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9:00 PM
right, I agree
this stuff's confusing
 
Average internal degree of a vertex in a tree is 2, right?
 
What is internal degree?
 
^
 
Degree of a vertex in a subgraph
 
I don't understand, I'm sorry. Maybe you can give an example
 
9:05 PM
So average the internal degrees over a subgraph, then take sup over all subgraphs
I mean if you pick a subgraph of a tree you'll get many vertices with degree 1 for example. All the leaves
Those are about half the population of the subgraph literally
 
Yeah I still don't follow a definition. intdeg(v) = sup_{T a subgraph containing v} deg_T(v)?
 
So you don't mean an internal vertex to start with?
 
This seems to just be deg(v)
This should be easy to answer if we had a careful definition at hand
 
Yeah, it's 2, nevermind.
 
smacks Balarka
 
9:08 PM
Well I still don't understand the notion. :(
 
@MikeMiller It is nonsense that the quantity you wrote down is deg(v). There are so many vertices in T which have deg_T(v) = 1.
 
For the tree with two vertices I don't understand any notion of average degreee that gives 2.
 
Oh, you did not even average
Average deg_T(v) over all v in T
Then take sup
 
Yes, it's not clear whether the average happens before or after...
 
Which one is the interesting notion?
 
9:09 PM
So sup_T avgdeg(T)
 
Balarka is in condescending mode.
 
I don't think about trees, so I am incapable of answering that without a minute's thought.
 
Sorry, I should have been clearer.
My fault
@MikeMiller It's at most 2 :)
The point is trees have linear isoperimetric inequality, so the number of leaves always dominates
 
So your answer is wrong for the tree T_n with one central vertex and n leaves. Then the subgraphs of this are either T_k for smaller k or the discrete graph with n nodes. The average degree of T_k is 2k/(k+1) while the average degree in the discrete graph is 1. So in this specific case I get that your notion seems to be 2n/(n+1) < 2.
Ohh you're giving an upper bound.
 
It's correct that it's at most 2
 
9:13 PM
OK, then I surely agree.
 
Yeah, I was wrong before
Thanks :)
 
Let me reconstruct your proof. It suffices to show average degree is at most 2 for any forest. But sum of degrees is equal to twice the number of edges, which is at most V - 1 --- less if this forest has more than one tree. So we top out at 2(V-1)/V.
 
Yeah, that's it.
 
How to approach the following problem?

Find $0 < x <119$ such that $40^{478}=x \mod 119$
 
Does this notion make good sense for infinite trees? Maybe with bounded valence?
 
9:17 PM
Yeah, I think this is a very useful notion. I don't know too many computations though.
 
For a bounded valence d I would guess that you still top out at 2d/(d+1) I would guess.
 
For example this is telling you that generically infinite regular trees are terribly approximated by it's finite subgraphs
Yeah, that sounds right.
 
This is actually a very nice concept question in my linear algebra text
 
Is there any iteration of the category of varieties and rational maps that is locally small and has small coproducts?
 
9:19 PM
You've done cofactors?
 
Diagonal domination is extremely nice, yeah
 
@BigSocks Your categorical language is obscuring, not revealing. Yes, there is a set of rational maps between two varieties, no, you cannot take the disjoint union of P(N) varieties under any reasonable notion I know.
 
I like that exercise a lot
 
Pay attention to the numbers @Eminem
So I'm guessing no cofactor expansion of determinant, so we have to do interchanges.
 
I always forget how diagonal domination works
I only remember Gershgorin circle theorem instead
 
9:21 PM
Well, it's enlightening.
 
@TedShifrin I haven't done anything yet. But I will mention the inductive definition with cofactors. To me this is just an exercise about how swaps affect sign.
 
OK, I didn't know how to approach it, not knowing what you've done.
 
Ye, just swap so that the diagonal is huge
 
You are right @MikeMiller that it is obscuring, but it is sometimes efficient. I don’t see how the second bit implies it does not have small coproducts. I guess continuum is a set and disjoint union is coproduct?
 
