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15:00
Is there a simple explanation for why?
@SimpleArt you can use Green's Theorem to reduce the integral to around the poles
I ought to learn multi-vari calculus
@SimpleArt you might like to start at $\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-t^2} \mathrm dt = \sqrt{\pi}$
with a half circle with radius $R\to\infty$?
@SimpleArt no, not that approach. I haven't tried that, so tell me if it works
15:05
Oh wait
:/
Yeah, residue theorem doesn't work there, right?
Or wait
I thought you are talking about multi-variable calculus
instead of residue theorem
The Laurent series?
Oh, idk tbh
yesterday, by DHMO
Let $I = \int_\Bbb R e^{-x^2}\ \mathrm dx$.
Then $I^2 = \int_\Bbb R \int_\Bbb R e^{-x^2-y^2}\ \mathrm dx\ \mathrm dy$.
$I^2 = \int_\Bbb {R^+} \int_0^{2\pi} r e^{-r^2}\ \mathrm d\theta\ \mathrm dr$.
$I^2 = \int_\Bbb {R^+} 2\pi r e^{-r^2}\ \mathrm dr$.
$I^2 = \int_\Bbb {R^+} 2\pi e^{-r^2}\ \mathrm dr^2$.
$I^2 = 2\pi\left( e^{-\infty^2} - e^0 \right)$.
$I^2 = 2\pi$.
$I = \sqrt{2\pi}$.
(contains a typo)
the end result should be $I=\sqrt{\pi}$
I haven't learned real analysis yet
$\int_\Bbb R$ just means $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}$
15:07
wow, that was beautiful
I just found the proof online
still
Oh, so if I tried the half circle method, the integral along the entire thing is $0$.
Well, not doing that
Let $\displaystyle I = \int_\Bbb R e^{-x^2}\ \mathrm dx$.
Then $\displaystyle I^2 = \int_\Bbb R \int_\Bbb R e^{-x^2-y^2}\ \mathrm dx\ \mathrm dy$.
$\displaystyle I^2 = \int_\Bbb {R^+} \int_0^{2\pi} r e^{-r^2}\ \mathrm d\theta\ \mathrm dr$
$\displaystyle I^2 = \int_\Bbb {R^+} 2\pi r e^{-r^2}\ \mathrm dr$
$\displaystyle I^2 = \int_\Bbb {R^+} -\pi e^{-r^2}\ \mathrm d(-r^2)$
$\displaystyle I^2 = -\pi\left( e^{-\infty^2} - e^0 \right)$
$\displaystyle I^2 = \pi$
$\displaystyle I = \sqrt{\pi}$
corrected version
lol
Say
Could you explain why the following:
$$(1-e^{2\pi iz})\int_0^\infty\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv=\oint_C\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv$$
Did you type that out by yourself :o
15:13
Obviously, because I missed the second parenthesis...
@SimpleArt what is $C$?
There we go
@SimpleArt what is $z$?
An independent variable?
alright
15:15
I believe we are to take the limit as the radius of $C_2\to\infty$ and the radius of $C_4\to0$
And those two come out to be $0$
So the only pole is $v=-1$?
Yeah
The contour integral is easy, but I can't grasp why the $1-e^{2\pi iz}$ is there
@SimpleArt so you evaluated the right hand side? what is it?
I believe its because of where $C_1$ and $C_3$ are located, and that they are going in opposite directions
The RHS is...
Well, if you divide the $1-e^{2\pi iz}$ over, the RHS becomes $\frac{\pi z}{\sin(\pi z)}$
...Or maybe not with the $z$ in the numerator
I'm going off memory
And if you are wondering, this is the Gamma reflection formula
Isn't the contour integral just the integral around the pole?
15:19
I guess yeah. I can easily take it with residue theorem, but I'm confused on how it relates to the LHS
Sorry if I'm bad with my terminology and notation, I sorta learned this stuff yesterday
Would this help? $$\int_0^\infty\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv = \oint_C\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv + e^{2\pi iz}\int_0^\infty\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv$$
Yeah, that reinforces what I was thinking along the lines of. But why the $e^{2\pi iz}?$ What's the $z$ in the exponent for?
Oh
I can move into the integral?
