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6:00 PM
can a set be closed and not bounded?
 
What do you think?
 
no since if it weren't bounded then it wouldn't be closed
right?
 
Whether or not that's true, it's not an argument (you just wrote down the converse, without giving a reason for it).
 
Hi, does anybody know what $\mathcal O(-3)$ is? It appears in the context of a bundle over the complex projective 2d space $\mathcal O(-3) \to \mathbb P^2$
 
@eric what're you up to lately?
 
6:11 PM
jeje
The end of the semester is hitting me like a truck
 
ahh, that sucks
 
because I basically took a very long break for most of april
 
The total space of that bundle is apparently called "local $\mathbb P^2$" (and is a known thing)
 
I mean, yeah it sucks but it's not really surprising XD
I'm giving a talk :P
 
unfortunatley searchign google for O(-3) and local P2 gives absolutely nothing related to mathematics :P
 
6:13 PM
that's most of what's on my mind right now
 
ah, nice. when/where/what?
 
@user19405892 Yes.
[0,\infty) is a closed subset of the reals.
 
thursday / somewhere in Murphy / matrix-tree theorems :)
 
@s.harp First, there's a line bundle called the tautological line bundle over $\Bbb P^2$. You know this guy?
 
6:14 PM
If a set is closed and bounded, it is called compact. (That is, if it's a subset of a Euclidean space R^n.) @user19405892
 
No, I don't
 
Start simpler: Do you know what line bundles are?
 
yes
 
Ok, consider the subset $E = \{(\ell,x) \in \Bbb P^2 \times \Bbb C^3 \mid x \in \ell\}$.
There's a map $E \to \Bbb P^2$, whose fiber is a line $\Bbb C$. One checks that this defines a holomorphic line bundle.
This is called the tautological line bundle because cmon look at it that's tautological
 
Ok, yes, I vaguely remember seeing that one before
 
6:17 PM
that sounds more self-referential than tautological :p
 
It's just "if $\Bbb P^2$ is a space of lines, then consider the bundle of lines over it whose fibers are, uh, the line"
 
yes
 
This is called $E = \mathcal O(-1)$. The tensor products $\otimes_k E$ are called $\mathcal O(-k)$. Its inverse in the group of holomorphic line bundles is called $\mathcal O(1)$.
 
is this K-theory-ish stuff?
 
Just line bundles
 
6:19 PM
Ok, thanks
 
ok then
 
Is there some property of exponents that says x^(3/2)=sqrt(x)^3 and not sqrt(x^3)?
 
The tensor product of two line bundles is again a line bundle right?
 
@JoeStavitsky if $x>0$, all three expressions are identical.
 
Yeah, @s.harp, the best way I know how to describe the tensor product is to tensor the transition functions to $GL_n$; for $GL_1$, tensor product is just multiplication
 
6:20 PM
@Semiclassical, was that for me?
 
These are all of the holomorphic line bundles over $\Bbb P^2$ up to isomorphism. They're named such, because given a generic meromorphic section of $\mathcal O(-k)$, its zero/pole set gives a divisor, which defines an element of $H_2(\Bbb P^2;\Bbb Z)$
Given the canonical isomorphism $H_2(\Bbb P^2;\Bbb Z) \cong \Bbb Z$ (so that the generator is $\Bbb{P}^1 \subset \Bbb P^2$), the appropriate element is $-k$
 
What do you mean with "divisor"?
 
for $\mathcal O(-1)$, see this as follows: define $(x:y:z) \mapsto (x/z,y/z,1)$. there are no zeroes, and the pole set is the line $\Bbb{CP}^1$
linear combination of codim 1 subvarieties. you add up the zero sets and subtract the pole sets
 
@Semiclassical, if so, how do calc 2 trig subs work unambiguously? If you raise u^2+a^2 to the third power, you can't do pythagorean identity
 
In your specific example the poles are $(x:y:0)$ which can be identified with $\mathbb{CP}^1$ via $(x:y:0) \mapsto (x:y)$?
 
6:24 PM
right, when I say $\Bbb P^1 \subset \Bbb P^2$ I specifically mean that subvariety, yeah
 
what's a generic section?
 
well, one issue is that trig functions aren't always $>0$. so that could produce some problems. but I don't really see what you actually mean without an example
 
@AkivaWeinberger My question is is does a set being closed imply it is bounded?
 
or maybe I wouldn't want to know.
 
what do you think a generic section is?
 
