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11:07 PM
@DanielF: You complied with Jasper and put up a new pic? You're incognito :P
 
Hey, @Ted!
How've you been?
 
Hey @TedShifrin!!!
Martin told me that we can find the intersection multiplicity like that:
$I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,x^6-x^5+y^2)\\
=I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,(x^6-x^5+y^2)-(x^5+x^4+y^2))\\
=I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,x^4 (x^2-2x-1))\\
=I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,x^4)+I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,x^2-2x-1)\\
=I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,x^4)\\
=I_P(y^2,x^4)\\
=2 \cdot 4 \cdot I_P(y,x)\\
=8$


Could you explain me why we take the difference $(x^6-x^5+y^2)-(x^5+x^4+y^2)$ at the equality:
I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,x^6-x^5+y^2)=I_P(x^5+x^4+y^2,(x^6-x^5+y^2)-(x^5+x^4+y^2))?
 
hi Khallil ... Just begin to have my head above water. Too many homeworks to grade, exams to write, letters of recommendation to submit ...
 
@TedShifrin Who says it's me on either pic?
 
Hell if I know, @DanielF :)
Because this depends just on the ideal, @evinda, so you're free to do "row operations" on the generators, just so long as the two generators you have give the same ideal.
You healthy again, @DanielF?
I've been largely absent due to plethora of work ...
 
11:13 PM
@TedShifrin Mostly. I'm still coughing a bit, but less every day.
 
I hope you don't have a serious infection, @DanielF
 
@TedShifrin And how can we know if, after having done an operation, the two generators we have give the same ideal?
 
I'm still recovering from having a basal cell carcinoma removed ... sore healing going on on my back where I can barely reach it :(
@evinda: Do you know about row operations on matrices? It's the same thing.
 
@TedShifrin I don't think so.
 
Have you seen someone who might have more authority than you, @DanielF?
 
11:15 PM
@TedShifrin Why is it the same thing? Could you explain it to me?
 
When I had serious lung congestion, I needed antibiotics and more, @DanielF :(
 
@TedShifrin Who could that be? I'm a free man.
 
That's only what you think, @DanielF.
@evinda: Consider $\langle f,g\rangle$ and $\langle f, g+cf\rangle$. Prove those are the same ideals.
It seems like I'll never get back to being able to use ChatJax on my iPad :( More reason to quit chatting :D
 
@TedShifrin Or quit the iPad.
 
Well, I'm at my desk, now, but I guarantee that without the iPad I won't be here very much.
well, Kaj is furiously studying for his real analysis final exam, so we won't see him tonight :D
I'm still rewriting my probability final to make it shorter/easier .... :(
 
11:19 PM
@TedShifrin A ok.. Could we also take this difference: $x^6-x^5+y^2-x(x^5+x^4+y^2)$ ?
 
@TedShifrin Heretics!.
@DanielFischer Hello Daniel.
 
@evinda: You could, but he's trying to cancel out the $y^2$.
 
@TedShifrin So that we have only $x$?
 
@PedroTamaroff Hello Pedro.
 
It is somewhat presumptuous, @Pedro. Somehow, I don't think anyone will be stealing my name.
Right @evinda ... The other thing is, $x$ is not a unit, so you can't go backwards. Your two ideals aren't equal. One is contained in the other, but not the other way.
 
11:22 PM
If we have a group $G$ and an element of $G$ called $g$, is $\langle g \rangle = \{ \dots, g^{-1}, 1, g, g^2, g^3, ... \}$ called the cyclic subgroup of $G$ with $g$ as it's generator?
 
@DanielFischer Let's try to see in how many seconds you solve this: let $\mathcal A$ be a family in $\mathcal O(\Bbb C)$ that is bounded at a point (wlog $0$) and such that the family of derivatives $\mathcal A'$ is normal. Then the family is normal. Give an example where the family of derivatives is normal, but $\mathcal A$ is not.
@Khallil Yes.
 
Child's play, @Pedro: Cauchy Integral Formula for the first.
 