Well, thanks @DHMO :) Cheers
@SimpleArt what's the next step?
? What do you mean?
have you solved it?
15:24
oh yeah, after that, everything is nice and easy
could you teach me?
XD
I can't, gtg
alright
Um, residue of the contour integral and complex definition of $\sin$
@SimpleArt You mean integration around those paths gives the same result? Yes.
That's because integrating is homotopy-independent.
15:27
@SimpleArt You know, $e^{2\pi iz}$ rings a bell of a transformation...
(essentially an application of Green's theorem)
I don't even know how to find the residue of $\dfrac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}$...
$\displaystyle I = \oint_C\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}\ \mathrm dv$
Let $v=e^{itr}-1$, $\mathrm dv = ire^{itr} \mathrm dt$
$\displaystyle I = \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{ir(e^{itr}-1)^z}{e^{itr}}\ \mathrm dt$
Am I supposed to let $r\to0$?
Let $u=1+v$.
$\quad\dfrac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}$
$ = \dfrac{(u-1)^z}{u^2}$
$ = \dfrac{e^{i\pi z}(1-u)^z}{u^2}$
$ = \dfrac{e^{i\pi z}}{u^2}\left(1 - zu + O(u^2)\right)$
Therefore, the residue is $-ze^{i\pi z}$ ?
$\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dv} v^z = zv^{z-1}$
Therefore, residue = $z(-1)^{z-1}$ = $-ze^{i\pi z}$.
The theorem to prove becomes: $$\int_0^\infty\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv = -2i\pi ze^{i\pi z} + e^{2\pi iz}\int_0^\infty\frac{v^z}{(1+v)^2}dv$$
16:14
@DHMO, back to the earlier question; if I were to take the resultant of any two of those vectors (equal magnitude), how do I find the angle between the resultant and the other vectors left over? [If this were a 2D situation, I know I could've used tanα = P.sinθ/(P+Pcosθ) : θ is the angle between the two vectors having the same magnitude-P and α is the angle between either vector and the resultant; but I'm pretty sure that doesn't work here :/ ]
17:09
@DHMO note that for $z\notin\mathbb Z$ $\nu^z$ is cannot be defined to be analytic on all of $\mathbb C$. Infact the usual choice of the function gives it a line of non-analyticity on the negative real axis. Your "residue" however is at $(-1)$. So you need to make a choice of which branch of your function you chose, ie what the value of $(-1)^\alpha$ should be. This choice will change the value of the residue!
Morning guys!
To be specific $(-1+u)^z=e^{z\ln(-1+u)}$, there are different choices of the complex logarithm $L_n, n\in\mathbb Z$ at $(-1)$, with $L_n-L_m=2\pi i(n-m)$. So
$$(-1+u)^z_n = e^{z L_0(-1+u)}e^{2\pi i n z}$$
the expansion of $L_0$ at $-1$ is $L_0(-1+u)=i\pi - u+O(u^2)$. So
$$e^{z L_0(-1+u)}=e^{z i\pi} e^{-u+u^2f(u)}=e^{z i\pi}(1-u)+O(u^2)$$
then your function is
$$e^{i \pi (1+2n) z}\frac{1-u+O(u^2)}{u^2}=e^{i\pi(1+2n)z}(\frac1{u^2}-\frac1u)+\mathrm{analytic}$$
ah, damn i forgot to multiply $z$ onto the expansion of $L_0$, so the result actually is$$ze^{i\pi(1+2n)z}(\frac1{u^2}-\frac1u)+\mathrm{analytic}$$
it is interesting that doing a numerical calculation gives a different result, because my software has chooses a version of the function that is not analytic on the negative real axis :)
here are the real and imaginary parts of the integrand $e^{-i t}(1-e^{i t})^z$ for $z=1/2$, you can see that it chooses a discontinuous continuation at $t=\pi$
17:38
Hi @s.harp.
Hello @MikeMiller ^
@MikeMiller do you use spectral sequences in your work? I got subscribed into a seminar about it and the prof sold it like as if these were the most amazing tools in all of topology
I use them at a pretty cursory level. Sometimes things are easier to calculate when you have a spectral sequence. (Well, that's pretty much the whole point, but I don't use the really fancy ones.) Sometimes it's easier to show a map between chain complexes is a quasi-iso by showing that it's an iso on the first page of a spectral sequence or something.
