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12:00 AM
Which is still very different from Russian, mind. But very close, too.
@Cerberus I am talking pronunciation, not meaning.
 
Yes, Dutch tj is quite different from German tj.
 
You pronounce all your consonants like you have a hot potato in your mouth.
 
The Dutch does indeed sound a bit Slavic.
Like English cha.
 
Right so anyway. For the fourth time I'm trying to finish up this one simple example.
 
Heh.
 
12:01 AM
11 mins ago, by RegDwigнt
You have the root for "drive", езд, and you have the prefix for "in", and you want to combine them.
 
So you want to keep the y- sound.
But do you want the n to be soft or hard?
 
And so if you simply did в + езд, "v" + "yezd", you'd get везд, "vezd" rather than "vyezd".
So you need something in-between.
 
(But the v would be soft.)
 
That can be either the soft sign or the hard sign. Either would do the job. But one would keep the consonant hard, and the other make it soft.
 
I understand that.
 
12:03 AM
In this case you have a hard consonant, and you just want to keep that, and so you use the hard sign.
 
OK.
 
And so you get въезд
Now.
Back to our original original question.
How do we transliterate that into English.
 
And when would you want to keep a soft consonant but add /j/ from the vowel?
Right.
 
@Cerberus basically same situation. When you already have the consonant be soft, and already have the J in the vowel because they occur at the borders of their respective morphemes.
Anyway.
Actually in Russian there used to be no hard sign, only the soft sign, and for the hard sign you'd use the apostrophe.
в'езд.
They still do that in Ukrainian to this day.
But again, why not have more letters.
So now you have all those letters that in English just map to a y. The ы, the й, the ь and the ъ.
So въезд would be vyezd? Or vyyezd, even?
 
@RegDwigнt (So a word or morpheme can end on a soft vowel?)
 
12:07 AM
Problem is, now you could also read that as выезд, say.
 
@RegDwigнt Good to know.
So weird apostrophes mean it's Ukrainian.
 
Stop interrupting. I want to go to bed!
 
(So why translitterate the hard sign as y?)
OK OK.
 
Problem is, выезд actually is a word in Russian, and it means the opposite thing. Exit. Drive-out.
@Cerberus you have to transliterate it as something. And since it makes the consonant soft, and that is a superscript /j/ in IPA, that's what people use. The y.
Again, Tanya, Sonya.
There is no /j/ sound there.
The y represents not a glide but a palatalization.
But when you write it out, people read it back all wrong.
 
@RegDwigнt The hard sign makes a consonant soft?
 
12:10 AM
No.
I can't keep up with the minutiae of your zwischenfragen.
 
3 mins ago, by RegDwigнt
So now you have all those letters that in English just map to a y. The ы, the й, the ь and the ъ.
 
But you get the general drift, I am hoping.
 
The hard sign maps to y?
 
In some standards, yes.
 
Yes, I get it.
But why?
 
12:11 AM
As I said, in mine I just generally drop everything.
 
Y sounds like the opposite of hard.
 
Who cares how Rus is pronounced in Russian. It's just a label for a thing.
And so I just write Rus.
As indeed do many others.
 
Right.
 
And now I have to run.
 
One needs to strike a balance between precision and practicality.
 
12:12 AM
I forgot my laundry in the cellar like five hours ago.
And my bro will be at the door in a matter of hours. It needs to get dry until then.
 
(Still confused why some people would render the hard sign as y, but, oh, well.)
Bai!
 
Not to mention the salad.
 
Good luck.
 
Actually I will mention the salad.
 
So I've noticed.
 
12:13 AM
Because the name of the salad is оливье.
 
Hah.
 
And there you have it again.
 
Olive?
 
NOOOOOOO
 
I mean, the meaning.
 
12:13 AM
or are you trolling me on purpose now.
 
Not the translitteration.
 
Olivier.
 
Ahh.
 
Not Olive, not Oliver. Olivier. French once again.
 
