probability that n-1 Bernoulli r.v.s add to gamma-1
and then multiplying this probability by p gives the probability of needing at least n r.v.s to get gamma
If I have a tower of field extensions $\Bbb Q\subseteq K_1\subseteq \cdots\subseteq K_n$ with $|K_i:K_{i-1}|=2$ for all $i$ (so that $|K_n:\Bbb Q|=2^n$) is there a simple explanation of why the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ has only terms of even degree where $\alpha$ is a primite element of $K_n$?
16:05
Can we express Curl in terms of antisymmetrization bracket?
@AlessandroCodenotti That's not true. Consider $\Bbb Q \subset \Bbb Q(\sqrt{5}) \subset \Bbb Q(\zeta_5)$. The minimal polynomial of $\zeta_5$ is $x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1$
Aha! I knew there was something wrong
@BAYMAX not sure what you mean by that. But you can write curl using the Levi-Civita symbol as $$\text{curl }\vec{A} = \sum_{i,j,k=1}^3 \epsilon_{ijk}\,\hat{x}_i \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} A_k$$
the counterexample can be generalized: Suppse $K/ \Bbb Q$ is Galois such that $\operatorname{Gal}(K/\Bbb Q)$ is cyclic of order $4$, then the minimal polynomial of a primitive element can't have only terms of even degree
or in index form $(\text{curl }\vec{A})_i = \sum_{j,k} \epsilon_{ijk} \partial_{j} A_k$ where I've used the subscript form of $\partial/\partial x_j$ b/c I can't be arsed
16:19
hmm I see
Does this argument make sense? I have a tower $$\Bbb Q\subseteq \Bbb Q(i)\subseteq \Bbb Q(i,\sqrt{2})\subseteq \Bbb Q(i,\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})\subseteq \Bbb Q(i,\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3},\sqrt{5})=K$$ and I know that degree $2$ extensions are Galois. The two automorphism of $K$ fixing the third extension are the identity and $\sqrt{5}\mapsto-\sqrt{5}$ so those are also in $\operatorname{Gal}(K/\Bbb Q)$.
By constructing the tower in a different order I get that $\sqrt{2}\mapsto -\sqrt{2}$ is also an authomorphism of $K$ and so on for the other roots. Composing those I get $16$ authomorphisms, hence the extension is Galois
Guys, is there a reason why my book defines the holomorphic property only for continuously differentiable functions, and not just simply differentiably functions?
you have to be a bit careful with extending automorphisms, but yeah one can make this work. But even computing the degree of $\Bbb Q(i,\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3},\sqrt{5})$ to be $16$ is a bit annoying if you do it without fancier machinery like discriminants
This whole mess is justified because I want to calculate the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{5}+i$ but I want to do so by showing that its roots must be $\pm\sqrt{2}\pm\sqrt{3}\pm\sqrt{5}\pm i$ and using the expressions of the coefficents as symmetric functions of the roots
o I guess it doesn't matter, because as soon as it's holomorphic, it's $C^\infty$
the composite of Galois extensions is Galois that's easier than working with a tower, I guess
why would you compute minimal polynomials of degree $16$ by hand?
16:27
What do you mean with composite? Because I know that towers of Galois extensions don't necessarily mean that the last term of the tower is Galois on the first
@ShaVuklia it doesn't matter but proving it without C^1 is just more subtle
@MatheinBoulomenos Because it's an exercise in my algebraic number theory pset and I'm looking for the least painful way to do it, I'd just throw it at a computer obviously if it were for me!
so if you have two fields $K_1$ and $K_2$ which lie inside a bigger field $F$, then the composite of $K_1$ and $K_2$ is the smallest subfield of $F$ that contains both $K_1$ and $K_2$
you can construct this e.g. by adjoining all elements of $K_1$ to $K_2$ or vice versa
if $k$ is a subfield of both $K_1$ and $K_2$ and $K_1=k(a_1, \dots, a_n)$ and $K_2=k(b_1, \dots, b_k)$, then $K_1 \cdot K_2$ (the composite) is $k(a_1, \dots, a_n, b_1, \dots, b_k)$
Ah, makes sense
@ShaVuklia It's slightly harder to prove everything with the latter. Eg, if you want to prove Cauchy's theorem that $\oint_D f(z) dz = 0$ where $D \subset \Bbb C$ is a simply connected domain for a holomorphic function $f$, then you can directly invoke Gauss-Stokes theorem directly (because $f = u(x, y) + iv(x, y)$ is holomorphic implies the real and imaginary parts of $f'$ are curl-less vector fields - that's the content of the C-R equations).
But Gauss works only if $f$ is $C^1$.
If you don't assume it's $C^1$ you have to go through Goursat's lemma, which is proving Cauchy's theorem on a triangle using a Sierpinski subdivision trick.
