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7:12 PM
peeks in
 
omg
@DavidWheeler
Where have you been bro
 
Well, I had a job offer in Fargo, ND...so I moved
3 days on the road, and then almost a week to find an apartment
 
Wow nice @DavidWheeler
I hope you are happy there
I didn't know anything existed in either of the Dakotas
 
how's the unpacking gone?
 
Well, at the Red River there's an inter-dimensional portal that leads to another plane of existence.
 
7:17 PM
o
 
@Semiclassical Most of the hard stuff is done-there's a few boxes still out in the garage.
 
ah, good
 
I'm rather relieved we're settled in-the extra rental on the U-haul, and the motel was killing me.
Money's gonna be tight until the 5th of May-that's my first "full" paycheck.
 
David !!
omgggg where have you been
 
Hi Karim :)
 
7:20 PM
that's a pain. but i imagine it must have been a solid enough prospect if you were willing to pull up stakes to get there
 
we missed you here
 
It is. the folks at my new job have been great so far.
 
glad to hear it
 
If my girlfriend finds a job soon, it will be an embarrassment of riches.
Well hello to you, too, Pedro.
 
7:24 PM
@PedroTamaroff new avatar is a downgrade imo
 
I don't judge people like that...
de gustibus non est disputandum
 
might i suggest a christ figure instead
 
lol
 
Sangre de Christo!
 
sometimes, i find mathematica annouying:
 
7:27 PM
I knew a South American taxi driver who would mutter that under his breath every time someone cut him off.
 
@Semiclassical You can always switch to Spelletika.
 
if i ask it to fullsimplify a certain expression under the assumption that $t<0$, it refuses to do more than spit back
 
the santa sangre in the title does not refer to that of Christ
 
the chickens', then?
 
no, the holy blood of their patron saint, of course
 
7:29 PM
$$\dfrac{1}{2} t \left(2 \pi i (1 - 2 t) I_0(2t) +
\pi i (-1 + 4 t) I_1(2 t) +
2 (1 - 2 t) K_0(2 t) + (1 - 4 t) K_1(2 t)\right)$$
 
wow, that is morbid
 
great film; I need to watch more Jodorowsky
 
Hello
 
Helllo....ello.....lo....o...
 
but if i plug in an exact $t<0$, then it simplifies it a lot more. for instance, $t=-e$ gives $-e (1 + 2 e) K_0(2 e) + \dfrac{1}{2} e (1 + 4 e) K_1(2e)$
which has the advantage of being manifestly real.
(btw, those are modified bessel functions)
so i'm a little irritated that mathematica apparently refuses to simplify further
 
7:35 PM
mathematica, like any program, only does what it's programmed to do. it's not smart like you.
 
true, but when i say that it 'simplifies a lot more', I mean that mathematica itself is able to simplify it further when i insert an exact $t<0$
 
guys I want to prove that there is infinitely many primes using fermat numbers
I was wondering is this argument good.
 
well it may be able to calculate VALUES of modified Bessel functions, but not know any IDENTITIES.
 
It can probably tell if two things are equal, if you ask it
 
So if some terms can be combined when you expand them, it doesn't know that.
 
7:39 PM
Choose a prime divisor for each of the fermat number since we know each fermat number is relatively prime to the other then we know each of the prime divisors must be distinct and since there is infinitely many fermat numbers then there must be infinitely many primes.
what do you guys think ?
@DavidWheeler?
 
well, i can get mathematica to say "yes, A=B under the Assumption->t<0"
 
@Semiclassical I understand your frustration, you can pick a POINT, and get a simplification, but it putts out with a RANGE.
 
right.
 
but there is a qualitative difference between the two, so it's not surprising.
 
and yet it is able to recognize that the two expressions are the same under that range
if i ask it to evaluate A=B under that assumption
 
7:42 PM
@KarimMansour how do you know there are infinitely many fermat numbers?
 
because we have gcd(Fm,Fn) = 1 for each m and n not equal to each other
 
how does that imply infinitely many "m"?
 
@DavidWheeler!
 
yeah your right
yeah I would have to prove that there is infinitely many fermat numbers first
 
Hey @Balarka
 
7:44 PM
but
 
Long time no see.
 
Yes, I was travelling on a long journey.
 