6:25 PM
ok thanks @MikeMiller, I know very little algebraic geometry (or whatever this is :-) ), this was helpful
 
sure, gladly. I have no idea why $\mathcal O(-3)$ is important.
 
@user19405892 No.
 
oh, yeah I do @s.harp
 
@MikeMiller no idea, to be honest.
 
i'm skeptical but oh well
given a complex manifold/algebraic variety, there's its holomorphic cotangent bundle $T^*M$; this is a holomorphic vector bundle of rank $n$. you can define $K_X = \Lambda^n T^*M$. this is a holomorphic line bundle, called the "canonical bundle"
 
6:28 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Give me an example where not.
 
@Semiclassical, like so - ctrlv.in/747824 - clearly if first you raise to the numerator you will go nowhere
 
@user19405892 He literally just did.
@s.harp ah the canonical bundle is actually $\Lambda^n TM$. I'm not so expert at this stuff
Anyway for $\Bbb P^n$ that's $\mathcal O(-n-1)$.
 
ah
 
no I was right the first time
it's the cotangent bundle. sorry!
the canonical bundle's sections are (possibly degenerate) volume forms; if there is a holomorphic section, you have a holomorphic volume form
 
@JoeStavitsky i don't see an issue. for example, subbing $x=\tan\theta$ in $\frac{1}{(1+x^2)^{5/2}}$ gives $\frac{1}{(\sec^2\theta)^{5/2}} = \cos^5\theta$. nothing particularly strange there.
 
6:30 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Are you saying $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a counterexample?
 
for $\Bbb P^n$, we see that we cannot possibly have a holomorphic volume form; we'll have poles, because $-n-1 < 0$.
 
o right duh the sqrt is nothing special
 
it looks like no matter how hard I try I cannot escape geometry and topology
 
@Semiclassical $|\cos^5 \theta|$ :)
 
pffff
 
6:32 PM
mm, but I guess we're only doing this for angles such that $\cos > 0$, because we implicitly used an arctan up above
so you win
@s.harp you're some flavor of physics-liker, yes?
 
I'm supposed to be a physics student^
 
i should go grab coffee, my brain is just kind of dead right now
 
That is not true.
You should review the definitions.
 
sorry i forgot it is closed
 
@s.harp Is this physics or "physics"?
@Semiclassical You would probably be into this local P^2 stuff since I just googled it and there are Picard-Fuchs equations everywhere.
 
6:37 PM
ah, nice
what did you google specifically?
 
local projective plane
 
(if it involves the word 'haupftmodules' i don't have a freaking clue)
 
The definition of closed is that every limit point is contained in the set. In $\mathbb{R}$ for example $\infty$ is a limit point but it is not contained in $\mathbb{R}$ so how is it closed?
 
@user19405892 To talk about closed sets, you need to be living inside some bigger space. What space are we talking about when we say "$\Bbb R$ is closed"?
 
if you mean the 'stability conditions' paper, it's above my head quite quickly
 
6:39 PM
me too
 
@MikeMiller its probably "physics", although maybe I will go do some applied stuff if this doesn't work out
 
tsk tsk
 
$\mathbb{R}^2$?
 
@s.harp on the other hand "physics" makes what I do possible, so I can't tsk too hard :)
 
are you tsking at the applied things or at the "physics"? :-)
 
6:41 PM
the latter, though not in any seriousness
 
@MikeMiller I kind've wish I did understand what's going on in that 'stability conditions' paper, if only because I did run into Bridgeland's papers on stability conditions in triangulated categories when delving into quadratic/strebel differentials stuff
 
do you think about triangulated categories??
 
oh god no
well
i've run into the triangulations themselves, i suppose
 
my god, all is lost for you
 
6:42 PM
oh, no no no, triangulated categories and triangulated surfaces are completely unrelated objects
 
hmm. am i mixing up things
 
my best friend does (something like) triangulated categories
he's a loon
 
I wonder actually, in my mathematical physics seminars we have lots of strange arguments imported from physics and used to prove some mathematical theorems, like showing Gauß bonnet with path integral methods. Do mathematicians also use these physics methods or are they restricted to those that call themselves mathematical physicists?
 
ah, yeah, i'm conflating things
this is the paper i had run into
and i really only looked at the quadratic differentials stuff
 
@MikeMiller Is $\infty$ a limit point of $\mathbb{R}$?
 
