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4:00 PM
hmmm what did I miss, I saw heaps of reds and purples, and now greens
 
My indices are worse than a Riemannian geometer right now
 
Right, so right now I have (a) a 30 minute free (b) a do Carmo in my hand and (c) zero intuition for how $[X,Y]$ works
so I think I'mma head to the library and compute some examples on paper
 
Good luck
 
Either that or read Tao's writing about writing
 
What's $[X,Y]$?
 
4:02 PM
Lie bracket
 
Ah, I've heard that name before but I don't think I want to know more about it right now
 
Akiva should teach it to you after he understands it
 
So you've got a vector field $X$ on a manifold. Say at every point $p$, $X$ gives you a vector $v:=X(p)$ tangent to the manifold at $p$. And if $f$ is a differentiable function from the manifold to $\Bbb R$, you can consider the directional derivative of $f$ at a point $p$ in the direction of $v=X(p)$.
This gives you a new function; call it $Xf$.
 
I can't think about two things at I time, I'm already busy with other maths atm :/
 
I wonder if someone wrote some humongous indices notation like $A_{\beta}$ and then let $\beta = \begin{pmatrix}a& b & c \\ d & e & f \\ g & h & i\end{pmatrix}$ where each entry is an index?
 
4:06 PM
If you have two vector fields, you can look at $X(Yf)$ and $Y(Xf)$, which are essentially second derivatives of $f$ (first in the direction of $X(p)$ and then in the direction of $Y(p)$, or the other way around)
However, if you look at $XYf-YXf$, apparently the second derivatives cancel
 
(and one can imagine iterate this arbitrarily deep)
 
The Clairaut
 
and there exists a vector field $Z$ such that $Zf=XYf-YXf$ for all $f$
This is called $[X,Y]$.
 
@Alessandro There should be an indoor game where a bunch of people throws each other random math as much as they possibly can and everyone participating has to :thonkfast: about every thing
Like multichessing
Or whatever it is called
Probably nobody will play it
 
how is lie derivative related to the commmutator in operator algebra/quantum mechanics stuff?
 
4:09 PM
Probably yes.
I realize you asked "how". I have no idea.
 
It's literally a commutator
XY-YX
ab(ba)^-1 = aba^-1b^-1
A more rigorous way to do this is to state it in terms of what the flow of $[X, Y]$ is
 
Actually I think it was clearest above. X, Y are operators on the space of functions, and [X,Y] is the commutator of those operators
 
Ah, so they are basically equivalent
 
Yeah I mean you don't really have a multiplication operator to write it as aba^-1b^-1 fully rigorously, which is why I was suggesting to pass to flows.
But that's how I think about it too
 
Can we prove that the middle term of binomial expansion carries the greatest binomial coefficient?
 
4:15 PM
I'm being pedantic
That's @MatheinBoulomenos's job
 
@Abcd other than using the formula for binomial coefficients?
 
@Abcd Can you prove that C(n,k) <= C(n,k+1) when k < n/2?
 
@Abcd Induction of some sort on Pascal's triangle I think?
 
@Secret $\dbinom{n}{r}= \dfrac{n!}{(n-r)!r!}$
 
akiva: sniped
 
4:17 PM
If one row increases towards the middle, then so does the next row, that sort of thing
 
What to do after that?
@MikeMiller Thinking.
 
@Abcd ah I forgot you are dealing with generic n, cause for specific values you can just plug in the midpoint and show it is greater, but plugging in n/2 will require evaluating (n/2)! which needs the gamma function, thus too complicated
 
Equivalently, you're trying to show under those conditions that C(n,k+1)/C(n,k) is bigger than or equal to 1
 
@MikeMiller how does one proof that without using the formula or induction?
 
