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12:01 AM
@user2103480 I'm sorry for being rude above. There was no reason to do that.
 
12:16 AM
nah it's alright. I didn't see that BigSocks just asked "how many subobjects are there, up to isomorphism?"
which is, as you said, obviously a set
 
Still, I could have just pointed to that. Thanks for your patience though.
 
no worries, in exchange I'll just bug you again with some topology questions where I am getting confused in a flurry of definitions
 
got him
 
tor, ext, hom and tensor feel like one just coin flipped whether some 5-ish properties hold for some functor
 
let me introduce you to the Grothendieck yoga
 
12:26 AM
is Hom for abelian groups nice enough to turn arbitrary coproducts into products in the first coordinate and preserve arbitrary coproducts in the second coordinate
 
@MadSpaces If it's a log scale, then $5$ divisions between $9$ and $10$ would be $9.000, 9.192, 9.387, 9.587, 9.791, 10.00$
. o O ( too late )
 
and is there anything else that's useful for my purposes except $\mathrm{Hom}(\Bbb Z^n,G) \cong G^n$ and $\mathrm{Hom}(\Bbb Z_n, G) = $ n-torsion?
 
@BigSocks OK, so I decoded what you are looking for.

You have the category of [some kind of] varieties, with morphisms the *rational* maps between them. (Maybe you are only considering surfaces? Unclear.) This actually is not a category: you cannot compose two rational maps in general (maybe the image of the first one lands where the second one is not defined). You have to restrict to *dominant rational maps*, those whose image is a dense subset of the codomain.

You want to understand whether there is a set of objects which you can test "equality of rational maps" with: for each pair of *
 
@user2103480 that works in every category
 
@Thorgott good
 
12:33 AM
This is indeed not obvious. It is probably not true.
I can probably prove it's not. This all gets much easier to describe if you are very clear about what you are asking
 
though I guess there is a point to be made about internal hom vs external hom
works for both in this case
in any case, all these facts about Hom are just restatements of the respective universal properties
 
Dude I will forget all of this after the exam, I'd rather take a numerics class than anything algebra
I find category stuff a la type theory nice enough, but man I couldn't care less about abelian groups and rings
Although I do find the whole machinery very impressive
 
bad take smh
 
poincaré was on beast
 
@MikeMiller hmm well that’s cool- yeah maybe I have to think of dominant rational maps. I am not sure myself. Really I want to see what kind of “test-object” could help us rule out containing function fields of varieties of general type (other than the rational function field and maybe function fields of elliptic curves)
I think I might have to understand Faltings theorem so... that’ll be a bit
 
12:48 AM
@Thorgott meet me solving ODEs in banach spaces
 
abstract linear algebra vs applied lienar algebra
 
Theres so much semigroup theory that I have to learn properly ugh
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1697318/exponential-of-a-self-adjoint-operator
this lebesgue-stieltes integral against an operator-valued function is making my head hurt
 
semigroup theory is a meme
 
I love it
Although I can't praise it too much since the physics prof makes it painful
He really just pretends it's all ODEs and the worst thing is that it works
Also, these kinds of identities
Lemma: For a pair of orthogonal projectors $P, Q$ with $P+Q=1$
the linear operator $R(t)=e^{-i \mathcal L t}$ fulfills
$$
\frac{d}{d t} R(t)=-i \mathcal{L} P R(t)-\int^{t} \mathcal{L} Q \widetilde{R}(t-s) Q \mathcal{L} P R(s) d s-i \mathcal{L} Q \tilde{R}(t)
$$
 
analogous to lienar algebra
 
12:57 AM
where $\tilde{R}(t):=e^{-i Q \mathcal{L} Q t}$
 
@robjohn This is what I said originally, but I think it's wrong. They're not spaced evenly. And when I used log-log paper in high school, the whole point was not to have to compute converted quantities.
 
@Thorgott lienar algerba
 
lienar azumaya gerbe
 
$\mathfrak{lie}$nar
 
1:12 AM
Am I missing the point if I claim affine varieties form a set of "test-objects" ?
 
Nah, I think you’re guessing pretty reasonably considering how ill-posed my question is
Also I realized I mucked it up a bit because elliptic curves are not varieties of general type I don’t think. But ignoring that implication what I said last would be the “nice thing” in mind, be it a “test-object” or whatever it really is
 
I'm talking about Mike's translation of your question. I'm surprised because he seems to think it's probably not true
 
Oh ok. Yeah like I posted up there, it was kind of to rule out the weird nlab def of separator + depended on trusting what Zhen Lin was claiming in that one post, which I am reasonably comfortable with
 
1:28 AM
@BigSocks If you are trying to make a category, yes, you need that. Rational maps cannot be composed in general.
@Astyx Seems good, I guess the point is there is a set of affine varieties because there is a set of multivariate polynomials over a fixed field.
I just got paranoid by thinking too much of the equivalence between dominant rational maps and maps between function fields.
 