6:45 PM
is $\infty$ even an element of $\Bbb R$?
 
no
limit points don't need to be elements of the set
 
Unfortunately, @user19405892, there are a few levels of confusion. There is a threshold after which one can try to bring someone out of confusion. But in this discussion (and in previous) you have tended to seem so confused about the very nature of what you're even asking (and then do not clarify for some minutes after someone prods) that I don't think I can do anything to help. So I'm not going to try to engage.
 
limit point of $\Bbb R$ inside what then?
 
@s.harp I think there are a group of mathematicians that understand path integrals, but I don't, and that group tends to be filled with category theorists.
I think somehow the right notion of chern-simons theory on 3-manifolds and path integrals and whatnot is Reshitikhin-Turaev theory, which involves modular categories? One day someone will explain this to me.
That is not today.
 
I am just trying to prove that $\mathbb{R}^2$ is closed
 
6:48 PM
path integrals are weird
 
I wish they didn't exist
 
but for example in $\mathbb{R}$ we have $\infty$ is a limit point (?) of $\mathbb{R}$ but it is not contained in it so I am wondering how it is closed
 
@s.harp do gauge theory like us mathematicians and you'll never see them!
 
You're confused, @user19405892.
You need to read the definitions.
 
my main problem with path integrals is that when i saw it in coursework, it was in the context of QFT as taught by particle physicists
 
6:50 PM
I have read the definitions and the defintion of a closed set is a set which contains all of its limit points
 
and that's utterly painful
 
isn't that the only place they appear?
 
they can be done properly in stochastical systems, ie brownian motion and wiener process or something
 
funny you should ask that. the book i have out next to me (for rather random reasons) is Altland and Simons book on "Condensed Matter Field Theory"
 
when I heard it in QFT every second term in the derivation was a divergent quantity, the others were terms I did not know what their actual definition was
 
6:52 PM
the third and fourth chapters of which are on the Feynman path integral and the functional field integral i.e. many-body path integral
 
The physicists tend to say a bunch of nonsense and then be right
so I believe them and move on
 
plus, as s.harp says, there's applications to nonequillibrium systems i.e. Keldysh formalism. my advisor has done a lot of work in that area, though i've stayed away from it
 
Someone should tell me what a path integral is at some point of time. But that time is not this time.
 
There is no such thing as a path integral.
No need to worry about it!
 
problem is, there's a difference between explaining the physical concept of a path integral, and actually making sense of it mathematically
the former isn't hard, the latter is
 
6:55 PM
@Semiclassical I think the physical notion makes perfect "sense". It's just that the sense is nonsense :)
 
hah
as an organizing principle of field theory, path integrals are great
as something that is actually well-defined, not so much :/
 
Better to learn what path integral means than watch Guardians of Galaxy.
Constructive way of wasting time.
 
bottom line for me is: quantum mechanics is easy, quantum field theory is hard
 
I think the book "Functional Integration And Quantum Physics" by Barry Simon is seen as the best rigorous treatment. Unfortunately it was very dense and I could not read it.
 
The path integral means nothing, @BalarkaSen :)
 
6:58 PM
how do I know you're not lying?
 
The physicists will back me up.
 
The path integral is like drugs, if you do it and like it everything is great but if you don't like it and everybody around is doing it you don't feel too happy
 
'$∃ $' <----- what does this symbol mean?
 
"Spatula"
 
@DeNiSkA it means "there exists"
 
7:00 PM
lol
 
oh ho ho!
 
ok, library is kicking me out, good bye guys :P
 
@s.harp i am happy with not drugging myself though.
 
i'll object to the phrase "the path integral means nothing", if only because of how genuinely useful it has been
 
so Mike was lying
 
7:01 PM
if i can use it to get physically meaningful results and predictions, it's not meaningless
the problem is that it doesn't have a sound mathematical underpinning.
 
@BalarkaSen If I asked you to define the average value of a function on $\Bbb R$, what would you tell me?
 
that's nonsense unless $f$ is integrable on $\Bbb R$?
 