I have done nothing. Perhaps I never will.
@BigSocks If something is efficient but obscuring it is garbage, throw it out. The whole point of mathematics is understanding and to move in the opposite direction is bad math!
But, yes, the rest is correct.
To say the phrase coproduct of varieties but not understand the picture of coproduct of varieties breaks my heart.
 
9:23 PM
@Thorgott Oh right that one is equivalent to "all diagonally dominant matrices are invertible"
That is kind of insane.
 
I've always liked Gershgorin.
 
I learnt it from Thorgott I think
 
I don't know it, teach me.
 
I can appreciate your argument on the language of math. Thanks @MikeMiller
 
@Thorgott Teach him
I have to write a talk
 
9:25 PM
It seems to be used a lot in numerical linear algebra, actually, @MikeM.
 
I suppose @BigSocks it depends what a variety is to you. Are they quasiprojective? Then very much NO (projective space has a cardinality bound). Are they locally quasiprojective? then ok.
 
@TedShifrin We know $\phi (119) = 96$ (euler function), so $(40,119)=1 \implies 40^{\phi (119)} = 40^{96} = 1 \mod 119$

Now, $40^{478}=(40^{96})^{4} \cdot 40^{94} =40^{94}$ but how do i continue?
 
My talk
 
I want to include varieties of general type as well as the “other ones”, i.e. the ones that are interesting/classified by Kodaira dim
 
@Eminem: What is $120\cdot 4$?
 
9:27 PM
@Mike Take a complex matrix. For each row, sum the absolute values of its elements except for the diagonal element. Take the disk that has this sum as radius and the diagonal element in the row as center. The union of these disks (they're called Gershgorin disks) contains all the Eigenvalues of the matrix.
 
@BigSocks Uh all of these are projective varieties, the stuff I was talking about is general nonsense closer to schemes. What you're talking about all takes place as closed subsets of CP^n.
You don't even have infinite coproducts much less coproducts indexed on the reals.
 
Damn why have I never heard of this
 
You're talking about Gershgorin?
 
Because most "pure" math courses don't deign to cover it. I first learned it in an applied book. But the proof is quite trivial.
 
9:29 PM
So since indices for coproducts are bounded in this way we do have small coproducts? @MikeMiller
 
there's some kinda crazy generalizations of it
 
No dude, you have to know what words mean before you can talk about them
2
To say you have "small coproducts" means you have coproducts indexed by an arbitrary set
 
there's an entire book on the Gershgorin theorem and various of its generalizations, I should read it
 
If it helps your intuition you are asking "Is there a category of closed smooth manifolds which is locally small and has small coproducts?" which translates to: "Is C^infty(M, N) a set, and can I take arbitrary disjoint unions of closed smooth manifolds and get a closed smooth manifold?" Certainly not, infinite disjoint unions are not compact
 
@TedShifrin $120 \cdot 4 = 480 = 478 + 2$ but how does this helps me?
 
9:31 PM
So $478 = 119\cdot 4 + 2$?
 
Then you say 'ok now general manifolds' and it depends on definitions.... is a manifold a subset of R^n? Then no, you can only fit countable disjoint unions in R^n. Is it a paracompact Hausdorff etc etc? then fine...
 
It's a pretty cool theorem. I should try to integrate it in one of my problem sets in my linear algebra course
 
The example you gave makes sense. And yeah I usually learn as I go. But nah I don’t think general manifolds will cut it
 
yeah, sounds like a cool thing to put on a problem set
 
Well, you need to wait for eigenvalues/eigenvectors. I assume you do complex matrices? I never did in my intro courses (just too many things to fit in).
 