@BalarkaSen Right so Balarka I computed it where $X$ was constant, and I didn't get 0
on the plane
 
4:24 PM
Well what do you mean by constant
 
$X=\hat\imath$, $~Y=x\hat\imath+y\hat\imath$, $~[X,Y]=\hat\imath+\hat\jmath$
where $M=\Bbb R^2$
 
@Secret Induction doesn't help at all. If by "the formula" you mean the definition C(n,k) = n!/(n-k)!k! I see no reason to avoid this
 
@Akiva Well I mean that's right
 
I thought you said it should be 0 the other day
and I was confused
 
@MikeMiller Ah I see, forgot that it is not a derived formula
 
4:27 PM
Ahhh, I see what you mean now. You meant induction on $n$ in $(x+y)^n$
 
@AkivaWeinberger If $X$ and $Y$ are both constant then $[X, Y] = 0$ I think is what I said
 
I'm using the binomial theorem and you're thinking of avoiding this
 
I suggested an induction proof
 
@MikeMiller its actually, less than 1
 
On Pascal's triangle: If one row increases towards the middle, then so does the next row, that sort of thing
Shouldn't be too hard
 
4:28 PM
Because write down $X = \sum a_i \partial/\partial x_i$ and $Y = \sum b_i \partial/\partial x_i$ where $a_i, b_i$ are constant
Commute them and use Clairaut
 
Use who now?
 
$\partial^2/\partial x \partial y = \partial^2/\partial y \partial x$
 
Ah
Yeah so if they're both constant it's zero
If $X=\hat\imath$ and $Y=f\hat\imath+g\hat\jmath$ then $[X,Y]=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\hat\imath+\frac{\partial g}{\partial y}\hat\jmath$
where $f$ and $g$ are $\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$
 
@BalarkaSen who thought that result needs a name
 
mathematicians
 
4:36 PM
Stupid ones
 
says an engineer
:ROASTED:
 
There do exist rational counterexamples
that don't satisfy all the hypotheses
 
Not if you use weak derivatives
And everything is a weak derivative unless stated otherwise
 
Wait hold on if $X=\hat\jmath$ and the rest are as before, then $[X,Y]$ is the same thing? What?
I must have done something wrong somewhere
 
4:40 PM
Is the title text a Waiting for Godot reference
 
No idea
 
Yep
 
Dec 1 '17 at 5:14, by Balarka Sen
As Samuel Beckett liked to say, my existence on the planet is a mistake
As I said at the time, I agree
Beckett's existence on this planet was a mistake
 
If Joyce was the father of Finnegans Wake, Beckett was surely it's mother
So I agree
 
Re $[\hat\imath,Y]=[\hat\jmath,Y]$, I think it makes sense now actually
No symmetry was broken
Wait never mind that doesn't actually work
because then $[\hat\imath-\hat\jmath,Y]$ would always equal $0$
What
 
4:47 PM
@Semiclassical I think I finally found the bible which, assuming you read a 120 year old 800 page old complex analysis book before beginning it, would make those Dubrovin notes people.sissa.it/~dubrovin/rsnleq_web.pdf readable without any magic :p
This stuff is really crazy, but it's all calculus-ey
"covers the whole of algebraic geometry" which seems motivation enough
Those Dub notes are just too magic-ey
 
If you go at this rate 12 years form now on you'll find yourself reading old Mesopotamian and Egyptian earliest mathematical texts to understand complex algebraic geometry or whatever the shit you want to understand.
I applaud your endeavor and bid you a good luck in your journey.
 
haha
 
@bolbteppa well, one of the phrases you see in the Dub notes is “Baker-Akhiezer functions”
So you may be very right
 
The modern intro to that book talks about BA functions being in that book without the name
Apparently they are functions with essential singularities on a RS
 
Interesting
I’ve always had trouble getting a grasp of the definitions in integrable systems if I’m honest
 
4:56 PM
I recently found out that that 800-page complex book (by Forsyth) was literally the first English translation of European analysis of the 19'th century, in the 1890's, and changed English-speaking math, but was considered not rigorous enough once people read it and thought about it, but then Whittaker came along as the first rigorous analysis book in English, so you can't really go much earlier apart from those Euler texts, Gauss Disquisitiones, Euclid, Newton, and that's it maybe :p
and that Forsyth book is quite literally insane in the second half
 
Hi, how do I solve this differential equation: x^2 (xdx+ydy) + 2y(xdy-ydx)=0 ?
 