Assume it's integrable, whatever.
 
this MO question from a few years ago is relevant:
30
Q: Mathematics of path integral: state of the art

QfwfqI was told that one of the most efficient tools (e.g. in terms of computations relevant to physics, but also in terms of guessing heuristically mathematical facts) that physicists use is the so called "Feynmann path integral", which, as far as I understand, means "integrating" a functional (actio...

 
don't click that yet
 
7:08 PM
Ah, it's nonsense if it's not compactly supported I guess. I need $\int_{\Bbb R} f$ divided by the volume of the domain it's nonzero on.
Or at least I don't know what it means to say if $f$ is not compactly supported.
 
@BalarkaSen Well, even then, I'm not sure I would say that's the average value "on $\Bbb R$", because that domain is larger than the zero set.
 
what are some examples of figures with multiple centers of symmetry?
 
The problem here, more or less, is that $\Bbb R$ does not have a translation-invariant probability measure.
 
@user19405892 $\Bbb R$ is closed in $\Bbb R$. (It's also closed in $\Bbb R^2$.)
The thing is, a set is not open or closed on its own. It needs a topological space containing it.
 
@BalarkaSen Now, consider an infinite-dimensional hilbert space $\mathcal H$. Perhaps it represents the space of all quantum states.
 
7:10 PM
IT HAS
 
Let $f: \mathcal H \to \Bbb C$, say, be some smooth function, maybe energy.
The path integral of $f$ is the average value over all states.
 
$(0,1]$ is a closed subset of $(0,2)$ (with the subspace topology) but not a closed subset of $\Bbb R$, for example. @user19405892
 
Therefore, the path integral is nonsense. :)
 
@AkivaWeinberger Since $\infty$ is a limit point of $\mathbb{R}$, how is it closed if it isn't contained in $\mathbb{R}$?
 
lol!
 
7:12 PM
@user19405892 $\Bbb R$ is closed in $\Bbb R$, because it has no limit points in $\Bbb R$.
It is not closed in $\Bbb R\cup\{\infty\}$, though.
It depends on what the topological space is.
 
the following comment to one of the answers to that MO question is relevant:
 
@AkivaWeinberger Are you speaking of one point compactification here
 
@MikeMiller What makes physicists think it makes sense physically?
 
@Mambo I was thinking of the order topology, but either works for the example
 
"It is possible to rigorously define the path integral. What you can't rigorously define is the 'Lebesgue' measure that physicists write as $\mathcal{D}\phi$. When a physicist writes $\frac{1}{Z}e^{iS(\phi)}\mathcal{D}\phi$, you should understand this as a notational shorthand; they're telling you roughly what form the finite-dimensional approximations you use to define the path integral ought to take. "
 
7:15 PM
I don't know anything about what the physicists think.
 
fair enough.
 
re: finite-dimensional approximations, i'd include in that the physicist penchant for assuming periodic boundary conditions in space and time
 
finite dimensional approximations are Good and i like them
 
the average value of a function on the real line may not make sense, for example, but the average value on the unit circle does.
 
So, I saw this presentation I didn't entirely understand, but you can redefine $D\phi$ without the notion of measure, and instead using cohomology, and then the path integral becomes well defined.
I'll try to find the paper/notes it was based on
 
7:17 PM
@AkivaWeinberger How are you going to define open sets in order topology for $\Bbb R \cup \{\infty\}$?
 
i don't think that really helps me understand finite-dimensional approximation, @Semiclassical
 
@MikeMiller Off-topic: do you care much about Bowie's songs?
 
I think the better analogy is $[-n,n]$
 
that's fair.
n?
 
some integer
you're approximating all of $\Bbb R$ by intervals of finite length
yes, very much so @Balarka
 
7:18 PM
@AkivaWeinberger What are some examples of bounded figures that have multiple centers of symmetry?
 
I listened to Space Oddity and I was impressed.
 
eh, that seems to me like a matter of boundary conditions
 
@Mambo Just define $a<\infty$ for all real $a$ and construct the order topology
@user19405892 I don't know what that means, sorry
 
@Semiclassical I don't understand your point
the albums i keep on my phone are ziggy, diamond dogs, scary monsters, and his last album
 
How is any neighborhood of $\infty$ looks like?
 
7:19 PM
It is known that some bounded figures have multiple centers of symmetry so I am wondering which ones exist
 
@Mambo The basis is all sets of the form $\{x:a<x<b\}$ for $a,b\in\Bbb R\cup\{\infty\}$. The neighborhoods of infinity are the sets containing $(a,\infty)\cup\{\infty\}$ for real $a$.
 
