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4:14 PM
C.r.u.d.e chat room is intended to help with various "janitorial" task such as closing, reopening, (un)deleting, editing and improving post. I am posting here this information since a few users are currently trying to resurrect this room - it was rather inactive for some time.
 
4:25 PM
Is my intution correct on the following
4
Q: Intution behind $m(b-a) \leq L(P,f) \leq U(P,f) \leq M(b-a)$

ZophikelIn the text "An Introduction to Measure and Integration by Rana" i'm having trouble gaining intuition behind the following Proposition in $(1)$ $(1)$ $$\text{Proposition}$$ $\, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \,\, ...

U(P,f)U(P,f) is non-increasing. Also, the ultimate goal is not to approximate upper/lower sum. The goal is to make the gap U(P,f)−L(P,f)U(P,f)−L(P,f) smaller and smaller so that whats in between, namely, the definite integral, gets squeezed in.
                 ^ Is my understanding correct
 
@Secret How would you define "connected everywhere"? Maybe you have a basis of connected sets or something
or every point has a neighborhood basis of connected sets
(Are those the same?)
Wait hold on, that doesn't even imply connected
 
@AkivaWeinberger Suppose x^2 + ax + b = 0 for integers a and b and real number irrational x. It then follows that there exists a unit y in Z[x] such that 1 < y and there do not exist any units w such that 1 < w < y.
that statement is sufficient to then prove that all units in Z[x] are of the form $\pm(y^n)$
 
@Typhon So, a smallest unit greater than $1$
 
for all integers n
 
Actually, someone have solved the question now (and help fixed all my poor terminologies)
3
Q: Example of countably infinite sets that is connected?

SecretThis question arises after the realisation that countable sets and uncountable sets does not necessary differ in the way where the former has gaps while the latter has no gaps. The best topological notion that capture the property of gaps is total disconnectedness. Quoting Wikipedia: A totally d...

 
4:36 PM
@AkivaWeinberger no. A smallest unit greater than 1.
 
(Typo'd)
 
essentially it is the question of (I think) "denseness"
 
And to get stuff less than $1$ you could take $y$ raised to a negative power
 
y^(-1) is the conjugate of y....
 
Do you have a proof?
 
4:37 PM
of?
 
That there exists such a $y$
 
hahaha no
this is no longer number theory
i think this counts as real analysis. XD
 
All right, I'll think about it then
 
unfortunately is an issue of the existence of a "successor"
so like
 
@Typhon You could rephrase it differently to make it less analysis-y
 
4:38 PM
the integers always have a next element
the rationals do not
@AkivaWeinberger how so?
 
"There exists a common divisor of all the units other than $1$"
Or
"There exists a unit $y$ such that every unit is of the form $\pm y^n$, $~n\in\Bbb Z$"
 
@AkivaWeinberger but this isn't a proof of that. This is merely the proof that there is a successor to 1.
note: the converse might not be true
 
@Typhon Yeah but they should be equivalent
 
im skeptical on that
even then, I think all quadratic rings have such an element
even the complex ones
 
The rationals always have a next column that depends recursively on the previous column.
 
4:40 PM
@MatsGranvik What?
 
(of course, I would love to find such a formula)
@MatsGranvik what element of Q comes after 1/2?
 
@Typhon I don't remember the formula without some work, but it is pretty simple once you have it.
 
there is no such formula...
 
@Typhon I meant recurrence.
not formula
 
either way
there isn't
 
4:42 PM
there is, I have seen it
 
there is no such thing as a smallest element that comes after 1/2
 
eh, the rationals are countably infinite.
 
@MatsGranvik I don't even understand the statement. What do you mean by column?
 
wait
 
so one can assign an ordering there. but it won't have anything to do with magnitude.
 