I see a soft consonant and a ye sound.
 
12:14 AM
Just like the "-vier" is pronounced in French.
Not how it's pronounced in German, though.
 
I gathered.
 
But that'S a subject for another night.
ПУФ!
 
@RegDwigнt So without the soft sign, it would be soft v + e, without the required /j/ sound.
Bai!
 
 
1 hour later…
1:19 AM
@Cerberus No phi in po-russki, only ef.
 
I know.
 
Jul 18 '11 at 20:29, by Robusto
I once drove through Kansas, north to south, at night. There was a full moon and I was in a convertible, and eventually to keep from falling asleep I switched off the headlights and drove by moonlight. True story.
So obviously I've been there.
@Cerberus Are there any double-phi words in Greek?
Jul 18 '11 at 20:28, by Robusto
Nobody really lives in Kansas, either. Not really.
I mean, you don't call that living, per se.
On the plus side, Kansas just elected a woman Democrat governor. So maybe they're on the road to recovery.
@cornbread has to be kind of stoked about that.
Even though she lives in the next state over, which went stupid.
 
@Robusto No, I don't believe that would be possible.
They would probably write pi phi if the phi had to be doubled.
 
@Cerberus Why would it "have" to be doubled?
 
I think it is a spelling rule that one cannot write the same aspirated letter twice in a row.
I'm not sure why.
Because one can write two different aspirated letters in a row, like phi theta.
Sappho (; Aeolic Greek Ψαπφώ Psapphô; c. 630 – c. 570 BC) was an archaic Greek poet from the island of Lesbos. Sappho is known for her lyric poetry, written to be sung while accompanied by a lyre. Most of Sappho's poetry is now lost, and what is extant has survived only in fragmentary form, except for one complete poem: the "Ode to Aphrodite". As well as lyric poetry, ancient commentators claimed that Sappho wrote elegiac and iambic poetry. Three epigrams attributed to Sappho are extant, but these are actually Hellenistic imitations of Sappho's style. Little is known of Sappho's life. She was from...
 
1:29 AM
Was the phi aspirated more than English f?
 
I think pi phi just indicated a "lengthened" phi, but it isn't phi phi.
@Robusto Yes: I would say English f is not aspirated at all, while phi is /pʰ/.
So a p with an attached h sound.
 
So the lips come together with phi, like a plosive?
 
Just as theta was /tʰ/ and chi /kʰ/.
@Robusto Exactly.
 
So how would Sappho's name lengthen that? More air?
 
In later (postclassical?) Greek, phi came to be pronounced like f.
@Robusto Good question: I'm not entirely sure whether we are certain, but I believe it's more like a short pause between the preceding vowel and the plosive.
 
1:32 AM
Sounds difficult to produce in ordinary speech.
 
The pause lengthens the syllable (though a plosive can indeed not be literally lengthened).
@Robusto Well, Italian also has double plosives that don't change the quality of the preceding vowel.
 
I wonder if all "difficult" sounds in languages eventually erode to slacker diction.
 
I once did an experiment with an Italian friend, where he would say the ga- bit of gato and gatto, and I was supposed to tell which word it was the beginning of. And I think we believed the difference was that tt just indicated that there was to be a short pause before the /t/ sound.
@Robusto That is a common tendency.
But what is considered difficult changes: for those 'difficult' sounds must have once been new and hence not difficult.
Assuming people don't naturally introduce new sounds that are considered difficult in the language.
Difficult sounds can come from foreign languages, though.
Or they can be the result of morpheme boundaries touching, probably.
 
@Cerberus That's kinda what happens in Japanese. kata vs. -katta, the first t in the latter represents an empty syllable. In 食べなかった ("did not eat") that hole is indicated by the small tsu.
 
Right!
 
1:42 AM
Interesting.
 
In Dutch (and to some degree in English), double consonants only indicate a qualitative change in the preceding vowel—the consonant itself doesn't sound longer.
A pot is a pot; a paw is a poot.
 