Right Hartshorne section 4 or something
 
I think that depends on how you define varieties
But I think in most cases you can get away with just dimension (hence you get a countable number of them up to iso, which forms a set?)
I'll think more about this tomorrow, gotta sleep, cya
 
2:32 AM
. o O ( too late again! )
 
2:54 AM
Simple geometry question. I'm asked to determine the similar triangles. In the diagram it is clear which are the triangles, but I'm trying to solidify my reasoning.
So the criteria we're using to establish similarity is that all angles in each of the triangles are congruent to each other. I have the right angles, but how do I determine that the other angle in each triangle is congruent?....I know I'm missing something about the altitude segment, but can't put my finger on it
 
3:23 AM
Just look at angles, nothing else.
Three triangles. All similar.
 
What angles?...Each of them has a right angle, fine. But the other two angles in each triangle what is the relation? I mean in the picture it is implied, but I'm trying to imagine if the picture wasn't so obvious.
 
Do the calculation.
Call $\angle F = \alpha$. What are all the other angles?
 
Hmmm............very nice......I worked them out.
Not bad....not bad at all.............
I suppose the technique here is to designate an angle as $\alpha$ as you did here. Well to convince yourself at least.
 
 
1 hour later…
4:48 AM
@dc3rd the idea is to convince someone else.
 
Yes @robjohn, but if I can't sell myself on it, what chance do I have of selling the snake oil to somebody else?
 
@dc3rd All the best snake oil salespeople convince others while staying immune to their own pitch.
 
5:21 AM
@dc3rd the two acute angles in a right triangle are complementary (they sum to $\pi/2$).
thus, all it takes for two right triangles to be similar is that one of the other angles are the same.
 
@robjohn agreed. but my picture had no other "specified" angles. The suggestion from Ted did the trick in helping me see things.
 
 
1 hour later…
6:49 AM
I have a function $f(x)$ on $(0, 1)$ such that $f'(x) \leq 1/x$, and $f(x_0) > c$.
Can I say something about the behavior of $f$ near $x_0$
 
 
1 hour later…
8:12 AM
@BalarkaSen it doesn't tell you much right, I mean near x0 what we know is that f'(x) <= 1/x0
so it can point to any direction
 
 
3 hours later…
11:35 AM
Is there anybody explain about induced retraction in example 0.15 of Hatcher's book?
 
 
1 hour later…
12:44 PM
@robjohn Can you add new links here?
 
 
2 hours later…
2:32 PM
Say I glue two $4n$-dimensional manifolds along an orientation-reversing homeomorphism of their boundaries to obtain a manifold $M$ and the embedded copy of the boundaries I call $W$. How do I understand the orthogonal complement of the image of the restriction map $H^{2n}(M,W)\rightarrow H^{2n}(M)$ with respect to the intersection pairing on $H^{2n}(M)$?
 
2:53 PM
@Wolgwang I found a new link for one of them (Google is your friend). I was unable to find a reference for the article by Perotti.
 
3:11 PM
:-)
 
 
1 hour later…
4:30 PM
Tricoloring knots, except one "color" is invisible and the other two are the same color
 
hello please someone tell me what is equal to
d/ds F(x,u(s))
 
use the multivariable chain rule i guess
=$\partial F / \partial u$*$du/ds$
 
Is $\mathbb Z_{25}$ a field?
 
and for x @satan29 do we obtain F(s,u(s))?
 
@Eminem $5\times5\equiv0\pmod{25}$
 
4:40 PM
the prof told us that we must find this @satan29
 
Therefore $5$ does not have a multiplicative inverse
(If it did, we would have $5=5\times5\times5^{-1}=0$)
 
$\mathbb Z_n$ is a field $\iff n$ is prime?
 
$\mathbb Z_n$ means the integers mod $n$, right? Then yes
 
But there is somehing about the powers of prime numbers
oh i know
order of a field must be a prime number or power of prime right?
finite fields ofcourse
 
Yes - there exists a field with 25 elements, but it is not $\mathbb Z_{25}$
 
4:45 PM
@AkivaWeinberger please say sike
 
Interesting - it looks like a cross between the Japanese kana characters め and の
More like の I guess
 
5:04 PM
@Akiva The parallelogram with sides $(a,b)$ and $(c,d)$ and the parallelogram with sides $(a,c)$ and $(b,d)$ have the same area. There should be some geometric reason for this. What is it?
 