9:32 PM
@Thorgott This makes sense, but is very neat
Linear algebra is too hard for me. I find it very difficult to teach well.
 
cool addition (this isn't just linear algebra anymore though): if you can partition the $n$ Gershgorin disks into a set of $k$ and a set of $n-k$ Gershgorin disks such that the unions of these respective collections are disjoint, then the former contains exactly $k$ and the latter exactly $n-k$ Eigenvalues (counted with multiplicity, of course)
 
Topologists only care about linear algebra for homology and for intersection theory. :D
 
@Ted Depends, I feel the instructor might do more of linear algebra than group theory because we do not have a proper course on linear algebra (these damn algebraists). If they plan to do that then maybe complex matrices can come in
 
I do my best but I don't think a course to my standards is possible with standard time constraints and standard expectations of the students' out of class time.
 
when i first learnt what a bilinear pairing was my reaction was "holy shit, thats exactly like the cup product"
 
9:34 PM
Balarka's education is entirely upside-down.
 
lol
 
I also did not learn linear algebra in my first linear algebra course. I have only a hazy recollection of what happened.
I learned a little bit in my Axler course. I learned most of my linear algebra in graduate school for qual prep and to understand examples.
 
I was lucky. I had a linear algebra/ODE course freshman year. And then I relearned linear algebra in Artin's algebra course sophomore year. But, as always, much of the stuff in these courses I didn't really learn until I taught it and then wrote the books.
 
@TedShifrin i'll tell you that it worked out when i get the fields medal in 20 years
 
LOL, touché @Balarka.
 
9:36 PM
hmmm...i cant seem to figure this one out
 
I only understood cramer's rule yesterday when I was trying to prove it for myself. I thought about what the goal was and it was completely obvious what to do.
But I have no idea how to communicate it to someone who doesn't think "find a good basis for the dual space" is an obviously good idea.
 
The textbook proof of Cramer's rule is almost always a horrid proof. I learned "the right" one from a business calculus text years ago.
So I put that one in my books :D
 
I lowkey forgot what Cramer's rule is tbh
 
The point being that letting one of the columns of your matrix vary gives you a basis psi_1, ..., psi_n of row space so that psi_i(v_j) = det(A) delta_{ij}. Now calculate what these row vectors are and there is a formula for A^{-1}.
@Thorgott Formula for A^{-1} in terms of determinants of minors.
There are other ways to describe it eg cofactor expansion to solve Ax = b. They are the same idea so whatever.
 
oh really, that I know
 
9:39 PM
Okay this is good. Give me all this good stuff. Tomorrow I shall flex with all this Indiana Jones arc of the covenant shit
 
ah, I think what I learned it as is the second thing you mean
 
Yeah, that's the wrong proof.
 
you replace a column of the matrix with the vector you wanna solve for or something
 
wtf Sayan
 
We will never agree.
 
9:41 PM
Okay yeah that came out terribly
It sounded better inside my head
 
Using the cofactor formula for $A^{-1}$ is just complete overkill.
 
the formula for A^{-1} is useful cause it tells you that matrix inversion is smoot h :P
 
Just put $Ax=b=\sum x_i a_i$ in the $j$th column of $A$ and use multilinearity properties of det.
@Thor: Yes, in fact, rational. That's really the only use for it, although I've found some places in diff geo where it shows up.
 
Lol I can't even delete it anymore
 
You have only described a different phrasing of the same proof. I am describing a proof of the formula for A^{-1}. Your argument is the exact same idea, but applied to solve a different question.
 
9:43 PM
@TedShifrin a very good use, though
 
The usual proof I've seen in linear algebra books uses the classical adjoint formula for the inverse to derive Cramer. I'm just saying that's a horrid proof.
 
I (implicitly) use that fact very regularly
 
Yes, @Thor, I agree.
 
I thought that was the only proof until today. Clearly I shouldn't be TA'ing linear algebra
 
oh no, not agreeance again
 
9:44 PM
@TedShifrin This is exactly what Mike is saying though
I am sure he wont use the words "dual basis" in his lectures
That one's just for us
 
We agree that there is exactly one fundamental idea, though: duality between V and Lambda^{n-1} V, and this is expressed by determinant. You are saying: "Solve Ax = b using duality." I am saying: "Find A^{-1} using duality." If you then want to solve Ax = b you can, but this adds an extra step.