@Cerberus I was just about to say that.
 
Two pots is potten, paws is poten.
Which is kind of a consequence of how we pronounce the vowel differently when it's an open syllable.
It's pot-ten, but po-ten.
 
Is a potten all rotten
Or just misbegotten?
Or is it because
Your poten is paws?
 
And po (open syllable) has an o with a different sound than the o in pot (closed syllable). The open o sounds the same as oo (which, by the way, is different from English o).
Hah.
Though the numbers do look weird in your little poem!
 
1:46 AM
Dutch seems like what happened when English and German had a baby.
@Cerberus What numbers?
 
"A potten".
 
It's still only a single word.
Yes. Ironically, English is now the lingua franca! — Robusto 52 secs ago
 
All the Robusto are right.
 
As always.
@Cerberus Actually, the plural of Robusto is Robusteaux.
So it all works out. Phonetically, anyway.
 
haven't logged in for a long time.. but just saw this:
best thing since sliced bread I love it, that's the spirit!
 
2:02 AM
GOP Jesus:
 
haha
 
@Robusto Ah, so each one of your multiple personalities is a Robustel or Robustal?
@Gary I agree!
 
@Cerberus Mais oui !
 
@Robusto Hah.
 
 
1 hour later…
3:15 AM
-1
A: Use of "Some" when referring to quantities

wilimayzeNo, it is not a good style at all. In fact, the two clauses do not logically belong together (is the sentence that they form about sources of protein or the fishing industry?), unless that sentence happens to be the only text contained in whatever it is you read.

This answer is insane and should be burned with fire.
 
-1
 
@Cerberus Look at the comments too.
When confronted with facts, he doubles down on his delusion.
 
3:36 AM
I noticed.
 
4:25 AM
@KannE Thanks :)
@KannE Thanks
 
4:47 AM
@Robusto I reluctantly put in an answer to 'fix' that. Will it be downvoted for being GR...or something else (IYO)? Thank you.
@hbtpoprock You're welcome. Enjoy your weekend.
 
5:14 AM
@KannE Btw, is "What's the name of the girl who won the tennis tournament?" = "What's the name of the girl won the tennis tournament?" please?
But somehow I don't think it is correct. Hahaha
 
No, that is not correct indeed.
 
Can you help me review my post? I wonder whether I need to add something more to it?
1
Q: Omitting relative pronoun?

hbtpoprockWe can omit relative pronoun when: The relative clause is non-defining clause, and the pronoun is the subject of the relative clause with the verb "be" (NOT verb to be). My mother, who is an excellent cook, is thinking of opening a restaurant. My mother, an excellent cook, is t...

By the way, it's on ELL.
@Cerberus ..
 
 
2 hours later…
7:29 AM
[ SmokeDetector | MS ] Url in title, bad keyword in body, bad keyword in title, blacklisted website in body, blacklisted website in title, +2 more (492): amazonhealthstore.com/where-to-buy-praltrix-za/ by jharleschen on english.SE
 
 
2 hours later…
9:06 AM
Can anyone tell me whether we can omit this sentence please?
"Clare, **who is** working with me, is doing the London marathon this year."
Could it be "Clare, working with me, is doing the London marathon this year." instead?
 
 
4 hours later…
1:26 PM
@hbtpoprock No, they're not the same. The first one is correct. You can't omit who in this case because the verb is won (not winning). Review Reducing Relative Clauses again, and if it's still unclear to you, I will do my best to explain it in clearer detail. Have a good day.
In case you can't find our prior messages, here is the link again: writingcenter.unc.edu/relative-clauses.
 
1:51 PM
@hbtpoprock There's always nuance.
"Clare, working with me, is doing the London marathon this year." There is a problem with this but i don't think it is grammatical.
"Clare, working with me, is training for the London marathon this year." sounds perfetly fine to me.
 