@DavidWheeler its obvious though isn't it since $F_n$ = $2^{2^n} + 1$ it seems like weird how would I begin to prove it
 
there are infinitely many integers. start with that.
 
@KarimMansour Balarka has the right idea
 
7:45 PM
ah, shame you've given up on monster-avatars @Pedro.
 
@KarimMansour Note how the "difficulty" is buried in the proposition: $\gcd(F_m,F_n) = 1$ for $m \neq n$, which is not self-evident.
 
actually, the infinitude of fermat numbers (not fermat primes) is rather obvious, since $2^{2^n}+1$ is strictly increasing
but i don't see how that helps in proving the infinitude of primes
 
i vaguely recall a proof using Fermat numbers.
it boils down to the gcd thing @David is talking about.
 
well @Semiclassical any fermany number gcd($F_m$,$F_n$) = 1 for m $\neq$ n
 
That is, in fact, true...but why?
 
7:49 PM
assuming that's true, all i see is a statement that any two distinct fermat numbers are coprime
 
i rather prefer the $\zeta(1)/\zeta(2)/\zeta(3)$ proof.
 
the reason that is true
is we have to proof that any $F_i$ can be written in the following way
 
@robjohn I talk too much rubbish, and people don't like it. Bye.
 
$F_i$ = 2 + $F_0*F_1 *....*F_{i - 1}$
 
7:50 PM
@Semiclassical every two fermat number are coprime, there are infinitely many fermat numbers, thus there are infinitely many distinct prime divisors of the fermat numbers, hence there are infinitely many primes
 
Anyone got an idea on how to approach the problem of finding the set of real number k so that the two roots of the quadratic equation x^2 - (5k+3)x + (k+3)^2 = 0 obey x1<4<x2 ?
 
yeah exactly @DavidWheeler
 
@KarimMansour yes, good idea
 
I don't feel like it deserves a full on question
 
and then, yes, that gives another proof of the infinitude of primes
 
7:52 PM
@WillHunting I may not be around all the time, but I've never heard anyone say that.
 
@BalarkaSen: hmm. i'll have to think through that
 
it's an ad-hoc proof.
 
@Semiclassical imagine an argument by contradiction, that we have only finitely many primes, say $k$, and consider the first $k+1$ Fermat numbers.
 
much more useful are the $\zeta(1)$ and reciprocal-of-primes proof.
 
ahh. then how can they possibly be coprime, etc.
 
7:54 PM
[though they are really the same]
@Semiclassical right
 
yeah, $\zeta(1)$ is fun
 
@MikeMiller Is that the place where they make Easter eggs?
 
okay yes so here is the final proof: Since any fermat number is of the form $F_n$ = $2^{2^n} + 1$ it form strictly increasing sequence of integers and since there is infinite integers, so we must have infinitely many fermat numbers. Every two fermat number is coprime, thus there is infinitely many distinct prime divisors for each fermat number, therefore there are infinitely many prime.
what do you guys think ?
 
@Semiclassical i am biased, though, so you don't have to believe me. i once studied a crapload of stuff on $\zeta$, i think i have wrote most of what i studied as a note in some forum that time. @David knows about them.
 
@KarimMansour It's a bit rough verbally, but the main ideas are correct.
 
7:57 PM
especially b/c that approach extends so nicely to other questions.
ugh, so much hate for this connection
 
right, it does.
there is also a $\zeta(2)$ proof ;)
 
and, even if it is cheating, a $\zeta(3)$ proof.
 
@Semiclassical You mean $$\zeta(s) = \prod_{p} \dfrac{1}{1 - p^{-s}}$$?
 
@Semiclassical $\pi^2/6 = \zeta(2) = \prod_p (1-1/p^2)^{-1}$
now use irrationality of $\pi^2$
:P
 
7:58 PM
@DavidWheeler These chickens gave their lives for your din-din
 
hmm, that'd do it
 
@BalarkaSen right, because if only finite primes, the LHS is rational.
 
yeah.
 
@robjohn I almost feel guilty, but then I remember that chickens are free to eat me after I'm dead, as justice.
 
that yields a countable infinity of such proofs, heh, one for each even natural number
 
8:02 PM
Euler was a pretty smart guy.
 
question (nontrivial) : what's the cardinality of the number of proofs, upto proof-homotopy, of infinitude of primes?
 
proof-homotopy?
 
k, now you've lost my interest :P
 
yeah, you can homotope proofs.
 
