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12:00 AM
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC the fourth dimension being time?
 
@Maks No.
When you go past "the border" you just go to the opposite side of the universe.
 
I recently wondered, what is time?
 
@maks if you include time, then the surface is 4D and the sphere is 5D
 
Because, think this
 
Like a pac-man board
Or asteroids
 
12:01 AM
If you stay here on earth and what a man in another planet with more gravity, suppose as much gravity needed for time to be twice faster
 
@Maks time is an intrinsic property of matter. antimatter travels backward (right)
 
For you time there passes twice as fast as here
But for him its just normal, he is not in "slow-mo"
 
yes
time is flexible
 
So, if you live here on earth and went to live to a planet where 1 min = 1 year on earth
You would feel time as If you were on earth
 
@Maks or just create gravity by centrifugation
 
12:03 AM
You still would die in let's say 80 years
But for someone on earth you lived millons
The problem is, time for you still passes at the same rate, but atoms. Last longer?
Because if you see it from earth, that man lived a million years, so did its organs
@DHMO could you explain "anti-matter travels backwards"?
So time modifies the life span of things, but you still fill it the same
And will there be a time where time just stops ? Because we are moving faster and faster in the universe as things get apart from each other
Will there be a time where we get such speed and mass that allow time to stop forever?
I should go to the physics chat, sorry haha
 
I think I didn't understand isomorphism really. Isn't it like that: A is isomorph to B, if one has to only rename things. With a few restrictions, like: identities go to identities and the structure is preserved.
 
@TedShifrin helping old homeless ladies in public transport (no joke)
 
or do i mix bijectivity and isomprhism now?
 
@TedShifrin in any case, I'd say there is (of course) no such thing as infinity in physics
Maybe you're referring to the famous renormalization procedures? They're there to get rid of fake infinities that arise from the mathematics, which of course is always to blame when we get a bad result
 
Glad to know you repay all my generosity in helping you limp through complex geometry @Danu :D
 
12:12 AM
:D
@TedShifrin I'm getting better... Now I need to grade QM for tomorrow 8 AM
 
Long night. Better get on it!
 
@Danu what about the potential of an electron that isn't "part" of an atom(isotope)? Infinity certainly makes sense in physics. (or a reaaaally big number?)
 
:/ Yeah. Then tomorrow is my talk, finally
And then I'll get to study cobordism
I'm considering reading Thom's original paper
@Null what?
An electron far removed from everything has 0 potential energy
 
@Danu ok, then an electron shooted at the core.. (there are 2 views)
(how much potential energy has an electron exactly on top of the core)
@Danu actually, never mind, i don't have my facts straight, so there's no point
 
If f(x) = {"x" if x mod 2 is 0; "0" otherwise} what is lim x->∞ (f(x)) ? Write a proof for your solution
The first part is easy, proving it is harder
 
12:19 AM
I don't like writing $x$ when the domain is $\Bbb Z$.
 
@TedShifrin Let's say for all x in z. (then that raises another question: is ∞ in Z?)
 
@TedShifrin more like n?
 
How is this hard? Yeah, @Null, I prefer $n$ when we do sequences.
No, $\infty\notin\Bbb Z$.
This is a symbolic notation with limits.
Why is there anything hard here?
 
but $z\in\mathbb{Z}$ seems natural to me too
 
Mathematicians are used to $z$ for complex numbers/variables.
 
12:21 AM
$z$ is for members of $\mathbb{C}$
 
@TedShifrin i know, but rather unintuitive
 
Relevant.
 
LOL, you cynic, @noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC
 
[that's not my goal, but it's relevant]
 
12:23 AM
Anyhow, what is allegedly hard about this proof? Other than proving limits do not exist requires a step of logic.
 
harder, to be correct
@TedShifrin do it please :P
 
shrug ... guess it depends on what level you're at.
I won't do it, but I'll criticize your attempt(s).
 
is there a technical term for those kinds of diverging functions?
 
People casually call them "piecewise" functions.
 
@TedShifrin i am kinda interested, my approach would be, that the values hop between x and 0, how would you say that rigorous?
 
12:25 AM
@TedShifrin Those are for ranges, I believe
 
No, @noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC, any function defined by cases is often called "piecewise-defined." Whatever ...
 
relevant, again
 
I'm quickly losing interest.
 
Let me try to prove it.
1. f(x) is either x or 0, for all Z.
 
That sentence didn't make sense, but ok.
 
12:28 AM
@TedShifrin what does "locus" mean? sorry i haven't seen it before
 
2. ∞ mod 2 is undefined. (postulate that says this I don't know)
 
@meow: set of points ...
Latin :)
Also not relevant, @noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC.
 
hocus locus
 
$\forall x\in\mathbb{Z}: f(x)=x \text{XOR} f(x)=0$
 
What is the definition of $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} f(n)$? Start there.
 