4:43 PM
@Semiclassical but they arent discrete
@Semiclassical i specifically asked about magnitude...
 
goo.gl/images/7oeU8f is the usual sketch.
sure, which is why that bijection isn't relevant to what you're talking about.
 
that isnt relevant
@MatsGranvik is saying that there exists an r such that 1/2 < r < all other elements of Q greater than 1/2
 
but it is what Mats is talking about, I think.
 
i mean it might exist in a theoretical sense
but I surely cannot locate such an r
 
you'd need nonstandard analysis for that, I think? something weird.
 
4:46 PM
An $r$ element of what set?
@Semiclassical Exactly.
 
I guess 'surreal numbers' are what I mean.
 
The recurrence I had in mind is a variant of the second recurrence in this table: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/873899/successive-ratios-of-a-sequence-is-this-limit-true
The recurrence for the rationals goes outside the borders to the top of the matrix of rationals.
 
@Typhon I don't even know if he was responding to us our posting something completely irrelevant
 
or maybe it should just be hyperreals. i dunno.
 
Surreals should do. Hyperreals too.
Damnit, sniped.
 
4:48 PM
@Semiclassical For what?
In IST there exists a finite nonstandard set that contains all standard reals
 
To find an $r$ such that $1/2 < r < q$ for all $q \in (1/2,+\infty) \cap \mathbb{Q}$
 
so you can look at the successor of a standard real and get something infinitesimally close to it, closer than any other standard real
In fact, every standard set is contained in a nonstandard finite set. IST is weird.
 
"There exists $r\in(1/2,q)$ for any rational $q>1/2$."
 
I mean you could do $\Bbb Q\times\{0,1\}$ with the lexicographical order if that's what you're after
 
I think I didn't say that right, but I don't actually care that much.
 
4:51 PM
(or the reverse, I forget which way lexicographicnorder goes)
 
You switched the order of the quantors :P
 
Oh well.
 
Actually:
 
Either way, whatever was meant isn't possible within Q or even R.
 
You can embed the rationals into the Cantor set, in such a way that each image of a rational has a successor
 
4:52 PM
Definitely.
 
(Order-embed)
 
Let $Z$ be a hyperspace of vectorspace $X$
 
Proof: Take the set of elements in the Cantor set that have a successor. This set is dense (in the order-theoretic sense) and countable, and thus it is order-isomorphic to $\Bbb Q$.
 
The table of rationals satisfy a recurrence. But the table of rationals can not be generated by that recurrence, if I remember correctly.
 
Then there exists a linear functional $f$ on $X$ such that $Z(f) = Z$,where $Z(f)$ is the kernel of $f$.
to show this shoud we do this
$Z(f) \subseteq Z$
and $Z \subseteq Z(f)$
?
 
4:56 PM
Wait so the letter $Z$ means two different things here
Why not use $\ker$
 
$Z(f)=Z$ is the kind of notation you'd only want to use once you've shown that such a functional exists, yeah.
 
Oh the text used
let us say $Z(f)$ is the same as $Ker(f)$
so we need to prove $Z = Ker(f)$
we need to show existence of such a functional $f$
 
extend basis from Z to X, use to define f
 
Is this a linear function $X\to X$
or can we construct the quotient space $X/Z$ and make it $X\to X/Z$
 
I think $f$ is a linear functional means its a map from a vector space to a field(usually $\Bbb{R}$ or $\Bbb{C}$)
 
5:04 PM
if so then Z must have codimension 1 in order for it to be the kernel
 
Oh, I see
@arctictern Hyperplane tends to imply codimension 1
 
ah, I didn't see the word hyperplane
 
Well this is the same as showing that $X/Z$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb R$ or $\Bbb C$ then
Hm. Choose an element in $X$ not on $Z$, call it $v$
Every element in $X$ can be written uniquely in the form $\alpha v+z$ for some $z\in Z$ and some $\alpha\in\Bbb R$
I mean, that needs proof
but once we do that we can map $x$ to $\alpha$
The "uniqeness" part is kinda easy
I don't know what definition we're using for "hyperplane" but it shouldn't be too hard to prove existence
Alternatively, do the extend-a-basis-of-$Z$ thing
 
