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Huy
11:18 AM
what's the simplest way to achieve this in LaTeX?
 
@Huy Hmm, possibly some sort of array
or possibly stackrel, though that is probably not the best option
 
Short announcement (for the record): very close to an amazing result in mathematics. These day should happen if I'm lucky enough.
 
You always seem to be
 
Yeah, it's just natural to be so after working a huge lot.
 
Huy
@TobiasKildetoft: good idea, the Bmatrix environment seems to work pretty good, just gotta work on the spacing
 
11:32 AM
Does anybody happen to know what the cofinite dual of an algebra is? I can't seem to find a definition anywhere.
 
@AlpArslan In what context? I can think of what it might mean with some extra structure (like a grading or something like that)
 
Well, I'm meant to compute the cofinite dual of the Tensor Algebra on a 2D vector space modulo some relations.
 
Ok, so that is a graded algebra with finite-dimensional homogeneous components
so the natural thing to do is to take the dual of each graded component
 
@TobiasKildetoft However just to know that I'm at the very beginning of mathematical activity, self-educated, I have hundreds, thousands of new results in mathematics.
I think this is a promising activity.
I have to finish some stuff now.
BBL
 
@AlpArslan What are you meant to do with this dual?
 
11:45 AM
Taking the dual of each graded component just gives me the standard dual, doesn't it?
Well, all in all, Im trying to compute a universal measuring coalgebra.
That measures \mathbb{Q}(\zeta) to itself as \mathbb{Q}-vector spaces, where \zeta is a primitive 3rd root of unity.
 
@AlpArslan No, taking sum of duals of each graded components preserves the dimension as being countable. If you just took the dual, you would get something of uncountable dimension
I think you mean mapping, not measuring
 
Ach, no, you're right.
And, no...?
Hmm.
@Tob
@TobiasKildetoft * what exactly do you mean by mapping coalgebra?
 
not sure, but it seemed like it made more sense that measure, especially given the following line where it should definitely be maps, not measures
 
@AlpArslan wrap your latex expressions with dollar signs ^^
 
12:07 PM
@Huy Maybe two align environments with \left\{ ... \right\} to encase the two?
 
$\displaystyle\left\{\begin{array}{c}\text{Free homotopy classes of}\\\text{(unbased) maps }S\to S\end{array}\right\}\longleftrightarrow\left\{\begin{array}{c}\text{Conjugacy classes of homo-}\\\text{morphisms }\pi_1(S)\to\pi_1(S)\end{array}\right\}$
@Huy
 
Huy
12:25 PM
thanks for your suggestions
 
 
2 hours later…
2:30 PM
Let $\mu(n)$ be the Möbius function, then:

$$a(n) = \sum\limits_{d|n} d \cdot \mu(d)$$

$$T(n,k)=a(GCD(n,k))$$
$$T = \left( \begin{array}{ccccccc} +1&+1&+1&+1&+1&+1&+1&\cdots \\ +1&-1&+1&-1&+1&-1&+1 \\ +1&+1&-2&+1&+1&-2&+1 \\ +1&-1&+1&-1&+1&-1&+1 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&-4&+1&+1 \\ +1&-1&-2&-1&+1&+2&+1 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&+1&+1&-6 \\ \vdots&&&&&&&\ddots \end{array} \right)$$
$$\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty}\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{T(n,k)}{n^c \cdot k^z} = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\lim\limits_{s \rightarrow z} \zeta(s)\sum\limits_{d|n} \frac{\mu(d)}{d^{(s-1)}}}{n^c} = \frac{\zeta(z) \cdot \zeta(c)}{\zeta(c + z - 1)}$$
which is part of the limit:

$$\frac{\zeta '(s)}{\zeta (s)}=\lim_{c\to 1} \, \left(\zeta (c)-\frac{\zeta (c) \zeta (s)}{\zeta (c+s-1)}\right)$$
Integrate:

$$\int \frac{\zeta '(s)}{\zeta (s)} \, \mathrm{d}s =\log \zeta(s)$$

$$\exp (\log \zeta(s))$$
$$=\zeta(s)$$
 
3:02 PM
hi @balarka
 
Hello.
 
how're you today?
 