16:33
E l l i p t I c r e g u l a r I t y
See Stein-Shakarchi for details if you want
@AlessandroCodenotti oh if it's for ANT, then you might actually use discriminants to simplify stuff like proving that $\sqrt{5}$ isn't already contained in $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$
our TA called the triangle thing "Triforce proof"
@MatheinBoulomenos Oh, definitely, showing that the degree of the extension is $16$ isn't a problem there, I was more wary of my argument above about extending automorphisms
But yeah whether or not you assume holomorphic functions are $C^1$, the final conclusion is that they are analytic anyway.
So none of this "matters"
@Semiclassical I started with the expectations for specific gammas <0, <1, <2 and then generalized from there. The expectation was $p^\gamma \sum_{n=0}^\infty \binom{n+\gamma-1}{n} (n+\gamma) (1-p)^n$ (where $\gamma$ is rounded up to the next integer), which reduces to just $\gamma/p$.
16:34
@MatheinBoulomenos Hah
Though I feel that given the trivial result, there should be some "simple" argument for why it has to be that way
@AlessandroCodenotti the extension stuff works because of this lemma: suppose $K$ and $F$ are fields and $f:K \to F$ is a field homomorphism and $f$ is a polynomial that is irreducible over $K$ and $\alpha$ is a root of $f$ contained in some extension of $K$, then for any element root $\beta$ of $f$ inside $F$, there is a unique homomorphism $\sigma:K(\alpha) \to F$ which extends the given homomorphism such that $\sigma(\alpha)=\beta$
Actually using the discriminant still requires me to know the automorphisms or do a lot of calculations
This is very easy to prove: $K(\alpha)=K[x]/(f)$, now apply the homomorphism theorem
The first $f$ isn't an $f$, right?
16:40
In general, this lemma can be horrible to work with when you have towers, because you don't just need irreducibility over, say $\Bbb Q$, but over extensions of that, but in this case, the polynomials are degree $2$ for which irreducibility is easy even over larger fields
yeah
I didn't want to give the field homomorphism $K \to F$ a name actually
@MatheinBoulomenos Nice
Will it down in a bit@Semiclassical
^ write
@AlessandroCodenotti do you know about divisibility relations of discriminants in towers of extensions? (there's also a formula for composite fields). You can show e.g. that $\sqrt{3}$ is not contained in $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2})$ because $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{3})$ and $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2})$ have different discriminants. And the discriminant of $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ has as only prime factors $2$ and $3$, so $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{5})$ can't be a subfield of that since that has discriminant $5$
@MatheinBoulomenos Nope, we haven't talked about that yet
oh okay
you could also argue via ramification
but the tricky part is actually proving that the intermediate extensions are all proper, that's also necessary for the extension of automorphisms
16:46
Actually in this example why can't I use my approach of starting with automorphisms of the biggest field rather than extending automorphisms of the intermediate ones? I don't think I need this lemma
@MatheinBoulomenos Do you have a reference for that kind of stuff? I'd like to read more about it, in our course we did very little about discriminants and then moved on to Dedekind's theorem and showing that $\mathcal{O}_K$ is a Dedekind ring
@BalarkaSen ah great! thanks. They haven't treated integrals yet, but they're about to do that, so that's cool
if $L$ is an extension of a number field $K$ and $\mathfrak{P}$ is a prime of $L$ lying over the prime $\mathfrak{p} \subset \mathcal{O}_K$, how can I argue that the extension $\Bbb F_{\mathfrak{P}}/\Bbb F_{\mathfrak{p}}$ is Galois?
Anti Symmetrization bracket - Suppose $\theta$ is an object which are dependent on $m_{1},m_{2},..,m_{f}$, In other words $\theta = [\theta_{m_{1},m_{2},..,m_{f}}]$ then $\theta_{[m_{1},m_{2},..,m_{f}]} = \frac{1}{f!} \sum_{\pi \in S_{f}} (Sgn \pi) \theta_{m_{\pi_{1}},m_{\pi_{2}},..,m_{\pi_{f}}}$
@Semiclassical
It's easy when $K = \Bbb Q$ because then $\Bbb F_{\mathfrak{P}}$ is the splitting field of $X^{p^{f(\mathfrak{P}/p)}} - X$ where $f(\mathfrak{P}/p)$ is the inertial degree of $\mathfrak{P}$ over $p$, but does a similar argument work when $K \neq \Bbb Q$?
@BAYMAX then yes you can, and I pretty much did this earlier
16:58
Hmm..How?
unable to connect the two
curl and antisymmetrization bracket
45 mins ago, by Semiclassical
@BAYMAX not sure what you mean by that. But you can write curl using the Levi-Civita symbol as $$\text{curl }\vec{A} = \sum_{i,j,k=1}^3 \epsilon_{ijk}\,\hat{x}_i \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} A_k$$
Where $\epsilon_{123}=\epsilon_{231}=\epsilon_{312}=1$, $\epsilon_{321}=\epsilon_{213}=\epsilon_{132}=-1$, and zero otherwise
You can convert that into your permutation language without much work.