Somehow they're just really basic fundamental tools. About as fundamental as exact sequences. They're just harder.
(Not to imply I really understood them before like six months to a year ago.)
ok, I'll try to follow the seminar, but the actual derivation of the specific sequences seems like a huge pile of work
black box the construction of spectral sequences from exact couples or filtrations.
the general fact is that if you have a filtered chain complex (an increasing sequence of subcomplexes $\mathcal F_p$, with the union over all of them being everything) there is a spectral sequence going from the homology of the associated graded complex $\mathcal F_p/\mathcal F_{p+1}$ to the associated graded of the homology
and that's sometimes enough info to reassemble the homology; the homology of the associated graded is usually pretty easy to compute
once you have that, spectral sequences just come from filtrations
17:54
the example in the introduction was that for a fibre bundle $X\to B$ a CW structure on $B$ gives a filtration of $X$, and the prof computed I think $E^1$ and $E^2$ from this, said "you can continue this, but its complicated", explained about the sequence converging to an $E^\infty$ sequence and how that relates to the homology of $X$
@MikeMiller That fundamental? Damn
@s.harp Yup, that's right. Calculating past the $E^2$ page tends to be pretty hard. A lot of the time you work so that you can set things up so that it stops doing stuff after $E^2$.
In fact, this paper's main contribution... is computing one differential on the $E^3$ page of a spectral sequence.
@Danu you gotta compute
@Danu One of my biggest regrets so far is that I haven't taken the time to learn spectral sequences properly. If something suggests that you should know how to use them I encourage you to learn that.
learn by using
18:03
Yup.
every so often i hear that phrase, but I've no comprehension of what they are
you take the differential in a chain complex and write it as a sequence of better and better approximations to the real differential
sort of like a taylor series
then the sepctral sequence details how you go from the homology of the first approximation, to the homology of the second approximation, to ...
mmmkay
why 'spectral'?
@MikeMiller Is this paper still being peer reviewed or did it already appear somewhere? (Google suggests the former, but not sure.)
@Semiclassical Because mathematics. Everything is spectral.
18:05
lol
homological recursion would be a fun name for it, though probably bad in its own way
@Semiclassical probably in the same sense that if you sum over all the eigenspaces with $|\lambda| < N$ of an elliptic operator, that provides a finite-dimensional approximation to the actual operator
@AndrewThompson presumably the former, but these are good grad students at good places, and it's rather unlikely that it would be on the arXiv without their advisors looking over it in detail
can't say I understand why one would care about it, but then I'd probably need a much more refined sense of what interesting problems in homology are
@Semiclassical you don't understand why people would care about a tool that makes computations easier?
slash possible
18:09
I can't if I don't know what kinds of computations we're talking about
I can imagine that there are problems where it's crucial, but I'm ignorant of what those would be
@AndrewThompson Not for now, luckily :P
(I've heard) they're not that scary once you get used to them, as most things in math.
Concepts in math are usually either terrifying or fundamental, depends on whether you know them well already or not.
I would be very interested in something that is still scary once you get used to it
ghosts
18:14
war
in math X(
better answer
unless you mean ghosts in QFT
bubbling
bubbling terrifies me
i guess the path integral is scary to most mathematicians that got used to it :)
18:14
I've got an abstract algebra. I am sure it is stupid but I am really rusty and I don't trust my judgement.
whats bubbling?
I recall that for every isomorphism, $f(q)=q$ for every $q\in Q$;
So if I have a field extension $Q(a)$, $Q(b)$ $a,b\notin Q$ and they are isomorphic, then the isomorphism $f$ between them necesserily holds $f(x)=x$ if $x\in Q$, and $f(a)=b$. right?
I don't trust my judgement that I can jump to the conclusion that $f(a)=b$
Yes, you have made no argument as to why that should be true.
im not entirely sure how field extensions are defined, but consider extending $\mathbb Q$ by $i$ and by $3i$, these two fields are both $Q\oplus i Q$ but the isomorphism wont map the two generatros onto each other
@s.harp I don't exactly recall what the latter sign means, but field extension $Q(a)$ is defined as the smallest field (i.e. the intersection of all the fields) containing $Q$ and $a$.