Check if it's exact, if it's not, find an integrating factor
 
Wolframalpha isn't working for me for some reason
 
I found my error
 
5:23 PM
Hello!!

It holds that the set {a} is an affine subspace in $\mathbb{R}^2$, right? Can it be that a is an affine subspace? Or only the set that contains one point and not just one point?
 
$\{a\}$ is an affine subspace, yes. $a$ is not a subset at all; $a\not\subseteq\Bbb R^2$.
You need to be a subset to be a(n affine) subspace @MaryStar
 
Ah ok! Thank you!! @AkivaWeinberger
 
@BalarkaSen So let's say I have $f,g:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$, and I define $[f,g]=fg'-f'g$.
And we have a diffeomorphism $\varphi:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$.
Does $[f\circ\varphi,g\circ\varphi]$ equal $[f,g]\circ\varphi$?
 
Suppose we have the set $C=\{x\in \mathbb{R}^3 \mid \langle x, \begin{pmatrix}-1 \\ 1\end{pmatrix}\rangle=1\}$. To check if this is an affine subspace do we have to check if we can write that set in the form a+U ? @AkivaWeinberger
 
5:39 PM
What does $\langle\cdot\rangle$ mean?
Is it the inner product? How would you inner product a 3-dimensional vector with a 2-dimensional one?
 
42 mins ago, by Rick
Hi, how do I solve this differential equation: x^2 (xdx+ydy) + 2y(xdy-ydx)=0 ?
anyone?
 
And, uh, yes, I think that's how you'd do it @MaryStar
If that's how affine subspaces were defined for you
@Rick I don't remember how to do those, sorry
 
at $\langle x, \begin{pmatrix}-1 \\ 1\end{pmatrix}\rangle=1$ the left side is the dot product, or not? But $x$ has 3 components, how is it defined? I got stuck right noe.
 
Yeah, that's what I was asking you before
What makes the most sense to me is that $\Bbb R^3$ was a typo and that it should have been $\Bbb R^2$
 
@AkivaWeinberger alright np, but do you get an answer when you put it into wolframalpha?
its not working for me
don't know why
 
5:44 PM
Ah I didn't see that comment, sorry. @AkivaWeinberger
Maybe it is a typo..
 
I'm trying to show that $\Bbb{R}^\omega$ with the uniform metric is not 2nd countable or separable (either one will work, since they are equivalent for metric spaces). I could use a hint.
 
@Rick It is
 
$$2\le \left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^n<3 \space{ }\forall \space{}n \in \mathbb{N}$$
Anyone aware of this inequality?
 
Solve for y*dy/dx
 
can you show what you get?
 
5:47 PM
The final answer is, apparently:$$\pm\frac x{x+2}\sqrt{C-x(x+4)}$$
 
My idea was to transfer the proof that $\Bbb{R}_\ell$ isn't countable into the $\Bbb{R}^\omega$ setting. If $\mathcal{B}$ is a basis for $\Bbb{R}_\ell$, then $x \mapsto B_x \subseteq [x,x+1)$ is an injection between $\Bbb{R}$ and $\mathcal{B}$, which shows that $\mathcal{B}$ is uncountable. How do I do something similar in $\Bbb{R}^\omega$?
 
I just expanded and inputed it, I got a different answer
y(x) = -(i x sqrt(c_1 + x (x + 4)))/(x + 2)
used the copy plaintext function
 
@Abcd: Sure. That sequence is very important and converges to $e$.
 
hello @TedShifrin
 
Hi @Antonios
 
5:56 PM
hows it going
 
Decently, thanks ... and you?
 
not bad! quite a busy semester, but I can't complain.
 