@AkivaWeinberger can you help me to calculate this d/ds F(x,u(s))
 
$\frac{\partial F}{\partial u}\frac{du}{ds}$
Where did you get this problem?
@MikeMiller Maybe first step is to rewrite in coordinates 45 degrees off
or not
 
It's a mystery to me! I have been staring at pictures for a while. Perhaps this is wrong headed.
They two matrices are conjugate so some change of variables works. But that's not satisfying
 
So, I haven't thought about polar coordinates in about 10 years...

In $\mathbb{R}^2$, suppose I have the region $\{x <0, y < kx\}$ where $k \neq 0$ is some given constant. How do I convert this to polar coordinates?

I get that $r \in (0, \infty)$, and the lower bound for $\theta$ should be $\pi$. The upper bound seems to differ depending on whether $k > 0$ or $k < 0$, but I'm not sure how to find the upper bound for $\theta$ explicitly. Because of the way $\tan^{-1}$ is defined, I think if $k < 0$, I can use $\tan^{-1}(k)$ given how $\tan^{-1}$ is defined, but not sure what to do for when
Oh dang, I think I drew the region incorrectly when $k > 0$. Ugh.
 
5:19 PM
I think you get a piece of the lower-left quadrant
 
Okay, when $k > 0$, we have that $\theta$ goes from some value to $2\pi$, but I'm not sure how to get that lower bound.
 
Shouldn't it just go to $\frac32\pi$? Since $x<0$ so it stops at the (bottom half of the) $y$-axis
 
Lol I need to check this again... you're right
 
@MikeMiller So geometrically, you start with two points and a pair of perpendicular lines through a third point
 
I shouldn't have tried to do this at 2AM last night
So in fact, if $k < 0$, we have the entire lower-left quadrant
 
5:23 PM
Yeah
 
@AkivaWeinberger OK, I already buy that you're pointing me in the right direction
 
@AkivaWeinberger the prof todd me that we have to find F(s,u(s)) in the résultat
 
If $k > 0$, we end up with that spot between the line and $\dfrac{3\pi}{2}$, agreed. Now, how do I figure out what that lower bound is?
 
I don't know the answer I'm thinking out loud @MikeMiller
 
One of these is the image of the unit square under a matrix A and the other is A^T, so there's some dot product duality hiding here
I'm telling you that your thinking is the right way to think
Whether or not you have an answer
 
5:25 PM
We also can't stretch the two axes independently - we need to know that a length on one axis equals a length on the other
 
From my digging through Stewart last night, my understanding is that $\tan(\theta) = k$ for that lower bound, which is not at all helpful.
 
Hm. In general, for arbitrary vectors $u$ and $v$, do we have $\det(au+bv,cu+dv)=\det(au+cv,bu+dv)$?
Yes - they're both $(ad-bv)\det(u,v)$
 
Yeah, let B = (u, v), then you've written AB and A^T B; now det(AB) = det(A) det(B) = det(A^T) det(B) = det(A^T B)
When B = I as here, two of these equalities are boring and I am asking you why det(A) = det(A^T) :)
 
@Clarinetist it's the angle of $\left(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{1+k^2}},\frac{-k}{\sqrt{1+k^2}}\right)$ if that is of any help
 
OK so now we have a version that doesn't depend on perpendicularity
 
5:29 PM
I should add: for context, this is for a double-integration problem
 
maybe you can find a nice sine-cosine expression of this
or you can say that $\tan(\theta) = k$ so $arctan(k) = \theta$
 
No, because $\arctan$ does not have range in that lower-left quadrant.
That's why I've been struggling with this.
 
shift by $\pi$
or something like that
 
Making pancakes at the moment, but I'll look into what you mean in a sec
 
@MikeMiller Hm actually the $A^\top$ thing makes me think we want to think about covectors
 
5:35 PM
@MikeMiller You got the bounds wrong right?
You mean (a,b) and (c,d) = (c,b) and (a,d)
 
$ad-bc\ne cd-ab$
 
Wait I'm confused, what is (a,b) here? a point, an interval, two lengths ?
 