8:03 PM
@BalarkaSen What are you proving with this?
 
proof using $\zeta(2)$ is proof-homotopic to the proof using $\zeta(2) + 1 - 1$, for example.
@robjohn infinitude of primes, nothing special.
 
@BalarkaSen How would you use $\zeta(3)$? Do we know it is irrational?
 
yes, we know that it's irrational.
thanks to Apery.
 
has the irrationality of any other positive odd integers been proven? i imagine that them all being irrational is still open
 
no, that's open.
that Zudilin guy proved that one of $\zeta(3), \zeta(5), \zeta(11), \zeta(13)$ is irrational, if i recall correctly.
but they couldn't tighten it to three zeta values so they kinda gave up.
 
8:08 PM
there's a discussion of the status of higher zeta constants on Wikipedia here
 
there has been numerous new approaches to solve it, the craziest i heard was constructing a vector space spanned by zeta values and bringing in motivic stuff. sheesh.
 
that they were able to prove that infinitely many of the odd cases are irrational is pretty neat
 
ah, they proved that?
i didn't know.
 
it's mentioned in that link
 
my guess is they will all eventually be proved irrational, and the prover will take his or her place beside Wiles.
 
8:10 PM
indeed, i see it.
 
transcendentality will probably prove much more difficult.
 
it might even be linked to $P \neq NP$
 
hey @Mike
 
speaking of motivic stuff---what the heck is a motive?
 
8:13 PM
dunno.
 
lol
that's what i figured
 
@robjohn Yes, however sacrilegious that might be
 
it doesn't look very motivating (no pun intended)
 
the man with stigmata standing above them is essential to the process
 
yeah. i imagine there are good reasons to pursue that direction, but they're far above my head
 
8:16 PM
@BalarkaSen Oh, that's right; that's what Apéry's Theorem is all about.
 
yep. the proof is very sneaky.
 
@MikeMiller I think worrying about sacrilege went out with the posting of that image ;-)
 
ah well; these things happen
 
@Semiclassical it looks as if it's an "umbrella theory" for homology/cohomology of any algebraic variety-above my head, mostly.
 
yeah. i've glanced at wikipedia's page on it in the past, then shrugged and moved on
 
8:19 PM
the only cohomology theory for algebraic varieties i heard about is etale cohomology
 
is there any value in having a conversation about something everyone here admittedly knows nothing about?
 
nope.
 
depends on how little one knows, i guess
 
we are just doing some journalism.
 
8:21 PM
to me what makes it unproductive isn't that none of us know what a motive is, but that i can't see a reason why i should actually care about it :P
 
that's what they do, converse about stuff they have no idea of.
 
If one knows a destination can be reached, the fact that one does not know the route does not render meaningless talk of the destination.
 
compare that with, say, integrable systems stuff. i'm pretty ignorant there, but at least i know some reasons why i should care about it
 
i don't care about categories at all.
 
8:25 PM
there's lots of stuff to know....asking why one should care about any particular facet of math is akin to asking why one should care about math itself.
 
not if you're trying to do research
 
of course there's going to be stuff that has PERSONAL relevance-you use it in your work, or you're writing a paper, or a book
 
there the question of 'what should i know' is about as important as the question 'what do i know'
 
but my point is, the answer is going to be "user-specific", and not "one size fits all"
 
oh, sure
 
8:28 PM
an actuary might want to know about likelihood tensors-an applied mathematician at CERN, maybe not so much.
i see category theory, for example, in much the same light as topology and analysis-topology grew out of an attempt to "abstract" analysis. some study it IN ORDER to deepen their knowledge of analysis, some study it in its own right
and some don't care for it at all.
personally, i don't care much for the minutae of large-cardinal set theory, but to some people, it's their bread-and-butter.
 
Hi
What is the rank of multiplication matrix, $DX$?
since I didnt get a detailed answer on main for the following question
0
Q: Elaboration needed on a section of a published paper about dictionary learning

GigiliI will be doing my master thesis on dictionary learning, and I am trying to understand basic concepts of the subject reading the following paper: K-SVD: An Algorithm for Designing Overcomplete Dictionaries for Sparse Representation In the following lines there are two conclusions or results...

thank you for your attention
 
8:55 PM
I need to prove the following $x^2 \equiv y^2$ (mod $p^r$) where p is odd prime not dividing x or y
then x $\equiv$ +- (mod $p^r$)
I had $p^r$ | ($x^2$ - $y^2$)
so $p^r$ | (x + y)(x - y) does it imply that $p^r$ | (x + y)$ or $p^r$ | (x - y)$ ?
why ?
 