I agree that if *your only interest* is in solving the first question then you have added an unnecessary step. However, the first step which we both do is the same step.
This is what I mean when I say they are the same fact: it is an identical idea which goes into the proofs of the two facts.
The fact that you can use my result to obtain your result obscures that your result is of intrinsict interest and can be done with more computational ease, sure.
 
I guess this is too fancy for me. I'm just computing the determinant using multilinearity. Am I using duality?
 
yeah, you're noticing det(A_1, A_2, ..., A_j instead of A_i, ..., A_n) = delta_{ij} det(A)
 
If $B_j$ is the matrix I get putting $b$ in the $j$th column, then by multilinearity $\det (B_j) = x_j \det (A)$. That's it.
No, no, I'm not.
 
Yes, this is a proof that V and Lambda^{n-1} V are dual.
We are talking past each other and this is not a productive use of time for either of us.
I am using higher-level language because I am talking to you and not students. That's all.
 
9:48 PM
Oh, because nondegenerate pairing. OK.
I was talking pedagogy for students, not fancy stuff.
 
Aha! Finally
 
We are on 100% the same page. :)
 
We win
Ted is easy to persuade using forms
 
Only if you use $d$ and Stokes !!
 
Whenever he doesn't understand just rephrase the statement using forms
@TedShifrin Lol
 
9:49 PM
I make this point because for years I taught the horrendous proof from the classical adjoint (which is how I had been taught).
 
I agree with you
It was the proof I knew for a long time
 
OK. I rest my case. :)
 
The solution [provided time] is to present proofs of both facts and observe that you have written the same proof.
 
You can do that with all of math
 
I agree that to first compute A^{-1} and then apply that to solve Ax = b is obscuring.
 
9:52 PM
Show that all of math are equivalent
 
Can homotopy type theory prove that two proofs are not homotopic yet?
 
Lol
@AlessandroCodenotti
 
the meta-space of mathematics is contractible
it contains ZFC as a deformation retract
 
Certainly false.
I also like this problem from the textbook (which I will not use): Find a noninvertible 2x2 matrix whose entries are all distinct prime numbers or prove that this is impossible.
 
you should ask @user2103480
 
9:57 PM
invertible in $M_n(\Bbb Z)$ or $M_n(\Bbb Q)$ ?
 
Hard for two primes to be linearly dependent on two other primes.
 
If it's the latter then it's impossible
 
if it's not invertible over Q, it's not invertible over Z either..
 
I mean it's impossible to find such a matrix
 
Was just gunna say
 
9:59 PM
I mean the statement allowed for that possibility
It's just a good number-theoretic question ;)
 
Can you not project on one of the primes to cancel out one of the entrie and get a triangular matrix
then you can compute the determinant which is automatically nonzero
 
"project on one of the primes"
 
I remember being stunned the first time I saw the version of the Euclidean algorithm in terms of invertible matrices.
 
Astyx, you are insane
 
@BalarkaSen aka reduce mod p
In a good or bad way?
 
10:01 PM
For this to be invertible means that ad=bc. This is a statement about unique factorization.
 
You need pq-ab = 0 for all distinct primes
 
this guy had too much number theory
 
Not gunna happen
 
@TedShifrin Is this not basically the Smith normal form
 
Dang you said it
 
10:01 PM
not every problem is solved by reduction mod p
 
This is how you get the Smith normal form IIRC, Euclidean algorithm on 2x2 minors
Improving the pivots incrementally
 
Back to contractibility of the proof-space for some proofs.
 
lol
 
Ok I don't get it
 
I don't remember Smith normal form as relevant, but I am old.
 
10:03 PM
There are some very nice exercises that I am afraid are too difficulty for my students.
 
I wonder if @Eminem figured out his congruence.
 
@Astyx ?????????????? $\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}$ is noninvertible (over R, say) iff $ad - bc = 0$. By assumption a,d,b,c are distinct primes. By uniqueness of prime factorization we have $ad \neq bc$.
 