@user19405892 do you plan to explain what "center of symmetry" means in some precise terms?
 
well, I take your point to be that while there's no notion of a probability measure on $\mathbb{R}$, you can consider the sequence of average values generated by the intervals $[-n,n]$
and while that may or may not converge as $n\to\infty$, it is at least a well-defined sequence
 
haha, nice. i liked space oddity very much because it had the same kind of tune and topic of songs of an old band i like to listen to has.
i look forward to listening more of his stuff.
 
7:23 PM
yeah @Semiclassical
 
so one can define average value of f on R as a... sequence?
how's that used?
i mean it's an interesting idea but i am not sure what i'd do with it.
 
as the limit of that sequence...
might get you answers you find counter intuitive tho
 
yes, that's what i am worried about
 
and i guess my point is that, if I have a function which decays to zero sufficiently fast at infinity, I can find an approximation of it over a sufficiently large interval $[-L,L]$ with periodic boundary conditions
 
no idea what that means
 
7:26 PM
i.e. $f(x)\approx f_L(x)$ with $f(-L)=f(L)$
 
Oh I see. $[-n, n]$, not $[n, n+1]$. horrible misread.
 
well, suppose I have a Gaussian $e^{-x^2}$
 
@anon Hi anon, yes a center of symmetry $O$ of a closed, bounded figure is a point that such that for any collinear points $X,O,Y$ with $X,Y$ on the figure, $OX = OY$
 
so yeah of course that matches with the average value of compactly supported objects.
 
then my suggestion says that the average value is zero
@BalarkaSen no... it very much does not...
my average value of a compactly supported function is zero
which, really, of course it is
 
7:28 PM
one way I could get a sensible 'periodization' of $e^{-x^2}$ would be to replace it with $\sum_n e^{-(x-nL)^2}$
 
average value in the sense of $1/\text{vol}(\Omega) \int_{\Bbb R} f$ is not zero. do you mean the limit thing?
 
and if $L$ isn't too small (large enough that the Gaussians don't overlap much), then I've got a function which is periodic on $[-L/2,L/2]$ and which approximates the original function on this interval to exponential precision
 
@user19405892 if your figure is a single point, that means every single point O in the plane is vacuously a center of symmetry no?
 
@BalarkaSen yes, the limit thing is zero.
 
the advantage is that now I can use Fourier series to develop a sequence of finite-mode approximations
 
7:29 PM
um um um.
 
you keep saying average value as if it's clear that the right place to take the 'average value' is strictly the domain over which it's not zero; that's not clear to me
 
oh crud you're quotienting by vol([-n, n]) = ${2n}$ each time.
I see.
 
so now I'm able to study the Gaussian by Fourier analysis
it's in that sense which I say that periodic boundary conditions give rise to finite-dimensional approximations
 
@MikeMiller I suppose you have a point. You'd have to add up the contributions from the whole zero set, which I am not doing.
 
also an important song, for when everyone here is done with Ohio Shape
 
7:31 PM
@anon I meant $O$ needs to lie inside
 
In that sense, yes, average value should be 0.
I am just a narrow-minded person I suppose.
 
the first counterintuitive thing is that we learn that the average value of $1/(x^2+1)$ is zero
 
So not every point in the plane is a center of symmetry of a point
 
whereas it should be $1$, indeed.
urk.
 
...jeeze, how many conversations are going on at once right now
 
7:33 PM
it 'should' be 1?
why?
 
the function is symmetric about $x = 0$, where it takes value $1$.
 
ok?
 
not exactly impeccable logic
 
in the case of average value over compact domains, if a function is symmetric about something, then that's where the average value lives.
 
that's new to me
 
7:35 PM
that don't sound right
 
@anon A point is a special case because otherwise we don't need to specify that a center of symmetry lies inside the figure?
 
so the average value of $1/(x^2+1)$ on $[-1,1]$ is $1$?
 
the function acts symmetrically on its domain, but its range is certainly not symmetric
 
you're right, that was wrong.
 
i could tell you that the actual average value there was $\pi/4$, or i could point out that because it's a continuous function and almost always less than 1, its integral is less than 2
 
7:36 PM
@AkivaWeinberger you there
 
to draw a connection between our two strands of conversation, the Gaussian will have 'average value of zero' according to Mike's prescription. But the periodized Gaussian won't.
 