So-so. Couldn't go to school though.
 
ah, that's not great.
 
What about you?
 
3:07 PM
eh, alright. the coffee i had a few hours ago is wearing off
 
random question: are there analogues of knot theory in higher dimensions?
 
@SamuelYusim sure, one studies embeddings of S^2 in S^4, say.
 
hmmmmmm
 
known as "2-knots".
 
and since i'm perpetually behind on sleep (for no good reason) i'm in a yawn part of the day
 
3:08 PM
Mike definitely knows a lot about those, you should ask him
@Semiclassical Yikes.
 
yeah, this is definitely a mike question
 
badly formed random question: are there configurations of curves in four dimensions that form knots in ways that couldn't be done in three dimensions?
 
There aren't any interesting 1-knots in R^4.
 
knots and links, if those are different
 
Namely, every embedding of S^1 in R^4 (or S^4, whatever) is isotopic to the trivial embedding.
So there are no "knotted" curves in R^4.
 
3:10 PM
weird
 
eh, you've got an extra direction to move
 
so what about linked curves?
 
Same for links.
 
so it's not entirely surprising that knots in 3D can be undone in 4D
 
3:11 PM
dang, man
 
I mean, given an overpass-underpass, you move them in the extra dimension to unlink them without self-intersections
 
the weird part to me is that the extra freedom in 4D doesn't permit any different constructions
but given what @balarka just said, there's no way to do it with just curves
hence, the interest in 2-knots I suppose
 
I dunno if you guys have heard about the colin de verdiere graph invariant ( en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Colin_de_Verdi%C3%A8re_graph_invariant ) but I was just thinking about it briefly and this question comes up pretty naturally from that
 
and I don't know how one would meaningfully compare 1-knots in R^3 to 2-knots in R^4.
given the second line of that Wikipedia article, it sounds like I should know about it
but nope
 
(think about it this way: if you have a circle and a circle of a smaller radius inside it in R^2, you can never perturb the smaller one without intersecting with the larger to pull it outside the larger one. But in R^3, you can move it up in that extra dimension to do that)
 
3:14 PM
@Semiclassical what counts as the second line depends on the size of your monitor
 
second sentence
 
he means the Schroedinger equation part, I guess
 
yeah. though the article doesn't actually talk about that context
Colin de Verdiere is a name I've heard of, though, from certain seminars
 
the invariant is ridiculous
the fact that it does what it does blows my mind
 
3:18 PM
weird
 
also the conjecture on that page that the chromatic number of a graph is at most the C de V invariant plus one is equally mind blowing
 
That's what I was weirding at.
 
what I'd like to see is a statement somewhere re: the schrodinger operator context
 
eh, doesn't seem to mention Schrodinger operators more than twice
(fun fact: due to the umlaut in Schrodinger, it's easier to search for 'dinger' than 'schrodinger')
2
 
3:23 PM
yeah you probably just want the dude's original french paper
I searched for schr instead
 
yeah, i was going to look up the translation listed in the wiki article
though probably i should try to do something productive
say, type up some notes or something
 
shouldnt we all
bojack season 3 comes out July 22 so I'm too busy being hype
 
hey @mike
that preprint i mentioned went up this morning on arXiv
here (link for @TedShifrin too)
here's hoping the referees like it
 
3:41 PM
@user1618033 o/
 
@Hippalectryon hhhhheeeeeeeeeyyyyyyy!!!! Long time no see! :-)
@Hippalectryon How is it going (and what happened you missed for so long)?
 
Yeah I'm still as busy (more ?) as ever. I'm fine though :-) how are you ?
 