if dim is infinite you dont really wanna do the extend a basis thing
 
Actually $Z$ is a hyperspace of $X$
meaning $Z$ is a maximal subspace of $X$
 
5:12 PM
Oh OK. So existence comes from knowing that the span of $\{v\}\cup Z$ is a subspace of $X$ strictly containing $Z$
and thus it must equal $X$
 
maximal proper subspace to be nitpicky
 
We know this - span of ${v}∪Z$ is equal to $ X$
@AkivaWeinberger
 
from the definition of maximal subspace $Z$ of $X$
 
5:18 PM
The sum equals 6, which is an instance in the recurrence satisfied by the rationals. That is what I meant.
@Typhon
 
Hi, $$4/\textit{Catalan +1: }\text{ Solve }a,b \in \mathbb{N}, 2+3^a=5^b$$
 
@BAYMAX Yeah so I guess I was saying that $Z\oplus\langle v\rangle=X$ then
That is, $Z\cap\langle v\rangle=0$ and $Z+\langle v\rangle=X$
 
ok,so how we proceed
 
If you take that equation mod 4, you get $2+(-1)^a=(1)^b=1$. From that, one concludes that $a$ has to be odd.
 
So everything in $X$ can be written as a unique sum of something in $Z$ and something in $\langle v\rangle$ @BAYMAX
("Unique" isn't too hard to prove)
 
5:24 PM
If you take it mod 3, you get $(-1)+0=(-1)^b$ and so $b$ must be odd as well.
 
Yes@AkivaWeinberger
 
But that's about all I know to say.
 
(It essentially goes down to how $v\notin Z$)
 
(besides the obvious solution with $a=b=1$)
 
@BAYMAX So every $x$ can be written as $z+\alpha v$ for $z\in Z$ and $\alpha\in\Bbb R$
So the idea was that the map $x\mapsto\alpha$ should work
 
5:26 PM
Yes, I think there are only one solution @Semiclassical
 
As do I.
 
It's well-defined and has the right kernel, we just need to show it's linear @BAYMAX
and that's not too hard either
 
But, alas, that's not a proof.
 
I don't know if this was the intended solution or not, but it should work
 
5:28 PM
@Dattier Take it mod $3^2\cdot5^2$ maybe
Let a computer do the cases
 
I have use the same method
 
That's the sort of thing you did before
 
thanks@AkivaWeinberger
 
(Whoops, didn't recognize the typo, sorry)
 
give an approximation of $$\sin(2^{2017})$$
to 10^{-3}
 
5:34 PM
Yikes.
Maybe start from $\sin(2^{2017})=2\sin (2^{2016})\cos (2^{2016})$ and try to keep halving?
but that becomes crazy as soon as one does the double angle identity. yikes.
 
Yikes ?
 
as in "that's a hard question."
 
You must use a trick, and a formal logicial for calculus that
If you calculus that and for compare : $$\sin(2^{2017})=-0.6060260707...$$
 
...ok. So, do you know how to do it or not?
 
5:40 PM
If you do, then I don't see the point of it being asked here.
 
Yes, I think that I know
 
I sorta want to use the fact that $2^{2017}=2+2+4+\cdots+2^{2016}$
 
It's an enigma, that I propose to your sagacity
 
I see.
 
I know two ways
 
5:43 PM
Someone told me a pretty neat problem today: Assume you have a rectangle of size $A\times B$ which is covered by smaller rectangles of sizes $a_i\times b_i$ for $i\in \{1,\dots, n\}$ for some $n\in \mathbb{N}$. And assume further that for each $i$ at least one of $a_i$ or $b_i$ is an integer. Show that at least one of $A$ or $B$ is an integer.
4
 
Bye
 
The solution uses surprisingly sophisticated methods
 
That smells like one of those "I look easy but I'm actually impossible" problems
 
I am fairly certain I would never have figured it out myself certainly
 
Well, are there really number theory related problems that does not look like it is going to be large scale magic
 
5:55 PM
Hmmm...
That's an interesting problem :O
I suppose we can assume some orientation thing?
 
are the rectangle covers nonuniform somewhat, I don't think we can assume each rectangle are exactly the same?
 