@AndrewThompson if I try to follow that up: assuming there is an isomorphism $f$, and knowing that for every $q\in Q, f(q)=q$, because isomorphism is one-to-one and unto $f(a)$ - ohhh I see. It's not necessarily true.
But it is true to say that $f(a)=q*b$ for some $q\in Q$, due to the one-to-one and unto of the isomorphism.
18:31
No. Take a= root 2, b = 1+root 2
Okay, they are isomorphic?
Ah
18:45
So, it's not true that if $Q(a)$ and $Q(b)$ are isomorphic and $a,b \notin Q$ then $a,b$ are the roots of the same irreducible polynimial. This example is a rather obvious contradiction
4 stars on Ted's message. should I interpret that to mean they are happy for me for not getting smacked by Ted in a while, or that they want me to get smacked by Ted soon?
19:03
Whatever makes you happy.
Cobra Verde or Aguirre, Wrath of God?
Thanks @mike @s.harp @AndrewThompson.. I contradicted $Q(\sqrt{i})$ isomorphic to $Q(\sqrt{2})$ and also contradicted $Q(\sqrt{2})$ isomorphic to $Q(\sqrt{3})$, so I had something in me telling me that statement oughta be true. Guess it was wrong after all :)
@s.harp The latter (haven't actually seen either, though)
19:27
I already saw Aguirre, but it was a long time ago and I'm sort of itching to see it again, so I'll go with that
@Danu You figure things out?
Hello!!

Let $E/F$ be an algebraic extension and $C$ the algebraic closure of $E$. I want to show that the field $C$ is the algebraic closuree also for $F$.

We have that $C=\{c\in E\mid c \text{ algebraic over } E\}$, i.e., every polynomial $f(x)\in E[x]$ splits completely in $C$.

Since $F\leq E$ we have that so every polynomial of $F[x]$ is also a polynomial of $E[x]$. Therefore, these polynomials have also their roots in $C$, and so $C$ is also the algebraic closure for $F$.

Is this correct?
it's trivial what you are asking
$C/F$ is algebraic, let $f\in F[X]$ be a nonzero polynomial
it can be viewed as being in $E[X]$, so it has a root in $C$ by definition
19:48
I'm new to this website, and curious to know the background or the kind of people that are part of this awesome community. I am a high schooler, what about you guys or girls?
20:05
@MikeMiller Regarding what? :P
@HarshaG. Hi! I'm a physics-student-turned-mathematics-student doing my master's degree :)
whatever
@MikeMiller I'm doing okay-ish right now.
The bits about connections are similar to some stuff I already know.
@HarshaG. most frequent-posting regulars are probably math majors (undergrads and grads), math teachers, or math enthusiasts. other people come in for help or outside perspective too - math students trying to understand math or do their coursework, laypeople curious about things, or people in other areas (of academia or industry) like computer science, physics, engineering, etc.
@Studentmath!! Glad to see evidence you're alive :)
Hi Tern, @Danu
@Studentmath: What if $\alpha = \sqrt3$ and $\beta=2-\sqrt3$. Does $f(\alpha)=\beta$ work?
@TedShifrin Hey there
20:17
@TedShifrin We already did that one.
Oh, I didn't read everything ... Okey dokey.
Hi @semiclassic
Ah, I see. Well, not identical, but yes :P
Interesting play on John Denver's song/lyrics.
Appalachia->Jamaica
This version is so great
So different from the original
20:21
folk -> reggae?
Early reggae is really really great
I see you're distracting yourself again :)
No, I'm typing! :D
Connections on $\operatorname{Hom}(E_1,E_2)$ and all that linear algebra stuff
@TedShifrin haha, glad to see glad of that, also glad to see you're alive considering how pissed you probably are from the elections
I should think about that as arising from some kind of product rule right?
$\nabla(f(s_1))=\nabla(f)s_1+f\nabla s_1$
Is there a formal name for this kind of idea (requiring "product rule")?
20:23
You mean thinking of it as $E_1^*\otimes E_2$? Yes.
