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1:00 PM
@Liad Not if you believe in choice
(also, the ring is noetherian, so choice is probably unnecessary)
 
can you explain? assuming $a$ is a proper usbring, what would go wrong?
 
why would it be a subring at all?
it is supposed to be an ideal
 
proper ideal *
then we know $a= (f_1,..,f_m)$
 
any proper ideal is contained in a maximal ideal, and maximal ideals are prime
so this maximal ideal will be in the corresponding closed set
 
why cant the closed set corresponding to the maximal ideal be empty? @TobiasKildetoft
 
1:17 PM
@Liad No, the closed sets contains that maximal ideal, so it is not empty
 
hm , the situation is $a \subset m $ then we know $V(m) \subset V(a)$ @TobiasKildetoft
but if $V(m) = \emptyset$ , what's the contradiction?
 
yes, that too, but since you by definition have $m\in V(a)$, there is no need for that
 
$m $ is an ideal in $k[x_0,..,x_n]$ and $V(a) \subset \Bbb A^{n+1}$ . i dont understand how $m \in V(a)$ is possible
 
Ohh, you have not defined the spectrum as the set of prime ideals (or maximal ideals?)
 
ah. no $V(a) = \{p : f(p) =0$ for all$f\in a\}$
 
1:23 PM
Are you working over an algebraically closed field?
 
yes
 
ok, so what does the maximal ideal I mentioned look like?
 
i use V in $\Bbb A^{n+1}$ and Z in $\Bbb P^n$
 
In a Hilbert space if $Y$ is a closed subspace, is the map $x\mapsto x-Px$ always surjective on the orthogonal complement of $Y$ (where $P$ is the orthogonal projection onto Y)?
 
i know that even $a = (f_1,...,f_r)$ @TobiasKildetoft
m is of this form also
 
1:25 PM
@Liad That says only that it is finitely generated. Maximal ideals have a much nicer form
 
they are principal ?
 
no, very much not. They are generated by precisely as many elements as the number of variables
 
hmm. didn't know that.
 
remember that maximal ideals will have to provide singletons in the affine space by the various properties
 
doesnt it singletons or empty sets ?
by the factorization of $V(m)$ to irreducible components
 
1:30 PM
well, a priori sure, but definitely singletons
Have you covered Nullstellensatz?
 
not quite but i heard about it many times in the past few days ^^
so i know what it says
(and i think i can use it.)
 
Well, one thing it basically says is that the closed set corresponding to a maximal ideal consists of precisely one point
Though really, what you need for this is knowing what maximal ideals look like, which is a fairly easy exercise once you have Zariski's Lemma
 
it says that $I(V(a)) = \sqrt{a}$
if a maximal then $\sqrt{a} = a$
why this means that $V(a)$ is a point?
 
what would the statement say if it was empty?
 
if $V(a) = \emptyset$ then $I(\emptyset) = k[x_0,..,x_n]$
 
1:35 PM
so the radical of $a$ is...
 
everything
so a is everything
 
and this is a contradiction because m couldn't be the whole ring?
 
yes, that was the original assumption, right?
 
(im not sure if the whole ring is maximal ideal or not)
 
1:37 PM
maximal ideals are proper ideals
(the $0$-ring is not a field)
 
the original assumption was $a \subset m$ where $m$ maximal
so we got that $m$ is the whole ring
ok i believe it. thanks! @TobiasKildetoft
 
I had forgotten how much harder one has to work when doing these things in the classical way
 
yea and it doesn't really feel like we got a contradiction at the end ^^ although i understand we did.
 
The thing that "really" happens is that the maximal ideal has the form $(x_1-a_1,\dots, x_n-a_n)$, and the point $(a_1,\dots, a_n)$ is the one at which any polynomial in $a$ will vanish
 
i can see why its true for the case $n=1$ from the fact that each f splits over k
for general n im not sure how to get it.
 