Not necessarily @Karim, but note that $p|p^r$ and so if it happened that $p^r|(x+y)(x-y)$ then it follows that $p|(x+y)(x-y)$
Only primes have the property that $p|ab\Rightarrow p|a~\text{or}~p|b$
 
I see
 
$p^r$ isn't prime, so that statement you made is invalid
 
I need to reach the conclusion that $x$ $\equiv$ +- y (mod $p^r$)
any hints?
p is odd prime not dividing x or y
 
Suppose $p|(x+y)$ and $p|(x-y)$. Then $p$ divides $x + y + (x - y) = 2x$. Conclusion?
 
9:04 PM
p must be 2
 
how can this be? $p$ is an odd prime.
 
1 moment thinking
 
We know, without a doubt, $p$ divides at least ONE of $x+y$, or $x - y$. Is it possible it divides both?
 
hi @DavidW, @JMoravitz, @Karim
 
Hi @TedShifrin
 
9:07 PM
Hi Ted!
 
if it divide both then that means it must divide x
which isn't possible
 
So, $p$ cannot divide $2x$. Therefore, the and in David's statement is invalid. It follows that either $p|(x+y)$ or $p|(x-y)$ (but not both).
 
by assumption
 
have you moved, @DavidW?
 
G'evenin @ted
 
9:08 PM
@Ted!!
 
@TedShifrin Indeed I have.
 
hi @Balarka
wow, @DavidW ... I hope you'll love the new job and setting
 
@TedShifrin So far, so good.
 
alright but this reach the conclusion the conclusion x = y (mod p) or x = -y(mod p) not mod $p^r$
 
You doing ok as the semester winds to an end, @JMoravitz?
 
9:11 PM
@DavidWheeler ?
@JMoravitz is it your last semester?
 
Now ask yourself, can any of the factors of $p^r$ "split up"?
 
@TedShifrin do you know of a space off the top of your head that has fundamental group $\Bbb Q$ and trivial homotopy group in all other dimensions?
 
@Ted I'd like to think so. I'm still not wholly comfortable with thinking in terms of cohomology, but through poincare duality I can at least see some of whats going on.
@Karim it is my second semester
 
can someone help me with representation theory? i'm totally confused about those weight lattice diagrams. my question is here math.stackexchange.com/questions/1242472/…
 
I think deRham cohomology makes things more concrete, @JMoravitz, and, yes, Poincaré duality is very powerful/important.
 
9:13 PM
you're doing algebraic topology, @JMoravitz?
 
I don't think I even know $\pi_1 = \Bbb Q$.
 
So, does it make sense to factor numbers into prime numbers in Dedekind domains I'm pretty sure are not UFD?
 
@TedShifrin okay. it must be pathological for sure.
 
@DavidWheeler by split you mean that if we have $p^r$ | (x + y)(x - y) does it imply? $p^{r - 1}$ | (x + y)(x - y)?
 
@Balarka I am, though I'm not particularly enjoying it. Combinatorics with Dr. Trotter however has been a joy. He is overly fond of posets however, but that is his specialty so it makes sense.
 
9:16 PM
@JMoravitz: Who's teaching the topology class?
 
@Ted Dr. Etnyre
 
aw, that's too bad. what book have you been following?
 
I mean if we have $p^k|(x+y)$ and $p^{r-k}|(x-y)$ isn't it true that $p$ divides both, unless $k = 0$, or $k = r$?
 
@Balarka Hatcher
 
cool. what in particular don't you enjoy about it?
 
9:17 PM
ah, great topologist, @JMoravitz ... I don't know how great a teacher. One of my former students at UGA did her Ph.D. with him, however.
 
@davidwheeler yes
 
So can we safely concludes either $p^r|(x+y)$ or $p^r|(x-y)$ (but, of course, not both)?
 
@JMoravitz wait a second. that can't possibly be John Etnyre, can it?
 
yes, @Balarka
it's amazing how much American mathematics @Balarka has heard about over there in India ...
 
the postdoctoral fellow who teaches in the uni i visit is a student of John Etnyre.
i knew that name rang a bell
 
9:22 PM
@DavidWheeler I think so I am not entirely sure
 
@TedShifrin mostly through their students.
 