A point
Coordinates
 
@Clarinetist the angle of $\left(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{1+k^2}},\frac{-k}{\sqrt{1+k^2}}\right)$ in the left plane is the same as the angle of $\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+k^2}},\frac{k}{\sqrt{1+k^2}}\right)$ plus $\pi$. Since multiplication by minus one is just going around a half circle and this yields an angle in $(-\pi/2, \pi/2)$.
But valid point, I missed the fact that the arctan is not defined there
So $arctan(k) + \pi$ is your least angle
@robjohn the educated formulation of Biggie Smalls' 4th Crack Commandment
 
are rotations different in different coordinate systems?
 
5:49 PM
They certainly look different.
Like just think about Cartesian vs. polar in the plane. Rotating around the unit circle looks very different coordinate-wise. In polar coordinates, one coordinate is fixed, while in Cartesian, neither are fixed.
 
yeah
that makes sense now, thanks
 
@MikeMiller Maybe leverage the similarity between $A^\top$ and $A^{-1}$
$A^{-1}A=I$ means the columns of $A^{-1}$ and $A^\top$ are perpendicular
(Not just in 2x2 but in general)
Er that's not what I mean
The $k$th column of $A^\top$ is perpendicular to the span of all columns but the $k$th of $A^{-1}$
 
@Vrouvrou Is $x$ independent of $s$?
 
@anakhro so a standard rotation matrix in x-y coordinates will look different than a rotation matrix in u-v coordinates right?
 
@AkivaWeinberger Sure, if I understand 2x2 I will understand n x n
 
6:07 PM
or backwards- reminds me of the volume for a parallelepiped. Apparently for an n-parallelotope you get the "volume" as a similar looking determinant
In geometry, a parallelepiped is a three-dimensional figure formed by six parallelograms (the term rhomboid is also sometimes used with this meaning). By analogy, it relates to a parallelogram just as a cube relates to a square. In Euclidean geometry, the four concepts—parallelepiped and cube in three dimensions, parallelogram and square in two dimensions—are defined, but in the context of a more general affine geometry, in which angles are not differentiated, only parallelograms and parallelepipeds exist. Three equivalent definitions of parallelepiped are a polyhedron with six faces (hexahedron...
 
@geocalc33 you can compute a change of basis matrix.
But I think something more interesting is happening there. Since changing basis is keeping your same coordinate system, while changing between polar and cartesian is changing your geometric interpretation.
 
yeah I need this to solve my problem I posed
 
Which problem?
 
This is how you ought to understand determinant, @BigSocks
This is why the change of variables theorem in multivariable calculus has a determinant in it
det A = 0 <-> A is invertible is because:

if A is invertible then Im(A) = R^n and this paralleliped (the image of the standard unit cube under A) bounds some convex body, which has nonzero volume
If A is NOT invertible then Im(A) has dimension <= n-1. The n-dimensional volume of A(box) is zero, because it is constrained to lie in a smaller-dimensional space!
 
that tells you why det A=0 <=> A is not surjective
 
6:19 PM
right cool so does this clear up your confusion?
 
This is so weird
 
@Thorgott i assume one has already done the basic work in understanding invertibility = surjectivity = injectivity for square matrices...
@BigSocks No of course not the question is why, geometrically, $$\det \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} = \det \begin{pmatrix} a & c \\ b & d \end{pmatrix}.$$ Yes, you can argue "The first is the area of the first guy, the second is the area of the second guy, and then computing these the formulas match up" but that gives me no geometric insight, it's a magic trick, and I hate magicians
 
I am not sure, the defining rule for the transpose seems to suggest that most geometric features are preserved by the transpose.
Since the determinant, being the n-dim signed volume, is expressible in these features, then is it really surprising that the determinant is blind to the transpose?
 
"det is preserved under transpose"?
& the det in question gives you the area of the parallelogram ~ geometry
I am unsure as to why you are confused
 
6:32 PM
It's not about confusion, it's about interpretation
 
This is closely related to "What is the geometric meaning of the transpose"
 
@anakhro The problem about projecting the 3d vector field in (0,1)^3 onto x-y plane, x-z plane and y-z planes
 
"Determinant is preserved under transpose" is an algebraic statement. I am asking you to explain why that is true using geometry, not taking it for granted.
A good answer to this will lead one to further insight into the transpose.
 
(which Ted likes to explain as $x\cdot Ay=A^\top x\cdot y$)
 
If you think I don't understand what a determinant is or what a transpose is or why those are equal from the algebraic POV, then I think we are talking past each other.
 