@TedShifrin Well, what you can do is define the thing on Hom before you define it on the dual
Then you get the dual from there
I'd rather think about dual first and then do the general case from what I said. To each his own.
But yeah, I guess I should just think of this as tensor products giving product rules
They're all effectively equivalent.
:)
20:24
@Studentmath: Nothing about these days overjoys me. Let's put it that way.
I may actually be visiting Israel. A friend of mine and I are thinking of doing a tour — probably March.
It'll soon be over, @Ted :P And I guess the election is kind of run by now.
The toxic damage will last a long time, @Danu.
I expect nontrivial violence.
Perhaps most supporters will be kinda like "dafuq" based on the last few weeks' meltdown
Or so one might hope
anyways, let's not get bogged down in this topic again :P Sorry for getting into it.
Yup, back to your getting tensor and tensor.
@TedShifrin Hi
20:28
Heya @Tobias
@TedShifrin I learned about the Chern connection today
And hi @Fargle. Haven't seen you in ages.
@Danu One could have hoped thism onths ago, too.
Oddly enough, @Danu, I only heard it called that on MSE a few years ago. In all my life, I had never heard the term.
@TedShifrin Hehe.
What'd you call it?
20:29
Canonical connection ...
I guess you learned about it from the man himself so he probably didn't call it Chern connection ;D
Chern certainly never named it after himself. It took him almost 40 years before he would say Chern classes.
...or maybe you already knew
@TedShifrin Hahaha :D That must be so freaking weird
I wonder who actually named it. Griffiths/Harris don't use the term; nor does Wells.
If you're a big shot like him... so much stuff is named after you
20:30
The biggest are probably Chern-Gauss-Bonnet and Chern classes.
hi @TedShifrin
Probably the most modest mathematician I ever met.
Hi Karim.
Is @Balarka hiding to eschew smacks? Cuz he hasn't found me a tube around a curve yet?
Ah, Google is wonderful.
I've no idea what a Chern connection is. Am I supposed to>
Unique connection on holomorphic vector bundles that is compatible with both holomorphic and Hermitian structure
Oh, no, Kikkawa named a canonical connection in the setting of web geometry the Chern connection. Still hunting.
20:32
oh
It's such a shame that this stuff wasn't around before.
Would've been so cool to see Chern there.
The interview with Kirby is very interesting. In fact I think most of the interviews are.
Well, Simons was one of Chern's early students, of course.
There's a video made at MSRI with interviews about Chern, too. Quite excellent.
I bought it a few years ago when it appeared.
Googling for the Chern connection turned up this unanswered question on MSE.
@TedShifrin !! nice. Oh, it's not online for free?
I don't know, @Danu. Is it now online for free? They were charging for it 3 years ago.
@TedShifrin Do you have a title or something else to go by?
20:39
"Taking the Long View: The Life of Shiing-shen Chern"
Is that a legal version?
I don't know. It's on youtube.
Yup. MSRI has posted it free now. And they say if downloading fails, you can buy a DVD for $20. I don't begrudge the $20 I spent. :)
I have to say that I'm mostly happy that it's online for me to watch it... :)
20:41
@TedShifrin Let me know if you do! I may have a few advices in that case :)
Danu, look at the unanswered question I linked up there ^^^ and tell me what you'd say.
@TedShifrin It's a good thing to spend money on such valuable content.
@Studentmath: If I can find you ... you're in hiding these days.
@TedShifrin Also, I finished something with excellence so now I might be able to start research M.Sc in Math next semester during weekends. Got the confirmation from one end, the university asks that I prove weekends are enough for me on two courses I like less... so getting the rust off.

Of course I am in hiding, everything is a huge mess around here
@TedShifrin ...gauge transformations?!
20:43
Yeah, @Studentmath ... I'm glad to see you!
Didn't have a second to breath, 2 years done and 3 to go doesn't make me that happy either :P
What's the problem with that, @Danu? Physics talk for change of frame :)
No, I'm sure not, @Studentmath.
This site also has some great content (more to sift through though!).
Math talk, too, @Ted...
I still say change of frame, @MikeM :P
20:44
The group of changes of frame, uh-huh
Do you have any comment on that question, @MikeM? I have one off the top of my head.