12:29 AM
Google(limits)
Will try.
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC well, we usually define congruence modulo $n$ as an equivalence relation over $\Bbb Z$, so, i mean, it's not really a postulate
 
Let's start with a correct sentence defining mathematically what $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} f(n) = L$ means.
 
@ted I did specify the curve, it's the one traced out by the integrand.
 
since $\infty \not\in \Bbb Z$
 
googles "TeX renderer" :P /s
 
12:31 AM
use mathjax
 
Here $f(n)=\begin{cases} n, & n \text{ even} \\ 0, & n \text{ odd}\end{cases}.$
Remove any mention of mod.
 
Hmmm....
Okay I'll first prove infinity is neither even nor odd.
Proof by contradiction: infinity is either even or odd
 
the integer have measure zero in the reals
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC what do you define "even-ness" or "odd-ness" to be?
 
12:33 AM
Let's rename the set reals to "realsies"
 
without modular arithmetic
 
Googling for postulates...
 
no no don't look up postulates
 
an element of $\mathbb{N}$ that has a 2 in prime factors
 
what does it mean for a number to be odd or even
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC
 
12:35 AM
Question about idempotents and rings. If we have a set which is the set of idempotents of a commutative ring R (with unitY) we cannot conclude that the set of idempotents is an ideal (in general) unless every element of R was idempotent. Since if we consider (ra)^2 where r in R and a is in the set of idempotents (ra)^2 = ra iff r is idempotent, but we may still have elements in r which are not idempotent which would lead to (ra)^2 = r^2a and thus the set wouldn't be an ideal?
 
I'm outta here. Have fun, guys.
 
$2n$ will be certainly even for $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ and $n\to\infty$
 
hi/bye @ted
 
^(or not?
 
so it is a question of measure zero of the integers
 
12:35 AM
@TedShifrin sorry if i took over
 
If dividing a number by two and rounding the number towards zero and multiplying the result by two is equal to the original number ....
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC converting?
you're complicating this way too much
 
But ∞ cannot be divided
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC what is actually the point you try to prove
 
think of a number as "odd" if there exists $n \in \Bbb Z$ such that the number is equivalent to $2n + 1$
 
12:36 AM
Proof too simple; no postulate found, just an empty statement
 
and similarly, even if there exists $n$ such that the number is equivalent to $2n$
wait
yeah, what are you even asking?
 
If 2 divides m, it's even. If it doesn't, it's odd.
 
i think it is really his hobby :-D
 
Is ∞ part of Z?
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC no
 
12:38 AM
@Null was joke ;_; /s
 
and if it's not an integer, then don't ask about even/odd
 
why are you so held up in postulates?
 
Not sure my conclusion is correct, but it does seem to make sense.
 
Purity, maybe?
 
@Semiclassical i believe he's talking about limits though
 
12:38 AM
No, $\infty$ is not an element of $\mathbb{Z}$.
 
For every open sets $V$ around zero... there is an open set $U$ around $\infty$ such that $f(U)\in V$
 
End behavior works too.
 
i didn't even knew the word postulate until he threw it in :D
 
@Null impossible, xkcd 451
 
The set is a neighbourhood of $\infty$ minus the Integers inside
Still is open
so $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}f(x) = 0$
 
12:40 AM
I'm in my post-dinner yawn phase, so I can't be arsed to look up the actual question
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC what is your definition of limit?
 
21 mins ago, by noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC
If f(x) = {"x" if x mod 2 is 0; "0" otherwise} what is lim x->∞ (f(x)) ? Write a proof for your solution
 
It works right?
 
Why should that limit exist?
 
Explain again?
 
12:41 AM
because it does
 
In calculus, the (ε, δ)-definition of limit ("epsilon–delta definition of limit") is a formalization of the notion of limit. The concept is due to Augustin-Louis Cauchy, who never gave an ( ε , δ {\displaystyle \varepsilon ,\delta } ) definition of limit in his Cours d'Analyse, but occasionally used ε , δ {\displaystyle \varepsilon ,\delta } arguments in proofs. It was first given as a formal definition by Bernard Bolzano in 1817, and the definitive modern statement was ultimately...
 
Ah, misread that.
 
Nope that will not work
 
Not awake enough to be sure about that limit.
I mean, there's certainly a subsequence along which that function is unbounded as $x\to\infty$.
 
conjecture @Semiclassical lies, he's fully awake :d
 
12:43 AM
LOL
 
If ∞ is not part of Z, and odd numbers need a n in Z such that 2n + 1 is the number, then ∞ is not odd
 
A limit converges to $L$ as $x\to x_0$ if $\forall V$ around $L$ there is a $U$ around $x_0$ such that $f(U) \in V$
 
Obviously.
 