@Hippalectryon Cool. I'm on the crazy stuff as usual, discovering tons of stuff! :-)
 
hi @user1618033
 
@Semiclassical hey
 
3:45 PM
here's a hard question for you, to which I don't know a good answer
suppose someone gives you $y(t)$, $x(t)$ which are each power series in $t$; for convenience, take them both to have leading term $t$.
then $y(t)-x(t)$ is a power series in $t$ with leading term $~t^2$, which can in turn be removed by subtracting off an appropriate multiple of $x(t)^2$
 
@user1618033 And as always :-D how goes the book ?
 
@Hippalectryon All is fine
 
and this can be continued in turn, eliminating $t$ power-by-power, to get $y$ as a function of $x$
 
By the way, let me tell you the series I'm working on ... (but just to make some checkings)
@Hippalectryon All is fine so far, thanks, and I reached a point where the publishing part of the book doesn't depend on me anymore.
 
Here's the challenge: Can one find the coefficients of $y(x)$ as a closed-form in those of $y(t)$ and $x(t)$?
 
3:49 PM
@user1618033 Don't forget to tell me when it becomes available !! :DDDD
 
right now my suspicion is "yeah, you wish"
 
@Semiclassical I'll read that in a few seconds
 
mmkay
 
4:02 PM
@Semiclassical cool question, thanks for it (at any rate)
 
@Semiclassical My first reaction is yes.
 
i actually do have a set of coefficients in mind (certain binomial coefficients) but i don't think it particularly helps
 
At least for a finite number of terms you can find ways to compute them.
 
sure.
 
4:11 PM
@Semiclassical I'll think over it and if I find a nice way of putting that I'll let you know. This makes me think it might be connected to the Faà di Bruno's formula.
Faà di Bruno's formula is an identity in mathematics generalizing the chain rule to higher derivatives, named after Francesco Faà di Bruno (1855, 1857), though he was not the first to state or prove the formula. In 1800, more than 50 years before Faà di Bruno, the French mathematician Louis François Antoine Arbogast stated the formula in a calculus textbook, considered the first published reference on the subject. Perhaps the most well-known form of Faà di Bruno's formula says that d n ...
 
Yeah. I should mention that I did post this as a question, though the responses were kind've thin: math.stackexchange.com/q/1841907/137524
(the way i wrote it here is a bit different than i did there, though I think it's equivalent)
I might be better off rewriting it in the way I did above. Less formal but easier to understand...
 
@Semiclassical Did it arise again in some physics problem?
 
it did. let me find the source.
 
okay, eqs. (2) and (3) of this: arxiv.org/pdf/cond-mat/9809044v1.pdf
in there the leading terms have generic coefficients rather than just both =1, but i didn't want to include that detail in the above.
 
4:22 PM
Anyone know why area enclosed in polar curves is given by $A = \frac{1}{2}r^2\theta$?
 
@Semiclassical Gotcha, thanks.
 
@obliv that's valid if you're talking about the sector of a circle
 
right I'm talking about sectors of circles
 
okay
first, do you recognize what that is if $\theta=2\pi$?
 
the area of a circle
 
4:24 PM
right.
 
what's the theory behind it
 
you mean, why the area of a circle is $\pi r^2$?
 
well why not I guess
now that you mention it I never formally proved it/derived that
 
depends on how one defines $\pi$, to some extent
 
might help with polar coordinates. I wasn't there for the lecture and all I have is a non-rigorous pamphlet :c
 
4:27 PM
for the $r^2$ dependence, you could say that it comes down to units: if I measure in units of meters, then area is in units of meters^2
and then 1 meter = 10 cm and (1 meter)^2 = 100 cm^2
so if I have a circle of radius 1 meter with some area $A$ meters^2, then that same circle has a radius of 10 cm with an area of 100A cm^2
 
I did some dimensional analysis in my head. It's essentially half of the circumference * radius. I imagine a semicircular length and the radius is the distance to the center from any point on the length.
for a sector of a circle there's no circumference tho
 
actually, maybe here's the easier statement
 
@Semiclassical 1 m isn't 10 cm
 
dohhhh
 
lol
 
4:30 PM
100 cm
same conclusion, but that's embaressing
suppose I've got a circle of radius $r$ and area $\pi r^2$
 
