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2:01 PM
I have found this fantastic book which gives a panoramic view of dynamics by Katok and Hasselblatt: "A first course in dynamics"
I am reading the introduction and I already love it. Strongly recommend this!!
 
@Balarka aight so
Here's what a quasifibration is
$p:E\to B$ is a quasifibration if for any $b\in B$ and $e\in p^{-1}(b)$, we have $p_*:\pi_q(E,p^{-1}(b),e) \to \pi_q(B,b)$ is an isomorphism
 
for all $q$?
 
Yeah
 
Interesante
 
I know that this should be equivalent to the fibers being weak homotopy equivalent to the homotopy fiber, but... I'm not sure how to see it completely
 
2:05 PM
Hm
So homotopy fibers are preimage of $Ff \to Y$, $(x, \chi) \mapsto \chi(0)$?
 
Like here this looks like (and I'm not even sure if this means anything) a weak equivalence from the pair $(E,p^{-1}(b))$ to $B$
Yeah
 
Okay so
say the homotopy fiber is $F$
 
the homotopy fiber is $F$
 
lol
I say write down the pair LES of $(E, p^{-1}(b))$ and homotopy fibration sequence of $F \to Fp \to B$
And then write down a commutative diagram
of arrows going from the LES of the first to LES of the second
$$\require{AMScd}
\begin{CD}
\cdots @>>> \pi_*(p^{-1}(b)) @>>> \pi_*(E) @>>> \pi_*(E, p^{-1}(b)) @>>> \cdots \\
@VVV @VVV @VVV @VVV @VVV \\
\cdots @>>> \pi_*(F) @>>> \pi_*(Fp) @>>> \pi_*(B) @>>> \cdots
\end{CD}$$
This is the kind of thing I want
The third map $\pi_*(E) \to \pi_*(Fp)$ in the middle should be just coming from the homotopy equivalnce $E \to Fp$, $e \mapsto (e, 0_e)$ like we discussed
I want to get the fourth map
 
So, one of those arrows is gonna have to be $p_*$, the one in the middle is the homotopy equivalence, and I guess the last map is pullback?
 
2:18 PM
Oh.
Right, of course
 
Wait is it really? Damn I actually did a thing
 
Well I'm not sure if pullback is the right word but what I have in mind is like
An element of $\pi_q(E, p^{-1}(b))$ is like homotopy class rel $p^{-1}(b)$ of a map $\sigma : (D^q, S^{q-1}) \to (E, p^{-1}(b))$
compose that with the fiber projection $E \to B$
$p^{-1}(b)$, which contains the boundary of $\sigma$, pushes down to $b$
so I get a map $\pi \circ \sigma : (D^q, S^{q-1}) \to (B, b)$
where $S^{q-1}$ goes to $b$
So that's just homotopy class of a map $S^q = D^q/S^{q-1} \to (B, b)$, i.e, elt of $\pi_q(B)$ (by omitting the b)
@Daminark Does that make sense?
It's a good exercise to prove it's an isomorphism by the way
but once you have this, verify that these maps make the whole diagram commute. Now take five terms on both LES's so that the middle map is $p_*$. Then use the five lemma
This should say $p_*$ is an isomorphism
mic drops
 
Isn't mathematical induction basically the "easy way out"? Because we first substitute and check and then assume true for all m and then prove it to be true for $(m+1)$ also.
 
It is an easy way out. Why would you want a hard way out?
If induction gives a way to prove a mathematical proposition easily, that's good. It means we have a effective tool
It might not be the most enlightening to prove something by induction as opposed to doing the combinatorics or something, but it's certainly a way to get the job done
 
Sorry I was out for a bit
But yeah the map that I had in mind as pullback was the one $\pi_*(p^{-1}(b))\to \pi_*(F)$
That's the one I understood the least, but it feels a bit pullback-y
 
2:34 PM
Oh I see
Oh I actually didn't even write down that map
rip me
I gave a description of $p_*$
which you probably already know
 
Yeah I was already happy with that :P
 
Sorry
 
No problem
 
Hm, pullback, interesting
That might just work
It's not entirely clear to me what I am supposed to pull back to where, however
Maybe we should study the commutative squares adjacent to that map to see what it needs to be
for the diagrams to commute
 
Oh yeah I guess it's just determined by the next one
Hmm okay so
We have a map from $E\to B$
And it restricts to a map $p^{-1}(b)\to b$
Then we have a map $F \to F_p \to B$ because fibration
And here you're looking at $F = \rho^{-1}(b)$
Is there a way to guarantee an induced map $p^{-1}(b) \to \rho^{-1}(b)$? Because then we'd just want the induced map on homotopy groups
: t h o n k :
 
2:53 PM
0
Q: How to formulate the dual problem in this case?