@Null I certainly am lying. On my back, because I'm not awake :P
 
If something isn't a part of Z, we wouldn't be talking about its parity anyways
 
12:44 AM
@KajHansen but we're talking about limits
 
can we agree, that if f(x) is 0, then f(x+1) is x+1?
 
idk, I haven't had any context. I just saw that one sentence
 
@fluffy_muffin For commutative rings, I would say obviously yes
 
i mean it's really the same as does -1,1,-1... converge
 
Is ∞ a set of the infinites (e.g. aleph-naught through aleph-w and beyond)?
 
12:46 AM
@G.Bergeron Are you saying that this is an ideal in general? Not sure I follow.
 
Or is it improperly defined
 
@fluffy_muffin THe contrary
 
Ah okay, that makes sense now. I didn't think it was but wanted to verify.
 
@Null no
 
Are there any practical applications of Aleph numbers?
 
12:47 AM
However, it would be an ideal if every element of the ring was idempotent correct?
 
In mathematics, and in particular set theory, the aleph numbers are a sequence of numbers used to represent the cardinality (or size) of infinite sets that can be well-ordered. They are named after the symbol used to denote them, the Hebrew letter aleph ( ℵ {\displaystyle \aleph } ) (though in older mathematics books the letter aleph is often printed upside down by accident, partly because a Monotype matrix for aleph was mistakenly constructed the wrong way up ). The cardinality of the natural numbers is ℵ ...
 
yes
but then it would just be the whole ring...
 
What infinity is the cardinality of $\displaystyle \bigcup_{n=0}^\infty X_n$, where $|X_n| = \aleph_n$?
 
@G.Bergeron to what no? it is an excercise which is similar to -1,1,-1... or not?
(and in the strict sense the above doesnt converge)
 
@Null No its not it is a limit on a function on $\mathbb{R}$
 
12:48 AM
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC analysis is not set theory
by $x \to \infty$ we mean "x grows without bound"
 
@G.Bergeron ah...
thanks for pointing that out
 
@KajHansen I am not getting into that
 
I'm trolling
 
@Null No, the 1,-1,1,-1 both term have the same measure
 
What would happen if I asked a question to prove the Riemann hypothesis? :P
 
12:50 AM
RIP homework tag
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC insta ban
 
In the case from the guy, $0$ is "infinitely more mapped to" than x
 
Something cleverly disguised as the riemann hypothesis
There are tons of equivalent formulations that aren't obvious
 
@KajHansen I know
@KajHansen What is the spectrum of the gaps between the quantum energy levels of extremely large atomic nucleus?
 
what happens to the area of a circle if I square the diameter?
 
12:52 AM
Evaluate $\displaystyle \lim_{\# \mathcal{P} \rightarrow \infty} | \mathcal{P}( \mathcal{P}( \cdots \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}) \cdots ))|$
 
@Null look at the formula for area
 
@KajHansen :D
 
@Null And I put a bounty on it of a million rep?
 
$A = \pi r^2 = \frac{\pi d^2}{4}$
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC if rep points had a monetary value maybe...
 
12:53 AM
Are there interesting constraints when embedding general graphs in n-dimensional manifold
crossing allowed
 
@meow-mix it was really just a troll, but good that you have your facts straight ;)
 
So, am I mistaken with the limit?
 
Can you make friends with only a compass and a straightedge?
9
 
@KajHansen so the powerset of a powerset...?
 
Yes
 
12:56 AM
What is the general solution to the equation $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ with $f$ a function from $\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$?
why?
 
@KajHansen and what means #P->infty? that you do this forever? powersetting forever?
 
They're logarithms @G.Bergeron. I saw a thread on that recently
 
@KajHansen well $|\mathcal{P} (\Bbb N)| = |\Bbb N|$... right?
 
@KajHansen Not necessarily
 
@meow-mix far from it
 
12:57 AM
Oh, but those are only on $\mathbb{R}^+$ @G.Bergeron
my bad
 
still, do not assume continuity...
 
Oh damn it, I was thinking you said $f(xy) = f(x) + f(y)$ as well
 
actually
 
@TedShifrin how did you call the known non convergent series ?
 
@meow-mix a powerset is fing HUGE
 
12:58 AM
ah ok
 
You gave them a number
 
I should just take a break from here for a little while lol
 
uncountably infinite
 
A name*
 
As an instance, could have $f(x)=0$ on the rationals but not on the irrationals.
 
12:58 AM
@Maks so, the pool?
 
Eh, wait, no
 
@noɥʇʎPʎzɐɹC, if you allow a ruler, you'd be surprised what's possible
 
@G.Bergeron Hi ! I had no other choice than to use buckets
I have to fix that pump
 

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