As for what I don't like about my experience in A.T., it probably stems from moving so quickly into using concepts and results before getting a firm grasp on the concepts themselves. I'll admit though, that seems more like a fault of my own rather than of the course, but I would have probably liked to start this course after a bit more work in understanding dualspaces and category theory. It is making me feel a bit inadequate.
 
you don't need that much category theory .. I learned what little I learned taking alg top in grad school, @JMoravitz
 
On the other hand, I feel great in graph theory and analysis classes such as Hilbert Spaces last semester,
 
@DavidWheeler I understand the part that if $p^k$ | (x + y) and p^(r - k) | (x - y) then p divides both
oh okee
 
9:25 PM
i don't even like category theory
 
@DavidWheeler I think I get it now
 
I won't ignore you for that one, @Balarka :P
 
i know you wont ;)
 
@DavidWheeler will write it out and present my argument shortly to see what you think of it 1 moment.
 
i guess i will become a geometric topologist someday. or probably not, as i (yet) know nothing of it.
 
9:27 PM
@Balarka you don't need the "whole" of category theory-you just need to recognize that some information may "transfer" from one setting to another.
 
well, i'll sure study it if i need it.
 
For example, within algebraic structures you could work within universal algebra.
 
but i haven't 'till now.
i just don't see why i should care about it. i'd like to know the connection with algebraic topology though.
hatcher's 2.3 just talks about a bunch of rubbish generalizations.
 
concepts such as "limit", "continuity", and "open" can be extended beyond their typical topological applications, and still make sense.
 
yes, and i don't know why i should care about random generalizations.
ok, bed time.
 
9:30 PM
bed time !
what
 
bedtime? it's early morning!
 
not random...they may not apply to the field you're interested in, but that's OK.
 
it's barely 3 am here, but yeah, it is bed time for today
:P
 
good night, then, sir.
 
good morning, @Balarka
 
9:31 PM
g'night @Ted
and byes.
 
@DavidWheeler So far I have $x^2$ = $y^2$ (mod $p^r$) so $p^r$ | ($x^2 - y^2$) Hence $p^r$ | (x + y)(x - y) since p | r we have p | (x + y)(x - y). Suppose p | (x + y) and p | (x - y) then we must have p | (x + y + x - y) = 2x $\rightarrow$ p | 2x since p is odd prime it doesn't divide 2 so p | x contradiction. hence p | (x + y) or p | (x - y).
but now going back to $p^r$ I am still not entirely sure how can I explain that.
 
$p|p^r$, not $r$
 
yeah p | $p^r$ typo
 
If $p$ only divides one factor, how can any greater power of $p$ divide more than one factor?
Remember $p^r = p\cdot p \cdots p$
All of these factors have to be in just ONE of $x+y$ or $x - y$.
 
9:43 PM
yes yes so I can explain like this for any $p^k$ | (x + y)(x - y) we have p | $p^k$ and since we have p | (x + y)(x - y) then we must have $p^k$ | (x + y) or $p^k$ | (x - y)
is this good ?
?
 
I would say it like so: if $p|(x+y)$ but $p\not\mid (x-y)$, then $p^r|(x^2 - y^2) \implies p^r|(x+y)$ (or else some power of $p$, and thus $p$ itself, would divide $x-y$). The case that $p\not\mid(x+y)$ and $p|(x-y)$ is handled similarly.
 
I see
thank you @DavidWheeler
 
Every factor $p$ of $p^r$ has to divide one of the two, and not even one of these divides both, so all of them go to one factor or the other (of $x^2 - y^2$).
 
yeah makes sense
 
I'm going to take a short nap, now (these things happen when you get older)
 
9:51 PM
you need to excerise more @DavidWheeler
 
don't talk to me about older, DavidW
 
Post a problem you genuinely have no idea how to solve, get downvoted to hell.
blegh
 
Too many people are posting homework problems verbatim.
Make it look different and suggest what sorts of things you might have tried.
 
I will, from now on.
 
where's your post, @JohnDoe?
 