1:44 PM
yeah, it is not quite trivial. The main ingredient is Zariski's Lemma stating that any field which is finitely generated as a $k$-algebra is in fact finite over $k$
 
A continuous function doesn't need to be bijective, right?
 
@Rithaniel right
 
user131753
@Rithaniel Consider a real valued constant function of a real variable. Is it continuous?
 
user131753
@TobiasKildetoft Oops!
 
Okay, that's what I thought. In that case, I believe I need to restrict my domain to make the function bijective
 
2:23 PM
I understood. How the open set in $I \times I$ look?
@TedShifrin
For any neighbourhood of $p\in I \times I$ I can find a connected neighbourhood marked in blue. $p$ was arbitrary, so $I\times I$. locally connected.
Won't the marked blue neighbourhood be pathwise connected?
Still I don't get a suitable point to show that given $I\times I$ under dictionary order is not locally pathwise connected
 
2:55 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti No, that sounds interesting though.
 
Let G, a Lie group act continuously and transitively on manifold M. Consider a point x in M and it's stabilizer H. H is closed Lie subgroup and hence G/H is a smooth manifold. Prove that the orbit map f:G/H->M is a homeomorphism. I know how it's a continuous bijection but can't show that the inverse is continuous.
 
3:25 PM
Hmmm, what would a non-path-connected, but connected space look like?
 
$[0,1]\times [0,1]$ under dictionary order.
but I am not able to prove given space is not locally pathconnected.
:47630123
 
Okay, I get your meaning, though. Something where values are sufficiently scrambled such that a path cannot be constructed?
 
Hey there.
So I'm studying the basics of topology and I came across this problem:
The author wants me to show that $\mathbb{d}$ is a metric
My question is not about the solution at all: I want to understand how that Cartesian product is well-defined.
I could choose $\Lambda = \Bbb R$, and have $\lambda \in \Lambda$ in any arbitrary order. So the Cartesian product would depend on the choice, I guess.
(Well, if the class of all the metric spaces has cardinality of at least $\aleph_1$)
Oops, $\frak{c}$
 
3:55 PM
Hi, I came up with a definition about the closure of a graph: the closure of a graph of order n is defined as the graph obtained by joining non adjacent vertices whose degree sum is at least n until no such pair remains. Does that mean if there are no vertices whose degree sum is at least n , there is no closure for that graph?
As an example if I have a graph with 75 vertices which is 4-regular the sum of degrees of any 2 non adjacent vertices is 8, so there are no vertices whose degree sum is 75. Then can we say there exist no closure for that graph?
 
@BuddhiniAngelika given that the definition includes that "until no such pair remains" step, I could see it argued that this graph would be its own closure, rather than the closure not existing
 
Yeah.
 
in particular, that'd mean that cl(cl(G))=cl(G)
i.e. that the closure of a graph is its own closure
(also, the word 'closure' seems to have a few different usages in graph theory. what you're referencing is specifically known as the 'Hamiltonian closure' of a graph)
 
4:33 PM
@Rithaniel topologist's sine curve
 
why does $nil( (K[x_1,x_2,...)/(x_1,x_2^2,x_3^3,...)) ^n) \ne 0$ for all n?
 
5:14 PM
because $x_{n+1}$ is there
 
5:25 PM
there's an extra ) in there btw
should be only one between the dots and ^n
hmm. just noticed a question on MSE which doesn't appear to have been answered directly on this site, but has been answered on MO in the past
Would that count as a duplicate?
(the question isn't research-level by any means)
 
5:46 PM
@Mathgeek But what if your point $p$ is $(x,0)$ or $(x,1)$ for some $x$? Now is there a path-connected neighborhood?
 
heya yoyo
 
just got back from gre
 
What excitement brims ...
 