Say, $a_i$ is the length of the side parellel to the side with length $A$
and similar for all $b_i$ and $B$
 
@Secret The rectangles can be placed any way you want, as long as they cover the bigger rectangle
 
ouch that's look really messy combinitorics...
if they are at least aligned, then we can at least do some a divides b type argument to figure out why integers, but this just throws that out of the window
 
I think I have a vague idea of how this might be possible...
 
6:00 PM
@TobiasKildetoft , @Daminark and I did that one a while ago
You want disjoint interiors, right?
 
@AkivaWeinberger Cool. Did you figure it out yourselves? Because I am fairly certain I never would have
 
He came up with a clever solution and I came up with a mundane solution. Later I realized my mundane solution didn't work
 
Yeah, I'm pretty sure my idea will work.
 
Yeah, I do want disjoint interiors
 
so we were left with his clever solution
 
6:01 PM
otherwise I am fairly certain it is easy to find examples of this not being true
 
Maybe it'd be better to speak about "tiling" the big rectangle rather than covering, then.
My argument only works if all sides of the small rectangles are parellel to the sides of the big rectangle
 
@SteamyRoot Yeah, that is a better word for it
 
Otherwise, I'm pretty sure this is impossible :P
 
Well, they need to be or you can't tile it with a finite number
 
but aren't the question said there is no restriction on how the rectangles are placed?
so how can we force them to tile
 
6:03 PM
Hey everyone
I won't be around for long since dynamics is soon
 
@Secret You can't cover (with disjoint interiors) a rectangle with a finite number of rectangles unless those smaller rectangles have sides parallel to the large sides
 
Is this a Babai problem
 
Ah I see, the requirement of disjoint interiors force that
 
@EricSilva What is Babai?
 
@Tobias there is a way to do it in a way that at least isn't explicitly invoking fanciness
 
6:05 PM
@Daminark Ok, I have only seen one solution and that used some slightly fancy stuff
 
He's a dude, he has like a bunch of problems he gives people at the Chicago reu
 
Babai is my combinatorics professor, really into puzzles and whatnot
 
No idea who came up with it. I was told about it by Kashaev
 
The number of small rectangles is finite, right?
 
Before I realise the requirement of disjoint interiors, I thought we are going to somehow deal with this...
 
6:06 PM
It was sort of an "on a lighter note" after we had spent some time talking about whether a certain thing was really a knot invariant and if so whether it could distinguish the unknot
@SteamyRoot Yeah, finitely many
 
@Ted for what we were talking about yesterday, if we know that $f$ is holomorphic and nothing else, could we try to integrate it to get a function which we know is $C^1$, then have that it's analytic, and backtrack to say that $f$ is analytic? It feels cheap but it could work...
 
Okay, then I have it.
 
These types of problems are things I'm very bad at unfortunately
Wish I was better, they're fun to work on
 
An interesting invariant btw, if it really is one, as it seems like it will distinguish the unknot but hardly any other knots
 
@Dami what exactly are you trying to prove?
 
6:07 PM
The way I had done it was by placing it on a chessboard
 
I'm way better at these problems than those requiring generalised pigeonhole :P
 
Where the side length of a square is 1/2
 
can one have transfinite number of pigeons (e.g. some kind of ordinal peigeon hole principle?)
 
@Daminark the holomorphic implies analytic thing is like a pde theorem
 
Then if you have a square of integer side length, the area of white and black region it covers is the same
 
6:09 PM
harmonic implies analytic is basically the same thing and is 100% a pde theorem :P
 
If both sides are not of integer length, you know there's a disparity, which you can tell by first placing it such that it aligns with the corner and checking it there
 
Yeah
 
topological pigeons...
 