Ah ok
Same argument
 
Now do it for a matrix of prime ideals
 
But as followup to the above: there is a nice one on Vandermonde determinants which I think will be difficult for them, and one on the (n-1)ary cross product in R^n
 
10:05 PM
I thought you were saying my argument didn't work and was confused
 
Exercise: generalize this statement to Abelian categories
 
@TedShifrin I have definitely forgotten the details of it haha
and I am not old
 
I was saying that your argument is obscuring!
 
you're very right
 
10:07 PM
calculating the Vandermonde determinant abstractly is a super cool proof, but I don't know if that's within the scope of what you're doing
 
Whether I am old or not depends on my extremal lifespan. My calculation shows that it's 40 years.
So I'm basically middle-aged
 
Screw it, I'm including them, they have two weeks since there's a break coming up. I will just warn them that they are more difficult and they should get in touch if they have questions.
 
Sometimes warning that it's hard just makes them not even try.
 
Hmm. Good point.
I will not include any pointers about how difficult a problem is and instead just include the generality that I will be glad to help in general even though there will be a break.
Thanks for that tip and the tip on Cramer. :) They are both useful (even though I like to argue).
 
@BalarkaSen now for a matrix of knots
 
10:22 PM
LOL, my feelings aren't hurt if you argue, @MikeM :)
 
@TedShifrin I have.
$40^{478}=(40^{96})^{5} \cdot 40^{-2} =(40^{-1})^2=3^2=9$
 
So $478 = 4\cdot 119 + 2$. Are you using that?
Oh, I see. I was being stooopid. 119 isn't prime. That's why you had Euler $\phi$ before.
OK, so what I was saying is not helpful. If you use Chinese Remainder Theorem, you could work mod 7 and mod 17, though.
 
Funny thing is, in the exam im learning to, there was a hint in bold "notice - 119 is not a prime"
lol
 
Right. I didn't check divisibility by 7 until a few moments ago.
Do you know about CRT?
 
Hello
 
10:35 PM
We can proove that $\mathbb Z_n \times \mathbb Z_m \cong \mathbb Z_{mn} \iff(n,m)=1$ using CRT
 
Well, so you can convert so solving a congruence mod 7 and solving a congruence mod 17, which are much easier. What's $40^{478}\pmod 7$ and $40^{478}\pmod{17}$?
 
@TedShifrin this is not universal ...
 
LOL, oh oh.
Anyhow, @Eminem, using CRT, I'm getting the answer you already have. $9$ is right.
 
10:51 PM
do collar neighborhoods exist in the Riemannian category?
 
What does that mean? If it's what I think it means, "of course not", but spell it out for me.
 
isometric embedding of $\partial M\times[0,1)$ in $M$ that maps $\partial M\times\{0\}$ onto $\partial M$ via projection
 
Without assuming a local product metric along the boundary to start with?
 
Did you think of any examples? :) How about the handlebody in R^3?
 
Can't we start with the upper half-plane?
 
10:56 PM
it surely is true for the upper half-plane, no?
which one is "the handlebody"?
 
Don't know, don't care. Whatever you're imagining? It's a counterexample.
But if you want something say I meant the solid torus.
 
What metric on the upper half-plane? I am going to take a metric of the form $dx\otimes dx + f(x)dy\otimes dy$ for some nonconstant (and positive) $f$.
 
That'll work too.
Do you see what the obstruction we are pointing to is, @Thor?
 
I think the obstruction in your case is that the boundary is curved, so the inward-pointing normals get closer further inside?
 
Good intuition, I am pointing to curvature. Scalar curvature of M x I is scalar curvature of M.
I think.
But certainly sectional curvature of M x I on a plane in TM coincides with sectional curvature of M on that plane.
 
11:06 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti idk you could define the product type $\Pi(\Delta[2],A)$ for some type $A$ and then this is formally a homotopy between two elements of $\Pi(\Delta[1],A)$, which are witnesses of equality
whether that actually means anything is another question
 
I'm still thinking about Ted's example. Naively, what's stopping me from just "straightening out" each parallel of the y-axis?
 