5:47 PM
gotta be glad that time only flows forward, otherwise we will not be able to distinguish A cause B vs A just happened to correlate in time with B or vise versa
 
the uber driver made an unsavory joke about latinos and i just sat there stone faced thinking “how can u not tell”
was p bad
 
These are the racistly emboldened times in which we live ...
 
v untactful
im hibyeing i gotta meet w sid in an hr or two
 
Both the pre-college interviews I've done so far have been with racial minorities. I tried to stay unpolitical, but I couldn't help a snide remark or two.
Oh cool. Have a great meeting with Sid. Say hi. :)
 
So, cofinite topology on $\mathbb{R}$ is connected, as you can't have disjoint open sets, but not path connected, because you can't construct a continuous function from $[0,1]$ in the standard metric topology to $\mathbb{R}$ in the cofinite topology (due to one being hausdorff and the other not being hausdorff). Is this correct?
(Also, googling topologists sine curve)
 
5:51 PM
i think i’ve been unabashedly hard left openly in front of profs and it seems to have not hurt me yet
but it might soon lol idk
ok bubye
 
Hmm, certainly there are continuous functions, since any open set in the cofinite topology is open in the usual topology.
 
Okay, fair enough. What about cofinite on the naturals?
 
@ÉricoMeloSilva yuck
 
What about it, @Rithaniel? :)
 
Thanks @Semiclassical
 
5:54 PM
np
 
Can you still construct continuous functions?
 
From what to what?
 
But in that graph anyway the degree sum is not going to be at most n though
 
from $[0,1]$ under standard topology to $\mathbb{N}$ under cofinite.
 
Oh, I see.
 
5:56 PM
Rithaniel it doesn't matter what $X$ and $Y$ are, there will always be some continuous functions $X\to Y$. You tell me which functions I'm thinking about though
 
He's trying to violate path connectivity.
and hi, demonic Alessandro.
 
Can someone please guide me to understand how to know whether a graph has a projective arrangement, and draw it if it exists? Any good reference texts to follow in this subject?
 
@Rithaniel: Aren't the only continuous functions in that case constant maps? Can you prove that?
 
I think so. I'll have to think about it a little bit, though.
Also, yeah, constant functions are always continuous, that was oversight on my part.
 
hello @TedShifrin
 
6:16 PM
Well, I have a proof in the other direction, that a map from cofinite $\mathbb{N}$ to standard $\mathbb{R}$ cannot be continuous. However, that doesn't imply that the inverse can't be continuous.
 
6:30 PM
Hey could someone help me out?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3000065/irrational-equation-sqrt9-4x-p-2x
 
6:47 PM
Hmmm, is it true that a continuous, nonconstant function from $\mathbb{R}$ must be to an uncountable space?
 
How do I show that closure of the set of matrices of rank $k$ is actually the set of matrices of rank at most $k$ for Zariski topology on the set of $m$ by $n$ matrices? I have shown that matrices of rank at most $k$ are closed.
The following result is also to be used: Let $S \subset A^n$ be a subset, and let $F : A^1 \rightarrow A^n$ be a polynomial map. Suppose that $F(t) \in S$ for infinitely many $t \in A^1$. Then, $F(t) \in S$ for all $t \in A^1$.
 
7:10 PM
Hi all, @Semi I had the analysis exam today.
 
Seems I have stumbled upon the Nerdematics chat
How's it going folks?
 
Hi @Daminark
 
Well enough, Daminark.
 
Pretty well, thanks. Attended a really cool colloquium talk
 
Nice
 
7:17 PM
Currently working on proving that the natural numbers under the cofinite topology is not path connected.
 
@Daminark And yourself?
 
I'm actually heading on Friday to a seminar at a nearby school that someone I met told me about, on algebraic combinatorics
 
I know nothing about algebraic combinatorics, I know that representation theory of $S_n$ is related to combinatorics, but not sure if it's about that
 
I know a bit about analytic combinatorics
 
I also don't know anything about it, though it's something I'd like to look more at
 
7:21 PM
yeah, sounds good
 
It's not too complicated. Express you're counting as coefficients of a generating function, then express those coefficients as complex contour integrals over that generating function using Cauchy's integral formula
Bam, you've turned your counting problem into a complex-analysis problem
 
I wonder if it's ever useful to go the other way
 
What it's mostly used for is finding asymptotics of said coefficients
which in turn usually means the saddle-point approximation
(Or Laplace's method, I forget what the standard name is)
 
Hi guys!
 