@Semiclassical Interesing paper. Are you researching something similar?
 
well, a much more recent paper spotted the coefficients in eqs 16-19 showing up in a different kind of problem
which is in the same kind of context as what I've been lately
so my prof suggested i look at that and figure out why
i'm still getting my feet wet
 
@SemiC how do they construct the area of a sector of a circle? Suppose I have a quarter of a circle. What is its area and can you intuitively tell me why it is so
 
@obliv If you're willing to take $A=\pi r^2$ for granted, it's easy
 
Huy
:o
 
4:36 PM
you've got a quarter of a circle, so it'll just be $\frac{\pi}{4} r^2$
 
Huy
do le integralz
 
so the integration would be $\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{1}{2}r^2 d\theta$ how do you get $\frac{\pi}{4}r^2$
 
well, what's the angle subtended (measured in radians) in that case?
keep in mind that $r$ is a constant---the radius doesn't change with angle, after all
 
@Obliv it is the done in the obvious and trivially trivial way
 
Huy
hey @Mike
 
4:40 PM
@Semiclassical looks nice! good luck with it
 
hi @Huy
 
to my mind, the main thing to convince oneself re: the area of a sector is that $A\propto \theta r^2$ makes sense
 
@juan why does the equation work though? What is actually happening? It's an infinite sum of $\frac{r^2\theta}{2}$
 
Huy
@Mike so the book says because $T^2$ is $K(\mathbb{Z}^2,1)$, there is a bijective correspondence between homotopy classes of based maps $T^2 \to T^2$ and homomorphisms $\mathbb{Z}^2 \to \mathbb{Z}^2$. is there a theorem for this or should this be obvious
 
4:42 PM
e.g. that doubling the radius quadruples the area, and doubling the angle of the sector doubles the area
once you've got that, all one needs to do is figure out the area in one specific case---say, the area of a unit circle
 
@Huy In general if X is a connscted CW complex and Y is a K(G,1) then maps X -> Y are in bijextion with homomorphisms pi_1 X -> G
 
Huy
I'm afraid to ask but what's a CW complex
 
like I understand arc length is the infinite sum of lengths of line segments and it eventually breaks down to right triangles. What are the parts being summed here? I'm so bad with polar coordinates i dont get it @semiC
 
This needs proving; it's done in chapter 1 of Hatcher. The idea is "Realise every homomorphism by doing it cellwise and showinf you can extend cell-by-cell; same for showing maps inducing the same homomorphism are homotopic
oh dear
 
Huy
ok
so I must read chapter 1
 
4:44 PM
see Hatcher chapter 0
 
Huy
ok
 
read Hatcher 0 and the appendiz to Hatcher 1
 
the area of isosceles triangles, I suppose
i mean, pick a circular sector with a very small angle $\theta$
 
$\frac{bh}{2}$ the base is the change in $\theta$? The height is $r$?
 
no
hang on a moment
 
4:45 PM
@Obliv use this formula instead: $area=\frac12ab\sin C$
 
then that's about the same shape as an isosceles triangle with base $r\theta$ and equal sides $r$
 
Then it becomes $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/4}\frac12r^2\sin(\mathrm d\theta)$
 
actually, come to think of it, Obliv's comment is on the money
 
and then $\sin(\mathrm d\theta)=\mathrm d\theta$
 
the height would be approximately $r$, and the base would approximately be the arc length $r\theta$
so the area would be approximately $\frac{1}{2} r^2\theta$
so, at least at small angles, the area of a sector being $\frac{1}{2}r^2\theta$ makes sense
 
4:48 PM
what is $r\theta$? a radius $\times$ angle ...
 