I like reserving gauge transformation for principal bundles.
@TedShifrin The physics terminology is reserved for gauge theory, though
Pretty funny
You'd have to take an associated bundle to get the principal bundle — starting with a complex vector bundle with a hermitian structure. Equivalent, of course.
He's working with principal bundles.
@TedShifrin You can get a principal one from a vector bundle?
20:47
@TedShifrin I'm working right now, so nmot paying too close attention.
@Danu Write down some charts and transition functions and use those exact same transition functions for the principal bundle.
More geometrically, literally take the space of frames.
Sure, @Danu, in general the $GL$ frame bundle. But if you have a Riemannian or Hermitian structure, then $O$- or $U$-frame bundle.
Oh, I know all of those words
But I haven't thought about it all that much :P
sounds like a great time to start
Not really, since the semester just started.
whatever
20:49
Now now, don't be offended
semester just started there @Danu? I am already marking exams here.
Ah, there's the sleep offender.
@TobiasKildetoft Germany's holiday times are all messed up.
@Danu Condescension is a good way to get someone to not want to pay attention to you. So I won't.
@TedShifrin I haven't done any math the past few days. Very pressed with schoolwork.
20:51
I find the dismissive use of "whatever" one of the worst pieces of vocabulary to arise in the last decade or so. I do not like it
@MikeMiller Whaaa? What I said was not at all meant to be condescending. I'm just saying that I currently have a lot of stuff to do, so I'm not spending time on this particular thing.
Just don't forget to sleep, @Balarka.
Or to eat @BalarkaSen, can happen too.
I have no idea how that could've sounded condescending (I actually looked up the definition again because I wasn't sure if I misunderstood what that word meant). "an attitude of patronizing superiority"...
I don't know what was supposed to be condescending, @Danu. Personally, I find "whatever" exactly that. But let's all move on.
20:54
@TedShifrin Trying not to. I have to get up like 6 in the morning consecutively for the next few days.
@TedShifrin Yes, let's move on.
Good night, then, @Balarka.
hello all!
hi doomedPing
@TedShifrin I'm told someone who wishes to remain anonymous is quite fond of your bald patch
20:54
^lmao
my ping is fucked man!
LOL, @Mussulini. WTH are you talking about?
Can someone tell me why in discrete time, (-1)^(n^2) is not a periodic signal?
because pi is irrational
lolwut?
20:55
$(-1)^x=\cis(\pi)^x=\cis(\pi x)$
Huh?
Wait, are these the standard Fourier coefficients in a Fourier expansion? What are we doing?
like if you graph it then its the exact same as (-1)^n
I think the lecturer did quite a good job with the exam this time. Several exercises that can be solved by anyone who knows the definitions, but which become much easier for someone who has an understanding for how everything interconnects in the subject.
@TedShifrin Maybe I'll quit the chat, yeah, but still have to get some work done before sleeping.
I owe apologies to you and Mike for not getting work done as promised
Balarka: No apologies needed. Get rest and do a good job on your work.
20:57
Like one where first they are asked for the rank of a matrix, then whether the columns are linearly independent, then for the rank of the transposed matrix.
if it's exactly the same as (-1)^n it would be periodic, but evidently it's not
@TobiasKildetoft Hmm,
In my experience (as a student, purely!) it's very hard to make mathematical exams.
@Tobias: Interestingly, a question I answered in 10 milliseconds this morning was due to someone's not remembering that if the columns of a matrix form an orthonormal basis, then so do its rows.
i thought that it would be some math thing where x[n+N] != x[n] but if you do the expansion then it does work
20:58
I give up on this, since no one will explain what we're talking about.
@pingOfDoom I'm sorry, don't listen to me I made a mistake.
@TedShifrin well, that is also less obvious than it sounds once you are used to it (and of course requires the orthonormality to be in the standard basis)
@Alessandro !!
Hi @Ted!
like for a signal to be periodic, then you need some N such that x[n] = x[n+N]
20:59
If anyone has some probability/graph theory question I can try to get some rust off there too, feel free to ping me.
@Tobias: Not necessarily, but some orthonormal ground basis, yes.

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