@Rithaniel do you need a hint? There is some nontrivial facts needed (Also this is referred to a message you wrote earlier, $\Bbb R$ with the cofinite topology is path connected)
 
7:33 PM
hi @lush
 
I actually thought it was. It'd be useful to see what I had missed there, but I'm now working on $\mathbb{N}$ with the cofinite topology not being path connected (or is that one also path connected?)
 
This one isn't
And as you might suspect by now there is some cardinality argument involved
 
Excellent! That's what my argument is working along.
 
If X is a normed linear space and $M$ is a linear subspace of $X$, then show that $\overline{M} = \cap \{kerf | f \in X^{} \text{ and } M \subseteq kerf\}$, where $X^{}$ denotes the dual space of $X$.
 
To show that $\Bbb R$ with the cofinite topology is path connected: pick any injection $[0,1]\to\Bbb R$ and show that it is continuous
 
7:37 PM
Basically, since ($\mathbb{N}$, cofinite) is $T_1$, points are closed, so the inverse of any continuous function partitions $[0,1]$ into countably many closed sets. (From there, I still need to consider what to say, but I think I have what I need)
 
@Rithaniel that's a good start. Is such a partition possible?
 
If $X$ is a normed linear space and $M$ is a linear subspace of $X$, then show that $\overline{M} = \cap \{kerf | f \in X^{*} \text{ and } M \subseteq kerf\},whereX^{*}denotesthedualspaceofX$.
 
Use \ast if the asterisk is messing with the chat's formatting
 
Well, such a partition is possible, but I was thinking that would imply the function is a constant function, which is not allowed in a function being used to show that a space is path connected (am I mistaken?)
 
Why is it possible?
 
7:41 PM
If $X$ is a normed linear space and $M$ is a linear subspace of $X$, then show that $\overline{M} = \cap \{kerf | f \in X^{\ast} \text{ and } M \subseteq kerf \}$, where $X^{\ast}$ denotes the dual space of $X$
How to prove this
I took a member in closure in M
say x
 
Ah, hmmmm, I think I see. There's always going to be some overlap between closed sets in the standard metric topology, if they cover all of $[0,1]$, which is going to violate it being a function.
 
then there exists a sequence in M such that it converges to x
now what to do?
how to show that this x is in R.H.S
 
Here’s a pretty basic differential equations question
why canwhen solving a differential equation why couldn’t you have $A\sin(x-1) +Bsin(x)$ as your gener solution?
 
Hey guys
 
Greetings Akiva
 
7:47 PM
@JakeRose That's the same as $A\sin x+B\cos x$, probably
The latter is more of a standard form
(Not for the same $A$ and $B$. I mean the set of functions as $A$ and $B$ vary.)
If you know any linear algebra: $\{\sin(x-1),\sin(x)\}$ and $\{\sin(x),\cos(x)\}$ are both a choice of basis for the same space
 
Ahh I see. It’s more so just a case of simplicity
 
@Rithaniel Have you learned about quotient topologies yet?
 
Lightly, but not in much depth.
 
A space quotiented by an equivalence relation
 
I know what they are, in other words.
 
7:53 PM
I just want to point out two things that I think are interesting
If you take the space $[0,1]$ and quotient $(0,1]$ to a point (that is, $x\sim y$ if either $x=y$ or $x,y\in(0,1]$), then the result is the Sierpiński space
a non-T1 space with two elements
And secondly
if you take $\Bbb Q$ and quotient by the equivalence relation $x\sim y$ iff $x$ and $y$, when reduced, have the same denominator
then I'm pretty sure the result is the same as $\Bbb N$ with the cofinite topology
 
Well,that's the starting topology in the $\mathbb{Q}$ case? Subspace under standard metric?
 
because that's very interesting, if so.
I'm having a little trouble envisioning all cases for that quotient.
 