@TedShifrin I solved it without Cauchy.
Only the standard estimate is necessary.
 
@TedShifrin I understand!!! Thanks a lot!!!!!
 
You're welcome, @evinda.
 
11:23 PM
It's true that $\langle g \rangle = \{ \dots, g^{-1}, 1, g, g^2, g^3, \dots \} = \{ 1, g, g^2, g^3, \dots \}$, right @Pedro?
 
@TedShifrin And something else...
Let the algebraic curve $f(x_0, x_1, x_2) \in K[x_0, x_1, x_2]$. The inflection points are the non-singular points of the curve that are the intersection points with the hessian.

If we have the curve $x^3+y^3+z^3=0$ the hessian is equal to $216 \cdot x \cdot y \cdot z$. How can we find the non-singular points of the curve that are the intersection points with the hessian?
 
@Khallil No.
Take $\Bbb Z$, $g=1$.
 
Remember that the Hessian needs an equation @evinda. What's the equation?
 
@Khallil It is true iff $g$ has finite order.
 
What is "the standard estimate"? @Pedro To me, Cauchy is it.
 
11:24 PM
@TedShifrin How can we find this equation? :/
 
@PedroTamaroff Which sense of "normal"? Is $f_n \to \infty$ allowed or not?
 
Oh, sorry! Yep, I forgot to mention that part. Thanks, @Pedro! ^_^
 
You need to set your expression equal to $0$, @evinda !
Ah @DanielF ... I hate that normal on the Riemann sphere stuff :D
 
@TedShifrin So do I have to solve the system $216 \cdot x \cdot y \cdot z=0$ and $x^3+y^3+z^3=0$?
 
Yes, @evinda.
 
11:26 PM
@DanielFischer Normal means the family is relatively compact in the compact convergence metric in $\Bbb C$. No $\infty$ allowed. So every sequence has a subsequence that converges uniformly in every compact of $\Bbb C$.
 
@TedShifrin But then we have three variables but two equations.. So is one variable a free one?
 
@PedroTamaroff Okay, first subsequence such that $f_{n_k}(0)$ converges. Next subsequence such that $f_{n_{k_m}}'$ converges compactly.
 
Yes, @evinda. Isn't this all happening in the projective plane? Remember homogeneous coordinates.
 
For the second one, @Pedro, take constants.
 
@DanielF: Why should we do @Pedro's homework? :D
He's smart enough to do it himself.
 
11:28 PM
@DanielFischer What I'd do is look at $B(0,M)$ for every $M$, since that is convex, so we can join $0$ to any $z$ with a straight line $\gamma_z$ in there and use $$f_n(z)-f_n(0)=\int_{\gamma_z}f'_n(w)dw$$
 
@TedShifrin Yes, we want to find the inflection points of the curve in $\mathbb{P}^2(\mathbb{C})$.. How can we then solve the system? :/
 
@DanielFischer Do you mean that $$\mathbb{F}_{p^n} \cap \mathbb{F}_{p^m} = \mathbb{F}_{p^{\gcd(n,m)}}$$ ??
 
@TedShifrin I already solved this!
 
Answer that for yourself, @evinda.
 
It was a midterm question.
 
11:29 PM
@TedShifrin We have to make good with our future moderator.
 
LOL, I knew I'd get you with that, @Pedro :)
No, @DanielF, I can just quit here just like I do at the university.
 
@MaryStar Yes.
 
Besides, the future moderator might want a letter of recommendation from me :P
 
@TedShifrin I was scared to death when I first discovered some similar thing a couple of years ago, but happily the doctor said it was just a verruca vulgaris with a weird appearance (on my back).
 
@DanielFischer Hehe, I took $\mathcal A=\{z-\nu,\nu\in\Bbb Z\}$.
 
11:30 PM
oh, glad it was nothing, @Chris'ssis. To be honest, after cancer that was almost death, the most benign skin cancer didn't bother me at all :P It's gone. It's just taking its time to heal :)
Same equivalence class, @Pedro :D
 
@TedShifrin Equivalence class of what?
 
functions :)
 
I don't get it.
 