@Mambo I am now
 
i prefer mine
 
meh
main reason i stress the role of Fourier analysis, though, is because that is precisely how things get justified in a physics textbook
 
i want this mu
g
 
7:38 PM
if only because Fourier analysis is easy to use
 
@AkivaWeinberger If $\infty$ is included, how is order meaningful?
 
@anon I think I was wrong. You are right that any point in the plane is a center of symmetry of a point.
 
Positive infinity. $+\infty$. Not the thing you get in the one-point compactification.
 
7:40 PM
Then what about $-\infty$
 
@MikeMiller I suppose I was sleepy. I was thinking of when the range is symmetric facepalm.
 
Will $ \infty \in (a,b)$?
 
@Mambo I was just talking about $\Bbb R\cup\{+\infty\}$. It's not compact, but I didn't need it to be
 
I am being slippery about what I am saying today.
Either should stop being slippery or stop saying much.
 
7:41 PM
@Mambo Do you remember how an order topology is defined?
 
In $\Bbb R$ yes
 
In any ordered set…
 
getting back to the path integral stuff, I think the following 'joke' is relevant (no link this time)
Suppose $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2$. What is $f(r,\theta)$?
 
@Semiclassical nobody likes that joke when i tell them.
 
7:43 PM
'joke' is maybe the wrong word
though it'd be more amusing with both physics people and math people in the conversation
 
It's $r^2 + \theta^2$.
 
@balarkaSen and therefore you are a math guy, not a physics guy.
 
Okay, with that order topology, $\Bbb R \cup \{\infty\}$ is homeomorphic to what?
 
if you were physics, you'd have said it was $r^2$.
 
I know, it's old.
 
7:44 PM
@Mambo It's homeomorphic to $(0,1]$
with $\Bbb R$ being mapped to $(0,1)$
 
okay
 
the point being, of course, that the physicist would assume a certain abuse of notation, i.e. that $(x,y)$ isn't a label of inputs but rather Cartesian coordinates
so there's a certain amount of baggage that isn't being stated.
similarly, the path integral shouldn't be as a literal construction so much as a convenient way of implying a whole slew of assumptions about how such a construction should proceed.
 
@Semiclassical Did you study degrees of freedom in Classical mechanics?
 
probably
i took my last classical mechanics course five years ago
 
Can you guess what theorem is being exploited out there?
 
7:48 PM
out where?
 
In calculating degrees of freedom of a system
 
couldn't tell you
 
and thats what physicists do
 
8:41 PM
hi everybodie
 
Remember that theorem I mentioned earlier? About how $\Bbb R^n$ can't be written as the union of two connected open sets with disconnected intersection? And there's a quick LES proof. I think it's really illuminating to see what happens at the level of cycles, because the LES proof kinda obscures what's going on.
 
what is a LES proof?
 
There's a proof that uses a "long exact sequence" of homology groups.
 
and you must assume $n>1$
 
You sure?
 
8:49 PM
oh I thought you said CAN
 
When I said "level of cycles" I meant "level of chains," I guess
So, first off, connectedness is the same as path-connectedness for open sets, and all the relevant sets are open
and path-connectedness is the same as saying that, for any two points $x$ and $y$, there's a 1-chain whose boundary is $x-y$
So, call the open sets $A$ and $B$; we want to show that $A\cap B$ is connected
So, choose arbitrary $x$ and $y$. Because $A$ and $B$ are connected, there's are paths (1-chains) $\alpha_1\in C_1(A)$ and $\beta_1\in C_1(B)$ whose boundaries are $x-y$
$\alpha_1-\beta_1$ is a 1-cycle in $\Bbb R^n$, so it's a boundary of some 2-chain. You can write that 2-chain as $\alpha_2+\beta_2$ for $\alpha_2\in C_2(A)$ and $\beta_2\in C_2(B)$, by subdivision
Then $\partial(-\alpha_2)+\alpha_1=\partial(\beta_2)+\beta_2$ is a chain in $A\cap B$, with boundary $x-y$
and so it's the desired 1-chain connecting $x$ and $y$. Since $x$ and $y$ were arbitrary, any two points can be connected by a 1-chain in $A\cap B$.
Thus, $A\cap B$ is connected; QED.
 
i will think about that
 
And that whole thing is essentially a one-line proof, when one uses (reduced) Mayer–Vietoris.
 

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