ALannisterConsider the quadratic programming problem $$\min \frac{1}{2}\langle x, Qx \rangle + \langle c, x \rangle \\ \text{s.t.}\, Ax \geq b $$ where $Q$ is a positive definite matrix of dimension $n$, $A$ is a matrix of dimension $m \times n$, $c \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$, and $b \in \mathbb{R}^{m}$. I need...

 
3:37 PM
If anybody knows anything about quadratic programming, I would be forever in your debt.
 
4:07 PM
@BalarkaSen You might like this
 
@ALannister I don’t know about quadratic programming in particular, but the main difference I see between your quadratic and linear problems is that <x,Qx> is always positive regardless of x due to the positive definiteness
 
Well, that's helpful @Semiclassical!
Another difference I've noticed though is that in my problem, we have $Ax \geq b$ whereas usually we have $Ax \leq b$
 
Aren’t you usually maximizing the objective function, though?
 
no. minimizing.
you maximize in the dual
 
hmm
Well, the model linear problem you cite also has Ax>=b
 
4:20 PM
@MikeMiller Looking
 
At least as written in the question
 
@Daminark My internet broke, sorry about that
 
Anyways. I think the difference between QP and LP should basically be the same as that between minimizing a quadratic function of one variable and a linear function
 
I realize this, I'm just having trouble formulating the dual problem
i don't actually have to minimize here; i just need to formulate the dual
This problem's not supposed to be hard; I just don't know what I'm doing
I've had to miss classes because my grandmother was in the hospital and she died this past Friday.
 
Well, I don’t know either
 
4:23 PM
Anyone here is good with differential equations ?
 
And I'm a wreck.
I'm trying to concentrate but all I can do is cry about how much I miss her.
 
Sorry to hear that.
 
Thank you Balarka.
My heart hurts so much.
 
If anyone is interested in solving a differential equation problem math.stackexchange.com/questions/2550723/…
ALannister how do you link question like that ?
Doesn't seem like i will be able to find the error
 
4:40 PM
@AkivaWeinberger I can't find the result,
 
@tuki your deduction that the ode to be solved is u’+ru=0 is incorrect
The ode to be solved is the one they give you, and no other
That said, what you did would be effective if you substituted v=u’
That gives a first-order ODE in v(r) which you can solve as you did in your work. Integration then yields u(r). You should have two constants of integration, enough to satisfy the boundary conditions uniquely
 
$rv'+v=0$ when $v=u'$ it should be this right ? if i understand correctly what you are saying
 
Right
 
4:56 PM
i think i got disconnected
i can see the issue now. It would be odd if second-order DE would have only one constant .
 
@Daminark Actually the map here seems to not be too hard. $E$ is naturally a subspace of $Fb$, of pairs $(x, 0_x)$ where $x \in E$ and $0_x$ is the constant path at $x$. $\rho : Fp \to B$ restricts to $p : E \to B$ on this subspace. So there is a natural inclusion $p^{-1}(b) \hookrightarrow \rho^{-1}(b) = F$
 
Anyway thanks for noticing this @Semiclassical
 
This should be the map which induces $\pi_*(p^{-1}(b)) \to \pi_*(F)$ in the diagram
Checking the commutativity of everything is a big exercise but should be doable
 
5:10 PM
@AkivaWeinberger i do like you tel me, $$||a-b||^2+||x-(\frac{a+b}{2})||^2=||(a-b)+(x-(\frac{a+b}{2})||^2$$ how to do ?
 