As you stated the question, I have to have an isometry with the given metric on the surface.
If you allow me to change the metric, of course.
 
yeah no, I'm being silly, the issue happens in the horizontal directions, not in the vertical ones
 
Yeah, you can even do it pretty easily with a shear metric .
 
What's the formula for curvature of the metric f dx^2 + g dxdy + h dy^2?
I forget.......
 
11:19 PM
I have no idea.
If $g=0$, I know a formula.
 
It should be simple either way. I just forget. I always hated this stuff. Bad me.
 
Not simple when you have a non-orthogonal coordinate chart.
 
I trust you.
 
so uh, is there a variety that has a proper class of isomorphism classes of subvarieties?
 
I don't know what proper class means. What about $\Bbb P^n$?
 
11:28 PM
idek what a variety is, but the answer is no
 
LOL
Hi, DogAteMy.
 
@TedShifrin more than set-many I guess, but I think you are being pedagogical
 
No, I'm not.
More than set-many? I have no idea what this means.
 
A proper class is a class that is not a set, under the standard axioms of set theory.
In ZFC this means that it's "too big" to be a set.
 
they don't call you T$\in$d Shifrin for nothin
 
11:34 PM
OK, I have no earthly idea.
 
A class is just a collection of objects defined by a formula in the language of set theory
A very large class is the class $\{x \mid x = x \}$
here the defining formula is $\phi(x) \equiv x=x$
and this cannot be a set in ZFC thanks to some early 20th century philosophers who had to ruin it for everyone
 
@TedShifrin I have been thinking about this and my guess is that if it is more than countable nobody would read Hartshorne so
 
BigSocks why are you talking about this stuff? This is only hard because you're reading irrelevant things before you have the background to.
 
No, definitely more than countable.
 
@BigSocks a variety is a set? what is an isomorphism class?
 
11:38 PM
You can have complex curves parametrized by a disk in $\Bbb C$, for example, that are all infinitesimally non-isomorphic.
 
@MikeMiller trying to break down a question that is above my pay grade with other questions that I could aspire to understand
 
He's worried about issues about proper classes (for some inscrutable reason). I think he might think that a set that's bigger than countable is a proper class. I'm having a hard time telling what he thinks. Also, I'm talking about him in the third person while he's right there, which is probably uncomfortable.
 
@MikeMiller i do not think that
 
What is the actual question and more importantly why do you care?
 
I am quite comfortable, you can go on
 
11:40 PM
If you're talking about the number of objects isomorphic to some subobject there's a good chance it's a proper class
 
ROFL
BigSocks got used to being insulted by me; but I've stopped, so I'm sure he feels unloved.
 
“What does a test-field for varieties of general type look like?”
 
since you can do stupid constructions such as $\{x\} \times S$ and probably get the same thing, structurally
 
Good evening. I have a question regarding logarithemtic paper. is anyone itnerested in helping me out? it should not be a difficult question
 
@TedShifrin love and pain, 2 sides, same coin
 
11:41 PM
@BigSocks you meant math and pain
What is math
 
Ok. What's a test-field?
 
$\Bbb RP$ dont hurt me
 
@user2103480 I mean there’s gotta be enough structure to get a subvariety. I am talking the alg. geo. sense, not universal algebra sense, of variety fwiw
 
@MadSpaces What kind of logarithmic paper? There are various types. And probably I'm the only one who's ever used them. :P
 
@BigSocks still no clue what you're talking about but this should be an almost pure set theory thing
 
11:43 PM
Everyone is talking past each other because nobody recognizes the points that are actually important here. When you say "The collection of subvarieties of a variety" then that's a set. That's also obviously a set. A subvariety is a subset of V satisfying some conditions... so an element of the power set P(V). P(V) is a set. A subcollection of a set is a set. Done.
 
@MikeMiller i put it in italics because it was not made clear to me so that is part of what I have to answer for myself. I was guessing maybe separator as in category theory, but you need small colimits and we went through that. If we just had a proper class of iso. classes for some object in the category of varieties I could dispel the notion of “separators” being an adequate description of “test-object” for me
 
It is confusing to us because this is truly obvious, so it's hard to recognize what you're really looking for.
 