@Obliv = arc length
 
it's a length.
 
oh right angles are dimensionless
 
the definition of $\theta$ in radian, is the arc length divided by the radius
 
radians are always a bit weird when it comes to dimensions
they're not really a unit so much as a label of 'what does this angle mean'
 
4:49 PM
how strange
$r\theta$ gives the base of that triangle
okay thanks guys I'll finish up this hw then
 
@Obliv because we are back to $\sin(\theta)=\theta$
 
alright, i have to get something done today.
for one, let's think why intersection mod 2 is homotopy-invariant.
 
hi @BalarkaSen
 
hello
how's life?
 
it is ok
how is yours @BalarkaSen
 
5:01 PM
@BalarkaSen Oh, but that's honestly obvious. Just make the homotopy transverse to the other submanifold and take preimage of the intersection. That's a 1-cobordism between the two intersections.
Well, one needs the transversality extension theorem, not just the transversality theorem
@mreyeglasses Not very well.
 
sorry
 
Glad to hear yours is going alright.
 
thanks
I hope yours gets better
 
I hope so too. Thank you.
 
what i find frustrating is when its a nice-looking day outside and i still feel down/crappy
because in that case i can't blame it on the weather :/
 
5:09 PM
@Semiclassical Find for yourself a Monica Bellucci. :-)
 
not sure how many of those there are in the world :)
 
@Semiclassical :D
 
@Semiclassical i wouldn't quite say i feel down. i feel that not being able to think/having a dull day is more of a struggle than being depressed, because that's partially how i try not to be depressed.
 
@Semiclassical @BalarkaSen if you feel depressed with all the sources you have around, then what can I say about myself that I had to do math for a long period of time with very very low resurces?
Eventually, this fact brought me in this point. So never complain too much, seemingly bad situation can be full of rich positive effects over time.
 
that comes perilously close to 'how can you feel bad when X is true'
 
5:15 PM
To conclude, I think very well before complaining myself over a certain situation.
 
which is a statement that, however well-intentioned, is tremendously unhelpful. it supposes that 'feeling down' is a rational, intentioned act.
it's not.
 
Hi @Balarka, @Semiclassic, mr eyeglasses :P
 
I prefer to treat myself with work for these days (if they ever come). @Semiclassical
 
hi @ted.
 
hi @TedShifrin
 
5:19 PM
saw the preprint i linked? @ted
 
I was wondering what happened to you, mr eyeglasses.
Not yet, @Semiclassic.
 
@TedShifrin I was just sad for a while
 
mmkay
 
I just went and found it, @Semiclassic. I haven't been on-line yet today.
@Balarka: Hope you'll soon be doing better. I miss your horrid puns.
 
gotcha
 
5:20 PM
I understand, mr eyeglasses. I've been having a rough few months in my own way.
 
oh no
everyone is doing badly
 
"How would I know the right word for what I want? How would I know that actually I don't want what I want? Or that I actually don't want what I don't want? They are elusive things: the moment we name them, their meaning disappears, melts, dissolves like a jellyfish in the sun. My conscience wants vegetarianism to win over the world. And my subconscious is yearning for a piece of juicy meat."
 
LOL, well, I am a seasoned pro, mr eyeglasses :P
 
@TedShifrin Trying to get better.
 
5:22 PM
'all that is solid dissolves into air'
 
@Balarka: Whom are you quoting?
 
Tarkovsky's script, from "Stalker".
 
I started working at a home remodeling company for a couple months now but I don't really like it that much
 
a very different context, but i've always liked that phrase
 
<--- ignorant
 
5:23 PM
mine's from Marx, I think
on the note of 'work', I need to start looking into career stuff
informational interviews and stuff, i suppose. ugh.
 
I see, mr eyeglasses. Well, do a good job so that you can get a good rec and ultimately look for something you might prefer. I know a lot of math people go into business-type consulting, but I doubt you'd like that much, either.
 
