
In a paper I'm reading (https://arxiv.org/pdf/1009.1175.pdf), one claims the following:
Let $(M,\omega)$ be a $2n$-dimensional symplectic manifold. If $\mu$ is any $2$-form on $M$, then $$\omega^{n-1}\wedge\mu=0\Leftrightarrow \mu=0.$$
The implication $\Leftarrow$ is clear, but I have trouble ...