@hbtpoprock I know, it gets more and more complicated, doesn't it? While the following statement (found in the source linked above) is true (Subject pronouns with “be” verbs can be deleted in non-restrictive clauses.), in this case the verb--is working--is not just a "be" verb (such as is), so to speak. I hope that makes sense. I will search for a source that states that more accurately or explicitly.
 
 
1 hour later…
3:45 PM
@Mitch, I upvoted your answer (re: some) because it was good and, BTW, gave me a chance to comment on the style side of it in a totally opinionated way (without searching references...ah, freedom).
But, I deleted and reentered my comment about 10 times (which could mean 20) because I'm very slow at editing, and I was wondering...
When I do that, do all the versions stay on your message cue (or whatever it's called)?
 
 
2 hours later…
5:47 PM
@KannE 1) only one item in my mag list for the message no indication of # of edits.
 
 
1 hour later…
7:13 PM
2) you can use some hard returns so when people want to reply to a particular idea, you can know which one rather than to an entire paragraph with many ideas.
3) I upvoted yours because it was not clear exactly what the OP was referring to or if they understood the meaning of 'some' there
 
7:48 PM
@KannE If two of you could take a look at my summary in the post, it would be very appreciated :)
0
A: Omissions of relative pronouns

chasly from UK What's the name of the girl who was winning the tennis tournament? It can also be omitted into: What's the name of the girl winning the tennis tournament? I disagree. The last sentence means, "What's the name of the girl who is currently winning the tennis tournament?" In other words...

@Mitch ..
 
@Mitch I meant queue, but it's called a mag list, huh. Thanks for checking. I don't want to fill up people's lists with edits. I can't edit in those little boxes, and not all at once either.
@Mitch I don't like hard returns because I can't follow a conversation quickly enough...so I assume other people can't either, ha-ha. Anyway, I usually don't know what everyone has said until an hour or so later.
*what all everyone has said
@Mitch Yes, I don't know, but the other answer called for another one...just any other one, I thought.
 
8:52 PM
@hbtpoprock Wow, that is so long. It almost seems like you're trying to cover an entire topic instead of ask a question. I did see a few problems. Maybe we can take them one example at a time.
 
@KannE you follow the links. The links go directly from topic to response to direct response and so on. Makes so much more sense.
@KannE oh definitely, that one answer is crap
 
9:09 PM
@hbtpoprock yeah, that's a lot to process.
Yeah, exactly what is the question?
(I kind of disagree with some of the 'CORRECT/NOT CORRECT's that you gave.
 
@Mitch Of course...any normal person should be able to follow the links in a reasonable amount of time. With age, comes the realization...that you're never going to be normal in some ways, not too many hopefully.
 
with age comes cheese
 
@Mitch It's like...what's the problem? Would a comma before the and clear all this up for you? I didn't get it.
 
haha..commas
sigh
 
9:30 PM
@Mitch I'm going to take a break right now (my son brought me some spicy ribs...so it's an emergency). But, I do think we're losing some important stuff in translation, for example, the difference between subject pronouns and object pronouns...and grouping the rules for omitting them all together instead of separating them based on whether they apply to restrictive or non-restrictive clauses as they should be.
Oops, I sent that to Mitch by mistake.
@Mitch I wrote you a long message and sent it to Mitch by mistake. See it above.
Dang, what is wrong with me?
@hbtpoprock I sent your messages to Mitch twice (my ribs are distracting me). I'm sorry; see messages above. I will try to help ASAP.
 
9:56 PM
So...New feed items..."problem in grammar--english.stackexchange.com"...so I clicked the dismiss button, but you're all still here...
 
10:24 PM
First tip: In your first example...
Instead of "the verb be" (which means just "be"), it should state "a "be" verb" (such as the verbs: is, are, was, were).
Using this Markdown Syntax or whatever sucks...
Let me try again.
Instead of--the verb "be"--it should state--a "be" verb.
I don't know how to italicize and quote at the same time.
I guess it doesn't come up much in real grammar.
 

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