@TedShifrin Great! Get well soon! :-)
 
@PedroTamaroff $\{ f + c\}$ for some entire $f$ and an unbounded set of constants $c$.
 
11:32 PM
Thanks for sparing me the trouble, @DanielF.
 
@DanielFischer Ah. OK.
 
@TedShifrin From $216 x \cdot y \cdot z=0$ we get $x=0$ or $y=0$ or $z=0$.
From the other equation($x^3+y^3+z^3=0$), when $x=0$ then $z=-y$, when $y=0$ then $z=-x$ and when $z=0$ then $x=-y$. So are the inflection points of the form $(x,y,z)=(-y,y,-y)=y(-1,1,-1)$? Or am I wrong?
 
But what's the equivalence relation here?
 
You're wrong @evinda. You lost track of your $0$'s.
LOL @Pedro. You insist on taking me literally.
$f\equiv g \iff f-g = c$ for some constant $c$.
 
@TedShifrin Where have I done something wrong? :/
 
11:35 PM
No, @Pedro, I got that wrong. The hell with it :P
First of all, @evinda, what field are you working over?
 
@DanielFischer After having said that "$x^{p^{n-m}-1} = 1$, i.e. $x\in \mathbb{F}_{p^{n-m}}$" what do we have to say to prove that $$\mathbb{F}_{p^n} \cap \mathbb{F}_{p^m} = \mathbb{F}_{p^{\gcd(n,m)}}$$ ??
 
if a continuous map from $f:S^n \rightarrow S^n$ has a degree other than 1 or -1, must it be noninjective?
 
@TedShifrin Since we have to find the flexes of the curve in $\mathbb{P}^2(\mathbb{C})$ isn't the field $\mathbb{C}$ ?
 
Certainly true for a smooth map, @cxseven.
 
you mean differentiable? yeah
what about just continuous
 
11:37 PM
Oh, ok, over $\Bbb C$, how do you solve $x^3=-1$, @evinda?
 
i can rule out an injective map having degree 0
 
Still true for continuous, @cxseven, but I'm cheating and using smooth stuff to prove it (smooth degree counts numbers of preimages, with sign). I don't know how much you know.
 
@MaryStar After seeing $$\mathbb{F}_{p^n}\cap \mathbb{F}_{p^m} \subset \mathbb{F}_{p^{n-m}}$$ for $n > m$, iterating yields $$\mathbb{F}_{p^n}\cap \mathbb{F}_{p^m} \subset \mathbb{F}_{p^{\gcd (m,n)}}.$$ But if $k\mid m$, then $\mathbb{F}_{p^k} \subset \mathbb{F}_{p^m}$, which yields the reverse inclusion.
 
@TedShifrin Isn't the solution $e^{\frac{\pi \cdot i \cdot k}{3}}$ ?
 
$2\pi i$, @evinda, yes.
 
11:39 PM
oh i guess you take a sequence of points that map to the same value, pass to a convergent subsequence, then argue convergence
 
So your solutions need a $0$ in one slot, and then ... ?
 
actually i think there are some catches to that argument
 
@Pedro I commented. There's no reasonable thing to call a "generalized Riemann mapping theorem" in higher dimensions.
Not even in some super weak sense.
 
un-hello @Mike
like what, @cxseven?
 
@cxseven Since $S^n$ is compact, an injective continuous $f\colon S^n \to S^n$ is a homeomorphism.
 
11:40 PM
Hi Ted... did you say hello earlier?
 
Oh, @Daniel brings out invariance of domain. :)
Oh, no, not even that.
I'm rusty.
yields the floor and goes off to cook dinner
 
@DanielFischer Which still isn't enough yet, since who's to say it's surjective? (Alexander duality does, for what it's worth.)
 
@TedShifrin I think we need invariance of domain for surjectivity.
 
or that
 
For generic compact spaces, a continuous injective self-map could be a homeomorphism to a proper subspace.
 