6:33 PM
@MikeMiller @Astyx I guess I interpreted "mystery" here as "confusion"?
@MikeMiller i don't think that
 
Surely there is a good "geoemtric interpretation of det(A) = det(A^\top)" answer on stackexchange somewhere.
@geocalc33 Why are you wanting to change coordinates in this question?
 
I did not see a useful one, @anakhro. I saw one that basically said "Row operations get turned into column operations and determinant does the same thing to both", which is true and does give a proof, but it is algebra.
 
idk if the transpose is well-suited to be interpreted in this geometric context
 
@MikeMiller the "The Transpose Inverts the Rotation but Keeps the Scaling" one didn't satisfy you either?
 
Applying $A$ and asking for the $x$-coordinate is equivalent to dotting with $(a,c)$. Applying $A$ and asking for the $y$-coordinate is equivalent to dotting with $(b,d)$.
 
6:36 PM
Algebra.
 
That is how one gets $(a,c)$ and $(b,d)$ from $(a,b)$ and $(c,d)$ geometrically.
 
92
A: Geometric interpretation of $\det(A^T) = \det(A)$

MattA geometric interpretation in four intuitive steps.... The Determinant is the Volume Change Factor Think of the matrix as a geometric transformation, mapping points (column vectors) to points: $x \mapsto Mx$. The determinant $\mbox{det}(M)$ gives the factor by which volumes change under this ma...

Hopefully it links to the one I am referring to.
 
The transpose is a wonky adjoint, so what's a geometric interpretation of the adjoint?
 
OK, that's actually quite a bit better than I anticipated. I assumed they were using the decomposition of GL_2(R) into rotations, shears, and scalings, which is a reduction to algebra.
They're instead viewing determinant as a product of eigenvalues. Unsuitable for an introduction, but geometric.
 
@anakhro Oh I like this
 
6:38 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti I personally think the definition of the trace with the inner product seems adequately geometric.
 
I view trace like this. Visualize $A$ as a vector field, assigning the vector $Av$ to every point $v$. Flow along $A$ for an infinitesimal amount of time. How much did the volume change?
 
@anakhro I am wanting to change coordinates in this question because the boundary vector fields (on the cubes faces) are set in a specific coordinate system, so I think the interior 3d vector field should reflect the same coordinate system as the boundary vector fields I guess
 
In symbols, $\operatorname{tr}A=\frac d{dt}\det(I+At)$
Oh I misread a comment
I thought someone asked about the trace, sorry
 
Oh that was me who said trace when I meant transpose.
I AM THE SORRY ONE, Akiva.
 
what about "the column space of $A$ is the row space of $A^T$" here? spaces sound pretty geometric
 
6:47 PM
trace counts fixed points, kinda, sometimes, loosely
 
@BigSocks column and row isn't very geometric. That's just referencing the orientation of the notation.
 
The change of basis of the past is not the change of basis of the future!
The enemy cannot find you if you keep changing your basis
 
@anakhro unsure if you missed the "space" part. that isn't really just about the orientation of notation
 
Column space is R^2, row space is R^2, neither of those see the determinant, only that it is nonzero.
This will lead you to the Gauss-Jordan elimination proof that $\det(A) = \det(A^\top)$ which is fine I suppose
@Astyx I'd like to use this applet for illustration later in the semester, did you make it and if so, do you mind if I do, and then do you want to be attributed?
 
7:06 PM
They will probably prefer you use their full name, Eel Astyx.
 
@Thorgott no for positive definite operators it's a variance man
pretending there's one absolute intuition
 
I don't pretend to know what a trace is.
 
But it's actually kinda neat. Positive definite trace class operators are covariance matrices of normal distributions on hilbert spaces, and for such a random variable $X$ with mean vector $m$ and covariance operator $Q$, $\int \| X - m\|^2 \,\mathrm{d}\Bbb P = \mathrm{tr}\,Q$
 
@MikeMiller I did make it, feel free to use it! No need to attribute me. I'm glad to know it'll be somewhat useful :)
 
@MikeMiller Hint: It's something students do and often results in you marking a dozen of identical assignments.
 
7:18 PM
@AkivaWeinberger This joke doesn't work, as lambda is a reflection of y, not a rotation. Of course it can be fixed.
 
Sorry I meant $ʎ$ not $\lambda$
 
7:33 PM
@MikeMiller That's why I like the $90^{\large\circ}$ rotation of $\infty$ equals $8$. Pretty standard characters.
 
Yeah it's a good one.
@anakhro I missed this, but it's amusing.
Bad choice on their part, but I'm no stranger to bad choices. Don't understand the homework and you won't pass the tests. It's how it be.
 