?
actually how do you see the permutations like say $123$
$1 -> 2 -> 3$
but then it is same as $312$
$3 -> 1 -> 2$
@Semiclassical Also any motivation of how can we get this?
@AlessandroCodenotti How do you know what the automorphisms in the biggest field look like?
I know that there is one switching $\pm\sqrt{5}$ because I know it's an extension of degree two (let's assume this is known/proved) over the previous field so it's also Galois and I know its automorphisms fixing the previous field
But it also an extension of degree two over $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{5},i)$ and that gives me an automorphism switching $\pm\sqrt{3}$
I get $4$ automorphisms, each switching a root with its opposite in this way, and composing those together I get 12 more
17:16
Where am I going wrong here? - ~(p∨q)∨(~p∧q) == (~p∧~q)∨(~p∧q) == ~p ∧ ( ~q ∨ q) == ~p ∧ T == T
But saying that there is an isomorphism that fixes $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{5},i)$ that switches $\pm \sqrt{3}$ is the same thing as extending the identity on that field in a certain way
So it's really the same argument
Except that if you allow yourself to extend stuff that is not the identity, you only need one tower
And I think all the computations you need to do for the extending are already necessary if you just want the degree
Fair enough
But I must say I'm tempted to just say "the degree is two" and hide everything under a carpet
If you want a really high-level solution, this a Kummer extension and Kummer theory gives you the Galois group pretty directly
I already proved it for $\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}$, I feel justified in saying it's analogous here
@MatheinBoulomenos that's arabic to me, sorry
If I were a grader, I wouldn't accept that. If you do everything without machinery, then the computations become a lot more ugly once you have more than 2 square roots
@AlessandroCodenotti Kummer theory describes extensions (and their Galois groups) that are given by adjoining some square roots under suitable assumptions which are all satisfied here
17:31
Greetings, Mathein and demonic Alessandro.
Zee
Zee
Hello Shifrin
@MatheinBoulomenos oh, that sounds cool
We have to pick a topic in ANT to give a lecture about as part of the exam and that sounds very interesting
Hi @Ted
@MatheinBoulomenos good thing you're not my grader then :P I might compute some discriminants after all
17:49
Hi @Ted
@MatheinBoulomenos I generally don't subtract point for a correct answer, even if it uses less theory than was intended. If that is possible, then it was my fault for not making the question suitable
@Tobias that's not what I meant. I was talking about saying something is analogous when it's actually more difficult
@MatheinBoulomenos Ahh, yeah, that doesn't fly.
@AlessandroCodenotti the most elegant approach to Kummer theory is probably via group cohomogy (that's how I learned it), but you don't need that
What is homomorphism thaat makes $C_2\times C_2$ homomorphic image of $Z\times Z$ here? First /i thought that (even, even) should map to 0 and (odd, odd) should map to 1, but then what to map (1,2) to?
17:57
@BalarkaSen The claim is totally false lol
@BalarkaSen Take a double cone in large dimensions. This has Hausdorff dimension whatever. Then remove the vertex and you disconnect the thing.
One can even arrange for the cone to be a minimal surface if its dimension is high enough
So what they claim is totally false
@AkivaWeinberger, will u plz look at my question above?
Which claim? @0Celo7
@AlessandroCodenotti A claim some people made about the regular set of a modified minimal surface
It may or may not actually be an issue
I found the claim while reading the paper for the general idea. Now I have to read more carefully to see how exactly they use it
@Silent (odd, even)
oh!!
18:48
Someone give me math I'm hungry
[chooses names at random] Teach me the Arzelà–Ascoli theorem
@AkivaWeinberger Go learn the Weinberger theorem (surely that must be a thing)
@TobiasKildetoft Weinberger is a GR guy
@AkivaWeinberger standard 3 epsilon + diagonal argument
@TobiasKildetoft general relativity?
19:03
@0celo7 What's the statement of the theorem
@AkivaWeinberger $X$ $\sigma$-compact metric (maybe works with a uniform space), $\mathcal F\subset C(X)$ equibounded and equicontinuous, then any sequence in $\mathcal F$ subconverges locally uniformly
19:14
I like how Ascoli-Arzelà is presented in those notes
19:27
@AlessandroCodenotti I know you're the Italian here, but the correct order is Arzela-Ascoli
I never thought about that, everyone knows it as Ascoli-Arzelà in Italy
@AlessandroCodenotti Alphabetical order says Arzela first

« first day (2807 days earlier)      last day (2512 days later) »