9:57 PM
1
A: The real part of the sum $(i-1)+(i-1)^2+(i-1)^3....+(i-1)^{2013}$?

danimalThis is a geometric series with first term $a=i-1$ and common ratio $r=i-1$. As such, the sum to the 2013th term is: $$S_{2013}={a(1-r^{2013})\over 1-r}={(i-1)\left(1-(i-1)^{2013}\right)\over 1-(i-1)}={(i-1)\left(1-(i-1)^{2013}\right)\over 2-i}$$ The trickiest part is probably the 2013th power, ...

Linked the answer, whoops
 
It's ok. I'm surprised you don't recognize a geometric series.
The other thing is that you're not supposed to put the whole question in the title :P
 
Ah, well, it's a simple enough question that I think it didn't matter if I fit the whole thing
The thing is, I'm trying to get into this elite math high school from the junior year and they are light-years ahead of me in terms of math knowledge.
And I've got this test in June that if I pass, I'll be able to transfer.
And I'm going through the previous years tests' one question by one, each taking half an hour and at least one stackexchange question
 
Well, you need to amass a certain amount of knowledge. Like geometric series is very basic.
 
I'm aware, but for instance, it's nowhere in the book that they use. I assume that in that school most students have got through a bunch of additional classes where they learn stuff like that but I've never had the chance :/
 
That is in a standard "second" algebra class in every high school. At least it sure used to be.
 
10:02 PM
I'm not from the US.
It's definitely not standard here.
 
brb guys I will go run for half a hr and then come back I don't feel too good
 
take care, @Karim
 
been sitting on my ass for past 3 weeks now for exams @TedShifrin
 
I thought the US was behind most other countries, not ahead.
3
 
thank you @TedShifrin I will be back in 1 hr
 
10:04 PM
I wouldn't say we're behind US in maths, if you looked at the average knowledge of our student and compared it to someone in USA.
Either way, I've no idea where to amass this kind of knowledge.
 
I suspect that particular topic has shown up in a number of their previous test problems.
 
Probably.
I need to find a professor
 
 
1 hour later…
11:12 PM
Huge attendance in the chat, but no one posting? Peculiar indeed.
 
/shrug
 
11:25 PM
Hai
I have nothing to say
Bye
 
11:36 PM
back
 
back
So
$[a,b]$ is compact
I guess
Uh...
Let $F$ be a covering
Why not
I like the letter $F$
And... let $x$ be $\inf\{X:[a,x]\text{ isn't compact}\}$
Wait, no
...yeah
Maybe
Let $x$ be $\inf\{X:[a,x]\text{ has no finite subcovering of }F\}$
Yeah
So, two possibilities
$x$ is in $\{X:[a,x]\text{ has no finite subcovering of }F\}$ or not
(Note that the $\inf$ of the empty set is $\infty$... but I'll let it be $b$ here because we're just talking about subsets of $[a,b]$)
(Not sure if it matters)
Let's say $x$ is in $\{X:[a,x]\text{ has no finite subcovering of }F\}$
So, for every $[a,y]$ where $y<x$, there is a finite subcovering
'cause $x$ is the inf
And, because $F$ is a covering, there is an open set containing $x$
Call it $U$
and because it's open, there is a $y<x$ in $U$
So...
So $[a,x]\subset[a,y]\cup U$
And $[a,y]$ has a finite subcovering
So just add $U$ to the finite subcovering
and its still finite
which contradicts where I said that $[a,x]$ has no finite subcovering
Uh...
Other case
$x$ is not in $\{X:[a,x]\text{ has no finite subcovering of }F\}$
But $x=\inf\{X:[a,x]\text{ has no finite subcovering of }F\}$
So... $[a,x]$ has a finite subcovering. Call the open set containing $x$ $U$.
And $U$ contains a $y>x$.
So $[a,y]$ also has a finite subcovering, 'cause it's just the same subcovering as $[a,x]$
But this contradicts where I said that $x$ is the inf of that set. 'Cause that means every $[a,y]$ with $y>x$ has no finite subcovering
So...
That means that $\{X:[a,x]\text{ has no finite subcovering of }F\}$ has to be the empty set
Which means that $[a,b]$ has a finite subcovering of $F$
And 'cause that works for every $F$, that means that $[a,b]$ is compact
woooooo, I win
 
11:58 PM
I see you're working on the Collatz Conjecture, @colombus ?
 
What's that
 
I was just proving that $[a,b]$ is compact
Wait, isn't that the $3x+1$ conjecture?
 

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