11:42 PM
Oh, good, so I'm not a total twit. :)
 
Mine's a teeny bit overkill, I suppose.
 
Yes, @Mike. But some would say smooth theory is overkill, too. Not I.
 
@DanielFischer Do we have to prove that $$\mathbb{F}_{p^n}\cap \mathbb{F}_{p^m} \subset \mathbb{F}_{p^{n-m}}$$ ??
 
@TedShifrin So, is the solution $2\pi i$ or $e^{\frac{\pi \cdot i \cdot k}{3}}$?

Also, do we want that one coordinate is equal to $0$, so that the solution belongs to $\mathbb{P}^2(\mathbb{C})$?
 
@Ted Actually, I was being silly... it's of course homotopic to a smooth map, so we can use that and move on with our lives.
 
11:43 PM
sigh @evinda.
 
@MaryStar Yes, but if you look above, we did prove that.
 
I asked @cxseven what his objection to my using smooth was, but he got quiet.
 
@TedShifrin Why? :(
 
@MaryStar that n-m should be gcd(n,m)
 
@evinda: (1) You told me that for $xyz=0$, one of $x$, $y$, $z$ had to be $0$.
(2) I told you that $e^{\pi i k/3}$ was wrong. You need $e^{2\pi ik/3}$.
 
11:45 PM
@Ted Presumably the objection was "I'm not using smooth maps", which is reasonable lest you know that every continuous map is homotopic to a smooth one and that degree is a homotopy invariant.
 
@MikeMiller Yup, the ball and the polycylinder are biholomorphically equivalent only in dimension $1$, for example.
@anon $n-m$ is the first step to $\gcd(n,m)$.
 
Without even mentioning homotopy, I can use the fact that I can arbitrarily closely approximate a continuous function by a smooth one ... and the preimages of a point will stay a bounded distance away ...
Ooh, I mentioned ball and polydisk to @Mike months ago.
@anon :)
 
@DanielFischer oh, it's a containment and you have n>m, I see.
 
@Ted Bur that doesn't help, since degree can't be defined that way for continuous maps. If one wants to define it for continuous functions either we define it as the degree of a homotopic smooth map or we do it homologically/homotopic ally...
 
@TedShifrin A ok, I am sorry!!! Then we will have the equation $a^3=-b^3$, where $a,b \in \{x,y,z\}$, right? But how can we find now the flexes?
 
11:47 PM
@Mike I voted to reopen the one you closed.
 
Right, @Mike. My view was smooth degree $\ne\pm 1$ implies non-injective, so, by approximation of a continuous function, it must still be true for continuous degree.
 
@DanielFischer Oh yes!! But how can we conclude that $$\mathbb{F}_{p^n}\cap \mathbb{F}_{p^m} \subset \mathbb{F}_{p^{\gcd (m,n)}}$$ ??
 
@evinda: You need to sit down quietly and work this out.
 
@DanielFischer I was being even more general with one might call a generalized RMT: a contractible open subset of $\Bbb R^n$ needn't be homeomorphic to $\Bbb R^n$. (Of course, this also prevents the much harder question of viholomorphicity, but the poly disc and cylinder are a better counterezample here.)
 
OK, I'm going to cook.
 
11:49 PM
@anon You're going to need to be more specific...
@TedShifrin Oh, I see.
 
the QxQ->Q one
 
@MikeMiller You mean you closed more than one?
 
@anon I agree with the commenter that he's essentially asking for an expository paper; I am not convinced by the argument that broad questions are good because they allow one to say many different things. But if five others disagree, so be it.
@DanielFischer Don't tell on me.
 
@TedShifrin What is the property that should be satisfied so that a point $\in \mathbb{P}^2(\mathbb{C})$ ?
 
@TedShifrin sorry I got called away for a few minutes
the argument you proposed could work, i just need to think about the fact that "passing to a smooth map" doesn't necessarily preserve injectivity
 

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