It's weird 'cause the result isn't T2
 
How do you get the set of all natural numbers except, say, 2520, for example?
 
8:00 PM
Take the set of all rationals other than the ones with denominator 2520
The map here (from $\Bbb Q/{\sim}$ to $\Bbb N$) is, each equivalence class maps to the denominator
The set of rationals that do have denominator 2520 is a discrete set of points
 
Alright, yeah, and the interval $(0,2)$ is mapped to all of $\mathbb{N}$
 
(Let's say the denominator of $0$ and all the integers is $1$, to make this defined on those)
@Rithaniel Yeah
(Like $\frac01$ and such)
I need to go
 
while $(\frac{1}{2},1)$ is mapped to $\mathbb{N}$ minus $\{1,2\}$
Cya
 
Thanks for the interesting math fact.
 
8:04 PM
And $(0,\frac1n)$ is $\Bbb N$ minus the first $n$ numbers
I guess $0$ isn't in $\Bbb N$ for this. Oh well
 
Well, yeah, but that's the standard for the American sense of $\mathbb{N}$.
 
Oh, also note that, while $\Bbb R$ with the cofinite topology is path-connected, $\Bbb N$ with the cofinite topology isn't
(I think)
 
Yeah, still working on showing that the second statement is true. It's proving tricky, now that I'm at the point of saying that it's impossible to write $[0,1]$ as the union of countably many, disjoint closed sets. I might just invoke a theorem, though I want to prove it, if I can.
 
8:56 PM
So you have a countable collection of closed sets $[a_i,b_i]$, and you want to construct a point that's not in any of those
Hm
 
@Rithaniel Extensive hint: Suppose that such a countable collection of closed sets $C_i$ covering $[0,1]$ exists. For every $i$ you can pick a closed interval $F_i$ in $X\setminus C_i$ (why?). Can you arrange it such that $i<j\implies F_i\supset F_j$?
 
I guess you need to take care to make sure that no $F_i$ is completely contained in any $C_j$
 
@AkivaWeinberger I don't think this is needed
 
If $F_2$ is contained in $C_4$ by accident, then $F_4$ will have to simultaneously be a subset of $F_2$ and disjoint from $C_4$ somehow
@AlessandroCodenotti
($F_4$ will never be contained in $C_2$, because $F_4$ is a subset of $F_2$ which is disjoint from $C_2$. So this is only a concern for $F_i$ and $C_j$ with $i<j$)
 
Ah, I see, that's annoying indeed
It should be possible to ensure it doesn't happen though
 
9:11 PM
It would be unavoidable if $C_0\cup C_1\cup\dotsb\cup C_j=[0,1]$ for some finite $j$
but that can never happen
and I think that's the only way for it to be unavoidable
I mean, basically, once you're choosing $F_i$, it's gotta be in $X\setminus(C_1\cup\dotsb\cup C_i)$, yeah?
So choose one of the connected components of that
That connected component surely is the union of more than one $C$ thing
 
@AkivaWeinberger No wait, don't you need to avoid $C_j$ for $j>i$?
 
so make $F_i$ be an interval starting in one $C$ thing and ending in another
@AlessandroCodenotti It can't be a subset of those, it doesn't need to be disjoint
 
Oh, ok, I see what you meant
 
I should point out that, unless "countable" means "countably infinite", there's a stupid counterexample
which is, write $[0,1]$ as the union of one closed set
(itself)
But clearly we're talking about at least two closed sets
and it's easy to show that it can't be finite ($\ge2$)
 