I got mine from a temp agency. No hassles like interviews
Just gotta watch some boring 1 hour safety video
 
a lot of math/physics people go and do quant stuff e.g. finance
 
Don't those people usually have advanced degrees
 
yeah. i have my situation more in mind, i suppose
 
5:26 PM
A number of my former advisees/students have done it with just BS, mr eyeglasses. Computer skills and writing skills are, however, both somewhat important.
 
I wasn't able to get my bachelor's
 
the finance route creeps me out, frankly.
 
Then how to feel yourself depressed when you get the math results you appreciate daily? @Semiclassical My math doesn't allow me to feel depressed, you know, I don't have time for such a state.
 
Oh no, mr eyeglasses ... I'm so sorry. I thought you'd finished.
@Semiclassic: A number of my students have liked Arthur Anderson type consulting, found it challenging.
 
wasn't Arthur Anderson the one that went down for destroying Enron's documents?
 
5:29 PM
BTW, Semiclassic, surely you can search Schrodinger and Schrödinger both and get it?
 
eh, 'dinger' is simpler
 
I think that might be right, but they're still alive and kicking, @Semiclassic. I'm not saying I'd want to do it myself, but there are lots of different such entities.
 
works regardless of the umlaut
 
@BalarkaSen @Semiclassical sorry to see you unhappy.
 
what creeps me out re: finance, I should clarify, is precisely the ethical issues
 
5:31 PM
I actually took a semester of statistical mechanics my last semester of college (from chemists), @Semiclassic, but I don't beremember much.
 
I've got a repeat of a previous notation question that I've asked here before. I still don't 100% get the notation on $\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$. I understand what this set is (and that it's more than just a set), but by what mechanism does the module produce the result? I'm familiar with the modulo in terms of equivalence relations, but $2\mathbb Z$ isn't a relation, right?
 
So, if $X$ bounds some manifold, intersection mod 2 of $X$ and $Z$ is 0.
 
@Hippa: Tu vis toujours ??!!
 
Obvious by cohomology argument.
How to translate that to a smooth topology one, hmm.
 
LOL, @Balarka. The point is that transversality is far more intuitive and powerful in its own way than cohomology.
Everything is about 1-manifolds with boundary and counting (and then, later, with orientations).
 
5:32 PM
I agree, yes.
 
@axoren $2\mathbb{Z}$ isn't a relation, but membership in $2\mathbb{Z}$ versus $2\mathbb{Z}+1$ is
 
@Semiclassical That was a brilliant way to convey that to me, I have to say.
I felt chills.
 
Thanks.
 
@Axoren: You're setting everything in the subgroup (or ideal) $2\Bbb Z$ equal to $0$ (or everything in it is related to everything else in it).
 
5:34 PM
@Semiclassical @BalarkaSen and I was just preparing to say that I have had such an incrediby amazing day ...
 
Chills, huh? :D
 
another way to put it is that two elements of $\mathbb{Z}$ will be equivalent if their difference lies in $2\mathbb{Z}$
 
@TedShifrin I believe I've received that explanation before, but I was always wondering why we set them to 0, it almost felt like an arbitrary decision. $A/B$ becomes set all of $B$ to the $0$ element.
 
@Semiclassical Precisely the correct way to say it.
Because that's what modding out means, @Axoren :P
Notice that $0$ is always in the thing you're modding out by (assuming we're doing additive groups or commutative rings or ...)
 
But, isn't the accepted notion of $\mathbb Z/3 \mathbb Z$ would be to partition membership into $3 \mathbb Z$, $3 \mathbb Z + 1$, $3 \mathbb Z + 2$? By either original explanation, we should just be making all multiples of $3$ into $0$.
 
5:38 PM
Hello Professor Shifrin!
 