But then shifting it around shouldn't change anything
That or just place the large rectangle at a corner, if it didn't have integer side length it'd cover different white and black, but then you partition it into rectangles which do. Contradiction.
 
6:11 PM
@Daminark I am not sure which squares you are considering here
 
Rip in gg no re
Sorry :P
 
Elliptic regularity is like my favorite thing in math tbh
 
Anyway gtg, and @Alessandro you'd need to prove that holomorphic functions have harmonic real/imaginary parts, and to know that you need to be able to take second derivatives of real and imaginary parts, which is why I was hesitant on that note
@Tobias this solution is secretly looking at signed measures for what it's worth. Anyway, see you guys!
 
6:33 PM
@Daminark you can weaken your notion of solving so that you don't have to do any of that
i think it's true for example that $f \in L^{1}_{loc}$ and only satisfies C-R in the sense of distributions then it's analytic a.e. and this is kind of an instance of more general kinds of regularity results you see
 
@AkivaWeinberger Here is a sketch of the proof. For a quadratic real integer a + bx another element c + dx is greater in real magnitude if and only if a > c and b > d. Therefore, a unit greater than one must be of the form a + bx where a > 1 or b > 0. However if 1^2 = 1, then a^2 > 1 = 1. Therefore a > 1 and b > 0. Because the integers are discrete this set is discrete for all elements greater than 1. Therefore, we can select the unit succeeding 1 in the real numbers.
[]
Have to prove a few properties first but that is actually how I proved it for Z[sqrt(3)] with the unit 2 + sqrt(3)
 
@Typhon What was that a proof of?
 
@TobiasKildetoft in Z[x] where x is a real irrational such that x^2 + ex + f = 0 for integers e and f there exists a unit y such that y > 1 and no units are between y and 1.
its a rough sketch
It builds up to showing that all units are integer powers of y or negatives of powers of y.
 
@Typhon Your characterization of when an element is greater than another is not correct
 
How so?
Brb
 
6:42 PM
Assuming you mean in the ordering of the reals, it fails because your characterization is not even a total order
If you mean in terms of the norm on the quadratic extension, you don't get an ordering and anyway, the characterization is still wrong since increasing the second component decreases the norm.
 
Hi :)
I was working on integration of sin(sinx)dx . Is there any general formula for integration of f(f(x))dx ?
 
...
 
???
 
@TobiasKildetoft if you refer to when I state that a > 1 and b > 0 the reasoning there is that the norm of a is a^2 > 1 = 0. Therefore we need b to be nonzero to decrease the norm. Therefore, b is greater than 0.
 
@Typhon I was referring to the general statement you started by making
 
6:54 PM
@TobiasKildetoft "For a quadratic real integer a + bx another element c + dx is greater in real magnitude if and only if a < c and b < d" <=== This? Alright then. I'll prove it. Give me a moment to prove it. It's just a matter of working from memory. :-) I know for a fact that it is true when x is real and irrational. Perhaps you are thinking of rational solutions or complex solutions?
 
Hey guys
Hows it going
 
oh mi lord
XD
typo
it was a typo you were pointing out
still going to prove the corrected version now
 
@Typhon Not sure. I and not sure how to correct it by fixing just some small thing.
 
I have an interesting question,
idk too much about simulations and data science
 
@TobiasKildetoft im only referring to the first sentence being true. I am confident how the rest follows from it.
 
6:56 PM
@Typhon I am not sure what sort of fix you mean for that first sentence to make it true.
 
For a quadratic real integer a + bx another element c + dx is greater in real magnitude if and only if a < c and b < d
I wrote greater then symbols the first time.
anyways, I'm trying to prove it. XD
 
Still clearly not correct as can be checked on a couple of small exmaples.
 
...
 
or examples if you prefer spellings that are more correct :)
 
Hi @Semiclassical sup?
 
6:58 PM
just hold your horses
 

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