9:18 PM
So I'm now convinced that the theorem is true
Unrelatedly, I like this proof:
Without using unique factorization or brute force, show that $7$ is not a factor of $5\times93$
and the "trick" is, notice that $15$ is a multiple of $5$ and also one more than a multiple of $7$
so, if $7$ were a factor of $5\times93$, it'd also be a factor of $3\times(5\times93)=(15)\times93$
${}=(14+1)\times93=14\times93+93$
and then $14\times93=7\times(2\times93)$ is clearly a multiple of $7$, so subtracting it off gives that $7$ would be a factor of $93$
which is false, so $7|5\times93$ is false
and I realize that this is incredibly basic
but I was trying to show that $\Bbb Z[i]$ has unique factorization, and I kept on forgetting the details
and I eventually realized that the key to proving that is the $p|ab\implies p|a\lor p|b$ thing, but I kept on forgetting how to prove that one also
so eventually I just took a step back with a concrete example in $\Bbb Z$
and now I get everything I think
and why Euclidean domains have unique factorization, which wasn't really clear to me until now
And unique factorization fails in $\Bbb Z[i\sqrt5]$, for example (eg $6=(2)(3)=(1+i\sqrt5)(1-i\sqrt5)$) because no multiple of $1+i\sqrt5$ is one more than a multiple of $2$, despite having no common divisor other than $1$ and $-1$
You can look at the shape of $\langle d\rangle$ in the complex plane for any $d\in\Bbb Z[i\sqrt5]$ and you can look at the shape of $\langle 2,1+i\sqrt5\rangle$ and you can see how they're different shapes
(I mean, they're both lattices, but the former looks like $\Bbb Z[i\sqrt5]$ up to scaling and rotation and the latter doesn't)
 
how do I take the derivative of something like $\frac{u}{du}$ ? cause it's not the same as ${u}{du}$ right?
 
9:36 PM
What's $u$ a function of?
What are you differentiating with respect to?
 
actually, I meant $\frac{x}{dx}$
trying to derive with respect to x
 
I think you would treat $dx$ as a constant
 
Where are you coming across this?
u/du is notation which in most contexts would be either a typo or nonsense
 
well, I was trying to take the derivative of $\frac{arctan(x)}{1+x^2}$, I applied $u = arctan(x)$, $du = 1+x^2$ but then I ended up with $\frac{u}{du}$ rather than ${u}{du}$ and I got stuck
 
That would be $\dfrac{du}{dx}=1+x^2$
or $du=(1+x^2)dx$
In any case, I don't think you want to do substitution like this for derivatives
It works more for integrals
If you do go this way, you'd end up with $\dfrac u{u'}$, whose derivative is $\dfrac{(u')^2-(u)(u')}{(u')^2}$
Oh, not even. What's the derivative of the arctangent?
$\dfrac1{1+x^2}$
So this is all wrong
$\dfrac{du}{dx}$ (or, another way to write it, $u'$)${}=\dfrac1{1+x^2}$
and so your function is $u\dfrac{du}{dx}$ (or $uu'$)
and the derivative can be found using the product rule
and then you can substitute in $u=\arctan(x)$, $u'=\dfrac1{1+x^2}$, and $u''=\dfrac{-2x}{(1+x^2)^2}$
but I dunno if this is all any simpler than just using the quotient rule on your original thing directly @Trey
You don't use substitutions like this for derivatives, generally. It's a thing for integrals
 
10:04 PM
I mean, you can do this:
$$\frac{d}{dx}\frac{\arctan x}{1+x^2}=\frac{d}{du}\left(\frac{u}{1+\tan^2 u}\right)\frac{d}{dx}\arctan x$$
and then $u/(1+\tan^2 u)=u/(\sec^2 u)=u\cos^2 u$, so the first derivative is $\cos^2 u+2 u\sin u \cos u$
the trouble is that you need to re-express that in terms of $x$
I mean, you do have d/dx(arctan x) = 1/(1+x^2)
and cos(u) = cos(arctan x) = 1/sqrt(1+x^2), sin(u)=x/sqrt(1+x^2)
So you end up with $$\left(\frac{1}{1+x^2}+2 \arctan(x)\frac{x}{1+x^2}\right)\frac{1}{1+x^2}=\frac{1+2x \arctan(x)}{(1+x^2)^2}$$
which isn't bad by any means. but the real question is indeed whether this is easier than the quotient rule
and I'm dubious of that
 
Hello. Let $R$ be a polynomial ring over a reduced ring (no nilpotents). Let $R_d$ be the ideal of homogeneous polynomials of degree $d$ and let $R_+$ be their sum. Isn't $R_+$ a radical ideal? It seems it contains the generators of the polynomial ring, so dividing by it should give the ring of coefficients, which is reduced by assumption.
 