Is there something extra we can do to help students avoid copying answers out of books and online answer websites? It seems offering more office hours doesn't seem to help./
 
@anakhro This was a challenge long before COVID. Now, probably hopeless.
 
Personally, my approach is to remove the grading scheme that punishes students that don't copy from the internet, and to make tests they cannot pass if they do not understand what they're doing.
Past that IMO incentives are not my problem.
 
I guess that's a good point about not/punishing students who don't copy from the internet.
 
7:40 PM
@TedShifrin I was asking earlier for a geometric reason that det(A) = det(A^T); I phrased this as asking why two parallelograms have the same area. I know multiple proofs of the first fact but I would characterize most as algebraic. (Decomposition into elementary column operations and using that column operations and row operations do the same thing to determinant is algebraic.) Do you have insight?
The best argument I saw abandoned the parallelograms and thought eigenvalues by drawing ellipses.
 
Yes, @MikeM, even in my honors multivariable class I had a few students who cheated on homework and had good scores but repeatedly did failing work on exams. Nevertheless, I continued to count homework for something like 35% of the grade, since all the challenging proofs were on homework only.
@MikeM: That's a great question.
 
Astyx made a program to illustrate this: geogebra.org/geometry/dkq5jvqh
Which makes it obvious that it is true, but not obvious why it is true!
 
Is it obvious that the dual map should have the same eigenvalues? I don't think so.
 
I also don't think so. The best answer I saw used what amounts to SVD.
Which does give good geometric insight if you already believe in SVD.
 
That's pretty fancy.
 
7:44 PM
Right, I liked the picture, but not the pedagogy.
 
Shame on me for never having asked this question.
So if we take a basis of eigenvectors, what is the dual basis? Nothing interesting?
 
I am not sure.
Let me try an example.
 
My computation seems to say the dual basis should be eigenvectors of the dual map.
 
@TedShifrin eigenvectors of the dual space?
neat
 
dual space???
 
7:49 PM
subspace spanned by eigenvectors is a space yea
 
Reducing $A$ to Schur form maybe?
 
One talks about eigenvectors of a linear map, @Socks, not of a space.
What is Schur form?
 
I suppose I could have done the computation before writing down my example. :) I agree with your computation.
 
So that probably answers the question, although this too is a bit less geometric than I'd like.
 
It seems one has no choice but to abandon parallelograms here.
 
7:51 PM
On the other hand, the only way to "understand" the transpose is as the dual map.
Yeah, I always observed the miracle with parallelograms as a consequence of the algebra.
 
@TedShifrin yeah shoulda said that span
 
Can write $A=QTQ^*$ where $T$ is upper triangular.
 
Still not to the point, Socks.
Not clear how the Schur form of the transpose is related, I guess @copper.
Transposing the equation gives nothing good.
 
Just if it is upper triangular the transpose is lower triangular so the $\det$ is trivially the same.
I should say Hermitian...
 
@copper.hat 2algebraic
 
7:54 PM
@BigSocks Not really, it has a nice geometric interpretation.
 
I suppose I will accept determinants of upper triangular matrices as geometric, because that's about shear invariance of volume. But I am skeptical of factorizations.
 
Depending on your definition of nice.
Its a Schur thing...
 
lol ok
 
Why, it is easy to demonstrate in the plane?
 
Oh, sure, @copper. But what's the Schur form of the transpose?
 
7:56 PM
Well, it just needs to be triangular.
 
Plus, you need to know that $\det Q = \pm 1$. That begs the question, I think.
 
True.
 
tosses this attempt in the trash
 
Now that I have you hooked on the problem I need to stop thinking about determinants and start thinking about obstructed gluing problems.
 
But it is a useful factoriSation from a numerical perspective as well.
 
7:57 PM
LOL
Yes, it's one of the many Lie group decompositions that I always forget.
I think my dual/eigenvector thing is solid, @MikeM, but not elementary.
 
I only ever remember Iwasawa as a topologist.
Yes, I think that's the clearest so far. But you do have to give up on parallelograms. This could be considered a positive: "the fastest route to understanding this forces us to get a good grasp on the theory..."
And I'm not committed to that being the only geometric interpretation of determinant by any means. Far from it.
 
The fact is you need a basis to define $\det$, so that probably says something.
Even though it is basis independent.
 
You need less than a basis, but yes, you need a notion of signed volume.
 
Well, ultimately, $\det = \Lambda^n$. :)
 
(A basis gives a notion of signed volume.)
 

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