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10:00 PM
It may have been fabricated by English teens, or by Dutch teens based on the English word wow.
 
Did you see I granted your friend the Bounty?
 
Great.
I don't know him well btw.
 
I know.
 
Just hold him in high esteem, like Alex and Kosmo.
For combining communicative and scientific virtues.
 
I really like wow and yay for being two of the very few words that have a triphthong, and nothing else.
It is interesting that they are exclamations.
 
10:01 PM
Few?
Ah.
Fire.
Prayer.
 
None of those have triphthongs, let alone not having anything else.
F is not a vowel.
 
Maybe not prayer.
Fire has a triphthong?
 
user19161
Ladies and gentlemen, I announce that I have changed my steelblue to dodgerblue. Enjoy the new colour!
 
American phoneticians reject the notion that a schwa is a glide.
 
@JasonBourne Shocking!
 
10:03 PM
That is /fai(j)@/.
 
What is @?
 
Schwa. Sorry.
 
And yay...I don't know...
A diphthong for me.
 
But all those purported triphthongs are not considered such except by British people. It does not make sense with anything I was taught when I took phonetics and phonology in America or Spain.
 
The context "in American English" was not apparent to me.
 
10:05 PM
It doesn’t matter.
It is not American English.
It is that American phoneticists consider the British idea that those are triphthongs to be in error.
 
I could see how wow might be triphthongal, but OED says diphthong.
 
A triphthong has a principal vowel with both an onset glide and an offset glide.
 
user19161
@tchrist Do you mean principal?
 
Yes.
 
So how would you transcribe yay if you prefer to consider it a triphthong?
What are the three vocalic sounds?
 
10:07 PM
A diphthong has a main vowel, which forms the syllabic center, and a glide either fore or aft but not both.
Wow has the same sound on both sides of the a.
 
How is a glide defined?
 
It is not just the same letter. It is the same sound.
Here, a glide is one of either /j/ or /w/.
That is, a semi-consonant or semi-vowel.
 
I'm not sure that's how I learned the definition of a diphthong.
It is true that all diphthongs are as you say in Greek and Latin.
 
And Spanish and Italian.
A diphthong can only be a single syllable.
Same for a triphthong.
So help me God I for the first time in fucking life want autocompletion in typing English. I hate those words.
 
Ai, au, ei, eu, êi, êu, oi, ou, ôi, ôu (rare). But no diphthongs or triphthongs can be made starting with a glide, nor with /i/ or /y/ / /u/.
 
10:11 PM
Ah.
Well, that is the thing.
 
@tchrist I hear you!
 
user19161
I use autocompletion only for names like @MετάEd because I can't ping him otherwise.
 
user19161
@Cerberus Do you hear me too?
 
@JasonBourne Were you saying "diphthong" and "triphthong"?
 
I talked to a Portuguese phonetician once, and she explained that some people only considered falling dippies to be such, that the rising ones “didn’t count” in their notebooks.
 
user19161
10:12 PM
I think we should all do away with the funny characters in usernames. It makes the site look so stupid! Anyone agrees?
 
Yes.
Always have.
 
*agree
 
A capital and no weird characters.
Perhaps unless they used in some sublime way that trumps all rules.
When I type "dipthong", it is auto-corrected.
 
@Cerberus This Wikepedia paragraph and table are very readable and coherent.
 
user19161
It all started with ELU first birthday. Then it stuck.
 
10:14 PM
I think it started in protest against TPTB.
A sign of solidarity.
 
Really?
 
I think so.
 
I never understood it, I confess, but that is an interesting datum.
 
user19161
No, I think it was for fun mostly.
 
It coincides with the aftermath of the crisis.
 
10:15 PM
Notice that Spanish has six falling and eight rising dippies. The reason they define it this way has to do with syllable counting for poetry.
 
user19161
@tchrist Dippies? I saw that as nipples.
 
The question is, why do we even treat diphthongs as a special category? Why not treat them as simple additions of /e/ and /w/?
 
If you have something in hiatus when it would normally be a dippy, you have to write it specially. So Mario has two syllables with /jo/ in the second one, whereas María has three syllables and no dippy.
 
/marija/?
 
I bet I could write a program to assign a typeability metric to any English word based on the QWERTY keyboard.
Just /ma'ri.a/, actually.
 
10:18 PM
Depends on your notation, probably, but I clearly hear a glide after /i/.
 