That would be only two equivalence classes.
 
you're also making 4 equivalent to 1, since their difference is a multiple of 3
 
oh, 'course that's obvious
 
@Semiclassical I see, this is where you explanation beats out the "setting to 0" explanation.
Because the relation stated as the difference applies to all elements of $\mathbb Z$
 
the 'setting to zero' thing is really just a shorthand for that equivalence, yes
 
5:40 PM
@Axoren: No, three equivalence classes, according to the remainders 0, 1, 2.
Hi @MathWanderer
@BalarkaSen Was that directed to me or to nobody in particular? :D
 
more generally, one should talk in terms of cosets and such
 
@TedShifrin Yes, the remainder. Related elements need not be within 3 or even 33 of each other.
 
but eh
 
Of course not, @Axoren. When I used to teach this, I would use colored chalk and color code the different equivalence classes. And then draw a picture of $\Bbb Z/3\Bbb Z$ with three elements, one dot for each color.
 
5:42 PM
@TedShifrin If $X$ bounds $M$, make $M$ transverse to $Z$ by a homotopy with boundary also transverse to $Z$. Intersecting that perturbed copy of $M$ with $Z$ gives a manifold with the same # of bd points as $X \cap Z$ mod 2.
 
@TedShifrin Yeah, saying difference only made sense in that little example. I've got to be more careful, but I get the idea much better now.
 
1-manifold has 0 bd components mod 2, so you're through
 
@Semiclassical @BalarkaSen to improve your days ^^^ the sun smiling at you
 
If you look at it differently, it's like the sun's face is wearing a bib and does not have a nose.
 
OK, I have some serious stuff to do.
BBL (no time for complaining here)
 
5:45 PM
@BalarkaSen 1-manifold with boundary, yes. Of course. Same idea for homotopy invariance of intersection numbers, earlier, of course.
@Axoren Say what?
 
Right, I did that above and before while proving degree mod 2 is homotopy invariant, but of course nobody looked :)
 
Ah, thanks, @Semiclassic.
 
anyways
 
Lots of good ol' classic asymptotics, I see, @Semiclassic. (Or should I have said semiclassic asymptotics?)
 
5:47 PM
@TedShifrin On dirait :-) ça va ?
 
heh. i think it's technically semiclassical due to the Weak Noise bit
 
Drats, chat's programming is lame.
 
Oui, ça va, plus ou moins. Tu me manquais, @Hippa. Ça va, toi?
 
i.e. that serves as a similar kind of small parameter as Planck's constant does in quantum mechanics
 
@TedShifrin Je suis en plein dans mes oraux, plus qu'une semaine après celle là :D
 
5:49 PM
@Semiclassical one thing because I noticed that: some prefer to say that they don't listen to me, but actually read all I say, and it's simple: how to answer my questions? Ted? No way.
 
it's actually similar to quantum mechanics, but with diffusion instead of interference? that's a sloppy way to put it
 
Je suis sûr que tu y réussis bien, @Hippa.
@Semiclassic: I wish I understood it all better.
 
J'espère ^_^
 
same, frankly. i start from the equations I had to solve numerically
 
@Semiclassical i asked a few things about the schroedinger's eqn in the physics chat yesterday
 
5:50 PM
@Semiclassical but I don't care what and who does here. I simply don't care. If someone is curious in some math I talk about it's OK. Otherwise, it's OK again.
 
actually, i can kind've point to the sense in which it's a semiclassical analysis
 
When I taught applied math (back in 1986) I had fun teaching some of the asymptotics stuff (stationary phase, in particular). I thought Bender/Orszag had some great material.
@Semiclassic: Kind of is not always kind've :P
 
@ted When we do the weak-noise theory stuff, it converts a PDE problem into a pair of equations that form a Hamiltonian system
 
5:52 PM
@Semiclassical Do you you how to calculate, say, $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1}{n}\left(\zeta(2)-1-\frac{1}{2^2}-\cdots -\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^2$$
 
Sorta like linearization, @Semiclassic?
 
@ted something like that. in both cases there's some notion of small parameter
 
Understood.
 
Be relax!
BBL
 
@user1618033 I think what I'd do is represent the term in parens as an integral
and then hope to god i could use that somehow :p
 
5:54 PM
I don't, @user1618033. But since you seem to know it beforehand, you wasted your precious time pinging me.
 

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