Did the kidlets end up mostly passing the algebra exam?
 
dunno
Pretty sure they get it back today.
 
Ah.
 
6:01 PM
@TedShifrin How would you prove it
 
@Abcd: First, it's an increasing sequence, so they're clearly all $\ge 2$.
(Or you can see it directly from the binomial theorem.)
 
@TedShifrin seen
 
I'm thinking about the hard inequality.
The standard way to get that is to relate this sequence to the other way of getting $e = \sum 1/n!$. You can easily see that series sums to less than $3$.
What are we allowed to use?
With some calculus, of course, it's quite easy.
@user193319: Did you figure out your $\Bbb R^\omega$ yet? You're right that the easiest thing to do is give an uncountable number of disjoint open sets.
 
@Abcd I don't remember how Bernoulli's inequality works but I think it shows up in things like this
 
Howdy, DogAteMy.
 
6:14 PM
Heyup
 
@TedShifrin Is it okay to learn stuff whose proofs one does not understand?
 
Lots of people have learned the Riemann Hypothesis, I doubt many understand the proof :P
2
 
Hello
 
@TedShifrin No I haven't quite figured it out yet...
 
6:29 PM
@Abcd perhaps this is unsolicited advice, but you shouldn't let your reach exceed your grasp. It's a bit safer to be sure you can at least understand the proofs of what you're doing. You don't need to memorize them, but you should definitely be able to understand them if they're in front of you.
 
@Abcd I do think you should be able to know why things are plausible, at least, though
Like, some motivating examples, things like that
Otherwise it could become a mechanical tool with no meaning, like calc students learning the product rule without knowing why it works
 
@AkivaWeinberger Hmm, so going through examples and applications without understanding the proof completley is fine?
 
depends what you're doing
 
@user193319: Can you give me an obvious uncountable subset of $\Bbb R^\omega$?
 
@AkivaWeinberger there is a distinction to be drawn, though, between people who know the statement of the Riemann hypothesis and people who understand why proving it is so hard.
 
6:34 PM
Right, yeah, and people who understand why people think it's probably true
(or even probably false, depending on who you ask)
 
@TedShifrin Well, I was thinking about $(0,1) \times \{0\} \times ...$
 
@TedShifrin In Newton's Generalised Binomial theorem why is $|x|<1$ a necessary condition?
 
No ... You want an uncountable set with disjoint open balls around the elements, @user193319.
@Abcd: It's not.
Oh, wait, you mean the one with arbitrary exponents?
 
@TedShifrin yes
 
The other thing that's tricky about RH is that, on the one hand, it's been checked numerically to seemingly high numbers
 
6:36 PM
Why is it a necessary condition for the geometric series $\sum x^k = 1/(1-x)$?
 
@TedShifrin Tends to zero?
 
@Balarka when you see this, I have a tiny bit more to say about the Laplacian
 
@TedShifrin That's what I was trying. I thought that mapping $x = (x_1,x_2,...) \in (0,1) \times \{0\} \times ...$ to $B(x,x_1)$ would work, but it doesn't...
 
Hi Demonark
 
How's it going?
 
6:38 PM
@Abcd: OK, in order for an infinite series to converge, the individual terms must in fact approach 0. Or, you look at the formula for the finite sums and look at what's left over and want to know what makes that go to 0.
No, @user193319. Here's a huge hint. Allow only integer coordinates for the centers of your balls.
You're not using anything at all about the structure of $\Bbb R^\omega$ the way you're doing it.
 
But then you ask at what scales you'd have to go to possibly see violations, based on what we know about RH
and it's just absurdly high
 
@TedShifrin I don't get it.
 
so it seems like we've got good reason to believe that the RH isn't something that can be disproven numerically
 
@BalarkaSen Kazdan-Warner is complete.
 
$(1+x)^n = 1+nx + n(n-1)/ 2! x^2.....$
 
6:41 PM
@Abcd: I was still talking about the geometric series.
For the generalized binomial theorem, you need to know about the ratio test for testing convergence of series.
 