It is tough but possible to find minimal pairs where the /j/ matters.
 
user19161
Did someone mention Maria? HAHAHAHAHA
 
I know what you mean. I am not completely convinced it is not there.
 
Pronounce mariiiiiiiiia as when you're singing in an opera.
You clearly hear ma-ri-ja.
I think children sometimes write Marija or Marieja.
 
user19161
@cerb should know why I laugh at Maria.
 
10:19 PM
@JasonBourne does
 
They oughtn’t. :(
 
Why not?
The j is there.
 
I don’t think so. But I am not sure.
 
If you say "Marie, ja" it sounds almost the same as "Maria".
 
If it is there, it is in a million other places.
dijalogue.
 
10:21 PM
@tchrist Yes, and millions of /w/ too.
Ave Maharihihi-ja.
 
Not to my ear.
Latin has pure vowels.
 
You are not conditioned to hear it.
 
They do not autodip.
As English’s do.
 
And it is insignificant, so most languages rarely write these j's and w's.
 
Pijano.
 
10:22 PM
A syllable has to start with something. It can't start with a vocalic sound.
 
Sure it can.
Consider neon.
Or peon.
 
/pijæno/ in English, no? The difference between pjano and piano is hard to tell in many languages.
Nejon.
 
user19161
@matt I am actually starting to like CentOS now...
 
/'pjano/ has two syllables, but /pi'ano/ has three.
 
The OED just doesn't note /j/ between vowels because it is not phonemic in any way.
 
user19161
10:25 PM
By the way, it is pronounced as cent O S, not cen toss.
 
@JasonBourne jolly good. I've not tried it
 
@tchrist Yes, and yet it is often hard to hear the difference. Cf /'kcomprəbl/ v. /"komprə'bəl/.
Dictionary IPA does not claim to be complete.
I think it only renders phonemes?
In Dutch, otherwise you would need at least four notations for every word containing an r!
 
Ok, I thought of an easy one.
You know how most Spanish speakers pronounce <ll> as /j/ not /ʎ/ now, right?
Well, there is a minimal pair between two common words calle /'kaje/ ‘street’ and cae /'ka.e/ ‘falls’.
And no, that never becomes monosyllabic /kai/ or /kaj/.
So that shows that it is possible to transition between one vowel in one syllable to another hiatial vowel in the next syllable without there being a glide between them.
The problem is that in English, we do not have pure vowels, so our <o> becomes /ou/ which you might consider /ow/, and our <e> becomes /ei/, which you might consider /ej/.
Well, except in meh.
 
@tchrist I don't believe it. There are phonological rules for contraction beyond the mere local sound.
 
But that is not “real” English.
Can’t you say cae without a /j/?
I certainly can.
 
10:35 PM
With a and e, usually another sound ir produced, I believe, more like h.
Somewhere in between j and h, I'd say.
 
Then you are saying it wrong. :)
Or you are speaking English. :)
 
And you can pronounce j weakly or strongly. So all sorts of variations and differentiations are possible.
 
Or French.
Hence cayenne.
 
@tchrist They are pronouncing strong j instead of what I would call weak j or j-h.
 
But I swear to you that in Italian, Spanish, and Portuguese, those things do not happen. There are minimal pairs.
 
10:37 PM
We are talking past each other, I think.
If a j is realised, it is certainly not realised as strongly after a as after i.
 
So hey there, me boyo! Certainly you have no trippy there.
 
The place or articulation for the intermediary sound between two vowels depends mostly on that of the first vowel, I believe.
 
I cannot imagine this j-after-i thing.
That is an impure system.
 
So i=>j, but u=>w.
With other vowels, I think it's something in between u/j/h. Not sure what to call it.
That's why i/j and u/w are called semi-vowels.
In certain contexts/disciplines.
They alternate between vowel, consonant, and both. Or something in between.
 
Boy is /boɪ/, and boyo is /'boɪ.oʊ/.
If you really want to write the semi-vowels as semi-consonants, nothing changes except your notion of a dippy.
/boj/ and /'bojow/.
Or something weird like that.
 
10:42 PM
In boy, you might write /boɪj/...but we have no approximate notation for whatever the transition between o and ɪ sounds like.
 
But to me, that is actually wrong, because I can say a bo-yo word that has /'bojoʊ/ instead of /'boɪ.oʊ/. Can’t you?
And those sound different to me, too.
 
like yo-yo vs yoy-oh
 
I can say /boɪjo/ v. /bojo/.
 