@user2103480 i mean, obviously you have to be right, but only in an evil way
 
@TedShifrin so i basically know how it works, since i use it as well, you have 10 ticks between each number and the other and it just goes exponentially ...
but sometimes lets say between number 3 and 4 you have only 4 ticks.. what does these four ticks represent. i will upload a small picture
 
@MikeMiller isomorphism classes is something different
 
11:44 PM
That picture is infinitesimal.
 
Ahaha i did say Small :)
 
(maybe)
 
@user2103480 Isomorphism classes of things in a set is a quotient set of a set which is a set.
 
@TedShifrin you can open it in new tab. and zoom in with control + alt and mouse wheel
 
@MikeMiller yeah this is kind of what i am falling back on, but I am open to other ideas I guess
@TedShifrin lold
 
11:46 PM
I have a Mac, so not likely.
 
This stuff really very very very very rarely matters at the level you're working in.
 
@MikeMiller yesn't. I totally get what you mean, any usual operation gives us a set. But if you consider things that embed into a thing, that's often a class
 
@user2103480 and this is my fear
 
E.g. sets of cardinality one are set-theoretically isomorphic
 
11:47 PM
Anyhow, you're splitting the interval from 3 to 4 into 5 equal pieces. Splitting the log into 5 equal pieces means you're multiplying by $(4/3)^{1/5}$ and then $(4/3)^{2/5}$, etc.
 
and there's loads of them. The number of isomorphisms between any two sets are of course a set
 
I know all of the details you're talking about. They are not useful or relevant here.
And the moment one says "Isomorphism classes" one gets to forget about all of that junk.
Because by virtue of embedding into V you're isomorphic to a subset of V.
Which there is a set of.
 
@TedShifrin i am not sure i follow. What are those numbers you wrote?
 
@MikeMiller this is what I will write on a scrap of paper and hide under my pillow for when the set theory nightmares hit and I wake up in a cold sweat
 
@TedShifrin oh so you multiply 3 with those numbers to get the ticks?
 
11:52 PM
Hold on. I'm uploading something better to look at.
 
I understood BigSocks question as asking whether the category of varieties is well-powered
 
Note that the spacing is basically not even.
 
@Thorgott knocking back categorypills finally
 
Yes. so if i have ten ticks between two numbers. its easy to just write what comes up at these ticks since i am basically deviding by 10
 
So what I said before is wrong. We're splitting 1->2 into 1.25, 1.5, 1.75, and then each of those into pieces.
When you said evenly spaced, it threw me off.
 
11:55 PM
What would the ticks between 1 and 1.25 take for values?
 
Dividing into 5 equal pieces.
 
but isnt doing that make it linear?
 
No, because the spacing is not even.
 
5
A: A category with a strong generator is well-powered

Mauro PortaOk, my previous answer wasn't correct. Now, everything works. First of all, I thank Sergio Buschi, who provided me a counter-example to the OP. Since he gave me his permission, I'll write the details. Let $\mathcal C$ be the subcategory of $\mathbf{Set}$ whose objects are all the sets. As morphi...

Although somehow no @Thorgott
 
Note how small the distance from 9 to 10 is compared to the distance from 1 to 2.
That's because the spacing is determined by logs, and 10/9 is a lot smaller than 2/1.
 
11:57 PM
so would the ticks between 9 and 10 get the following values:
9,20
9,40
9,60
9,80
 
Maybe Zhen Lin is characterizing this guy differently in:
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Q: Defining Test-Objects

Venkata Rayudu PosinaIn various categories one encounters what are referred to as 'test-objects'. For example, singleton set serves as test-object (in testing the equality of functions) in the category of sets. In the category of graphs, we need two test objects: dot D and arrow A to separate graph maps (Conceptual...

 
Yeah, right.
 
Alrighty Alrighty.. much thanks mister Shifrin!
 
Trying to stitch things together
 

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