@AkivaWeinberger The former evaluates $f(\varphi(x))g'(\varphi(x))\varphi'(x) - f'(\varphi(x))g(\varphi(x))\varphi'(x)$, which is $([f, g] \circ \varphi)(x)\cdot \varphi'(x)$ isn't it.
 
Trying to decide if I'm happy with an argument.
 
Reminds me of Monty Python, @Semiclassic. "I've come for an argument ..."
 
@Daminark Tell me about it! Maybe in SGA rather than here
 
Alright
 
6:48 PM
It basically amounts to stuff about the Frobenius norm, which I only sorta knew about before today
 
Why not EGA, @Balarka?
 
@0celo7 woo
 
@BalarkaSen the main lemma is a page of black boxes
no woo
it's not a nice proof
 
@TedShifrin Elements de Geometrique Approache?
 
Not xactly.
 
6:49 PM
what is SGA?
Student Government Assoc.?
 
To say it quickly: Let $U_1=(a,b)$ and $U_2=(c,d)$ with $a,b,c,d$ being unit 3-vectors.
 
Séminaire de Géométrie Algébrique
 
(Is there a name for a matrix whose columns are unit vectors?)
 
Not that I know, @Semiclassic.
 
I thought I saw one earlier...hmm
 
6:51 PM
@TedShifrin No other way to understand it?
Its there in my algebra syllabus.
 
@TedShifrin what is that
 
No, @Abcd, it's about convergence of power series/infinite series.
They're not proving it in your algebra course, @Abcd.
They're just telling you, I'm pretty sure.
I don't know how to prove it without Taylor series.
Maybe there's some way.
I mean, you have to first discuss what it means to write an infinite series :P
 
@BalarkaSen The only detail to check is what happens if you have a $C^1$ metric whose scalar curvature equals a smooth function. It's probably smooth but who knows
 
@TedShifrin Well, from my physics classes I understand that for |r|<1 , r^n tends to zero as n tends to infinity.
 
Yeah, but it's more complicated than that to discuss a general infinite series.
@0celo7: I bet I could make a part of a metric be non-smooth in such a way that it won't show up in curvature.
That's an interesting question, actually.
 
6:54 PM
@TedShifrin What I said was of course very sketchy, I have more control.
 
Yeah, sure I can.
 
Let $g$ be a smooth metric and $\delta R_g$ the linearization of the scalar curvature at $g$. Then my PDE is really $\mathrm{scal}(g+(\delta R_g)^*u)=f,$ where $u\in W^{4,p}(M)$ and $f\in C^\infty(M)$.
This should imply $u\in C^\infty$ by some theorems in Morrey but I want an independent proof
 
@TedShifrin So I should just learn it for the time being?
 
@TedShifrin I thought I saw "unital" used as a name for such matrices but I can't verify that
 
@TedShifrin Okay. I claim that $\{B(x,1/3) \mid x \in \Bbb{Z}^\omega \}$ is a uncountable collection of open disjoint. Suppose that $z \in B(x,1/3) \cap B(y,1/3)$, where $x \neq y$ which means there exists a $k$ such that $x_k < y_k$. Then $\rho(x,z) < 1/3$ and $\rho(y,z) < 1/3$ implies $|x_i - z_i| < 1/3$ and $|y_i-z_i| < 1/3$, resp, for every $i$. Hence $|x_k - y_k| \le |x_k - z_k| + |y_k - z_k| \le 1/3 + 1/3 = 2/3$, implying that $|x_k - y_k| = 0$, because they're integers, or $x_k = y_k$...
a contradiction
 
6:57 PM
@Abcd: Unless your teacher explains all the theory to you, yes.
 
How does that sound?
 
@user193319: I think you can even use balls of radius $1$, in fact.
 
@TedShifrin Oh. Okay. I'll try that.
 
@Semiclassic: Or is that a matrix whose entries are all $\pm 1$? I dunno.
 
hrm, point
 

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