Incredible
nobody is able to help me to solve this problem?
0
Q: Show that the Fourier series of the integrable function $f : [0, N] \to \mathbb{C}$

nbroI have the following problem: I tried to solve this problem by creating a function $h$ which is a shifted and scaled version of $g$, such that $h$ has a period of $2\pi$ on the interval $[-\pi, \pi]$, so that I can apply the theorem above. However, I am stuck, because I don't know how to make ...

 
5:32 PM
@LeakyNun salut
vous pouvez m'aidez svp
?
 
5:48 PM
@Vrouvrou Can you prove that $\|X+Y\|^2=\|X\|^2+\|Y\|^2$ when $\langle X,Y\rangle=0$?
Hint: $\|X+Y\|^2=\langle X+Y,X+Y\rangle$.
(Incidentally, this is the Pythagorean theorem, if you draw it.)
 
6:00 PM
hmm... so if X is uncountable, then the proof will get stuck at an uncountable sum...
 
@AkivaWeinberger i don't know how to draw it but i prove it $<X+Y,X+Y>=<X,X>+<Y,Y>+2<X,Y>=||X||^2+||Y||^2$
 
6:21 PM
@Secret if you do an easier proof by sigma (sub)additivity actually
 
$$\mu \left(\bigcup_{i \in I}A_i\right) \leq \sum_{i \in I} \mu (A_i)$$?
 
@Vrouvrou OK. Now, you just proved that $\langle a-b,x-(\frac{a+b}2)\rangle=0$, right?
 
yes
 
So let $X=a-b$ and $Y=x-\frac{a+b}2$
That gives you the thing you wanted to prove
 
no it do not give me what i want
 
6:24 PM
No?
6 hours ago, by Vrouvrou
@AkivaWeinberger we can deduce from this that $-||x-\frac{a+b}{2}||^2+||x-a||^2=||\frac{a-b}{2}||^2$ or we must calculate ?
Oh, wait
$X=\frac{a-b}2$ and $Y=x-\frac{a+b}2$, then
 
from where we get $\frac{a-b}{2}$?
 
We still know $\langle X,Y\rangle=\langle\frac{a-b}2, x-\frac{a+b}2\rangle={}$$\frac12\langle a-b,x-\frac{a+b}2\rangle$
 
It still amazes me how lebesgue measure can handle uncountable sets since subadditivity for it is only defined for countable unions
 
${}=\frac120=0$
 
??
you multiply by \frac12?
 
6:28 PM
I'm just pulling out a factor of $\frac12$ from the first input
 
hmm, I need to think about this deeper tomorrow, cause its getting late(early)
 
@Secret Actually they are equal for pairwise disjoint measurable $A_i$
 
$\langle cv,w\rangle=c\langle v,w\rangle$, right?
 
yes
 
So $\langle X,Y\rangle=\langle\frac{a-b}2, x-\frac{a+b}2\rangle={}$$\frac12\langle a-b,x-\frac{a+b}2\rangle=\frac12\cdot0=0$
so you can apply it to $\|X\|^2+\|Y\|^2=\|X+Y\|^2$
and that should give you $-\|x-\frac{a+b}{2}\|^2+\|x-a\|^2=\|\frac{a-b}{2}\|^2$
Or, well, $\|\frac{a-b}2\|^2+\|x-\frac{a+b}2\|^2=\|x-a\|^2$, which is the same thing
 
6:31 PM
thank you very much
yes we know that $||x-a||=||x-b||$
 
That said, if your goal from the start was to prove that$$-\left\|x-\frac{a+b}{2}\right\|^2+\|x-a\|^2= \left\|\frac{a-b}{2}\right\|^2,$$I'd have just done it with the other trick from the start
(that is, define $a'=x-a$ and $b'=x-b$)
 
please @AkivaWeinberger after that they say that : but $\frac{a-b}{2}\in K$ because $K$ is convex , then $||\frac{a-b}{2}||^2\leq ||x-a||^2-||x-\frac{a+b}{2}||^2\leq0$
why it is $\leq 0$ ?
i understand
because $||x-a||=\inf_{k\in K} ||x-k||$
 
6:48 PM
Is this true $f(Fr(A))\subset Fr(f(A))$? in topological spaces?
 
hello
 
@BalarkaSen I think I found the 'best' paper as far as connections between my surface and geometric stuff: d.umn.edu/~mhampton/MA-AMMT140030.pdf
 

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