10:34 PM
@Trey This is why I get upset when people write nonsense like $du=1+x^2$. First of all, the derivative of $\arctan x$ is $\dfrac1{1+x^2}$. But, more important, when you take $df$ you MUST write $f'(x)\,dx$. You cannot leave off the $dx$. Are you trying to differentiate or integrate that, anyhow? The integral $\int \frac{\arctan x}{1+x^2}\,dx$ does turn into $\int u\,du$ if you use the correct derivative.
 
if you've got df on one side and not dx on the other, you've either done something wrong or you're abusing notation
 
10:49 PM
I think you and DogAteMy totally went down the rabbit hole on this one, Semiclassic.
 
1
Q: Why is $\sup f_- (n) \inf f_+ (m) = \frac{5}{4} $?

mickLet $f_- (n) = \Pi_{i=0}^n ( \sin(i) - \frac{5}{4}) $ And let $ f_+(m) = \Pi_{i=0}^m ( \sin(i) + \frac{5}{4} ) $ It appears that $$\sup f_- (n) \inf f_+ (m) = \frac{5}{4} $$ Why is that so ? Notice $$\int_0^{2 \pi} \ln(\sin(x) + \frac{5}{4}) dx = \int_0^{2 \pi} \ln (\sin(x) - \frac{5}{4})...

0
Q: Why is $\inf g \sup g = \frac{9}{16} $?

mickConsider this question here : Why is $\sup f_- (n) \inf f_+ (m) = \frac{5}{4} $? Call that conjecture about $\frac{5}{4} $ conjecture $1$. Let $g(n) = \prod_{i=0}^n (\sin^2(n) + \frac{9}{16}) ) $ Conjecture $3$ : ——- Conjecture $2$ is : $$ \sup g(n) \space \inf g(n) = \frac{9}{16} $$ And ...

Any ideas ?
 
How do I show that closure of the set of matrices of rank $k$ is actually the set of matrices of rank at most $k$ for Zariski topology on the set of $m$ by $n$ matrices? I have shown that matrices of rank at most $k$ are closed.


The following result is also to be used: Let $S \subset A^n$ be a subset, and let $F : A^1 \rightarrow A^n$ be a polynomial map. Suppose that $F(t) \in S$ for infinitely many $t \in A^1$. Then, $F(t) \in S$ for all $t \in A^1$.
 
@TedShifrin lol
probably
 
11:07 PM
I always looked down on these kind of questions but somehow I really want to hear some thoughts on this one: What are the reasons to compute the homotopy groups of spheres (I can imagine that some of them (especially low dimensional ones or (n,n) pairs) might be "useful" but what about 1007th homotopy group of 4502-dim sphere)?
 
Easy to pose, hard to answer?
 
That's a good one in my opinion, yes :)
 
And sometimes, special cases are so unique that it may open doors to other questions
 
I'm not a topologist tho
so take that as a guess
 
There are areas of mathematics where almost every special cases are their own field, such as in integration, changing even the integrand slightly you get a completely different function
and for geometry related stuff, there are only 3 regular polytopes for dimensions > 4
amd 4 has the most number of them
but we will not know about these if we don't study them
 
11:15 PM
When I look up some applications of algebraic topology online (in mse or wikipedia for example) I can't find any regarding theoretical physics for example. An relatively easy example on that regard would be nice to hear. Also, would this be a rude question to ask my (algebraic) topology professor?
 
I don't think so. You might motivate it as: What got people interested historically in computing the homotopy groups of spheres?
there's a little bit of the history on Wikipedia, btw: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homotopy_groups_of_spheres#History
 
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