@MattЭллен Exactly.
I think you are making up the /j/. I thought only Germans did that.
 
I can't leave out the /j/ sound.
 
10:44 PM
v.s.
 
@MattЭллен /jojo/ v. /joɪjo/.
 
So you want to spell it /boj/ then, fine. Many people will be confused by your notation, but fine.
 
As I said, dictionary notation is phonemic.
There are so many ways to write IPA.
The intervocalic j and w I mentioned are not phonemic, and hence usually not written.
 
My other idea is that there is no /j/ between my and other.
Nobody writes it that way.
Not even in phonetic transcriptions.
But you are welcome to try to cite a source that does that.
For English.
Because I am making it easy on you.
“Day in, day out.” No /j/ there.
 
10:55 PM
@MattЭллен My, what big ears you have, Grandmother!
 
all the better to eat you with. secretly all the orifices are mouths.
 
Yes, I clearly hear a j-like sound in day in and my other.
Mind you, I never said this sound was always as strong as phonemic /j/.
 
@Cerberus I know this is not English, but if you pronounce Spanish veo (< ver < L. videre) is though it were veio (/vejo/) people are really going to look at you weird. It is possible to go from /e/ to /o/ without passing through /j/. There is no fundamental impediment that exists in all languages. You are just too used to Germanic diphthongization / offglides / dippiness. In a language with a tighter articulation like Italian or Spanish, it is anything but inevitable.
Germanic languages have loose articulation. Romance, tight; even French is medium. The looseness must be what you are perceiving.
 
Remember also that I said the intervocalic sound depends on the first vowel: after /i/, it is clearly /j/-like, but not so after other vowels.
 
@tchrist That is not the same thing.
 
11:01 PM
After /e/, it is much less /j/-like.
 
To get from /a/ to /i/, you need either a /j/ or a glottal stop.
 
Maybe I mean lax articulation. I forget the dominant terminology.
 
More /h/-like, as I said above.
@DavidWallace Or something /h/-ish.
@tchrist Of course veo doesn't sound exactly like /vejo/.
You need to be very precise here. No sloppiness allowed!
I would clearly distinguish veo from /vejo/.
But how about veo v. veho?
I think those are somewhat close.
 
Veo is irrelevant.
 
Irrelevant with respect to what?
 
11:06 PM
Very precise? Very well, if you insist. Spanish has no /v/. You need to write that as /ˈβ̞e̞o̞/ except at the beginning of an utterance or after /n/ or /l/, in which case it becomes /ˈbe̞o̞/. In any event, there is no hint of /j/ or you are doing it wrong.
We can move on to Deo if you would prefer.
Latinate Deo is never day-o.
It just does not work that way.
 
Deo and veo are equally relevant.
 
It marks you as a dumb gringo. Every choral instructor will box your ears for mispronouncing Deo.
Which proves that there need be no /j/ between /e/ and /o/.
 
@tchrist You need to be precise in what you claim and what you challenge, because I smell straw here, despite my double correction of what you ascribed to me.
I even made them bold for you, but to no avail.
 
@Cerberus You said that there must be a /j/ or a /w/ between any two vowels in hiatus. I dispute that.
 
I did not say that.
 
11:09 PM
Or an /h/ or a glottal. Doesn’t matter. There need be no glide or other separator.
That is the point I am arguing against.
If you did not say it, then do you concede it?
 
Or something in between. And you keep accusing me of pronouncing a full, phonemic j in veo, which is simply ridiculous.
 
@tchrist If he had said that, I would have contradicted him, instead of you.
@Cerberus Veylight come and me wanna go home.
 
Haha what. That is from some song, isn't it?
Something African.
I only half remember it.
 
I do not believe there needs to be something between vowels in hiatus. Otherwise, they are not vowels in hiatus.
 
The latter is my position.
 
11:11 PM
Rather, they are either dippies or separated by some consonant.
Let us consider coöperate.
No fake consonant between those two vowels.
 
Probably something in between h and w.
It's very hard to become conscious of these sounds.
 
It may be very hard for you to stop doing it. You surely have a loose articulation. These things happen there.
 
Just as some people fail to comprehend that and starts with a glottal stop. "No, it starts with a vowel! There is no stop. I don't hear it. It simply isn't true."
 
Cowoperating.
 
@tchrist Excuse me?
There is nothing wrong with my articulation.
 
11:14 PM
And does not normally begin with a glottal stop.
 
By bones are tightly joined.
 
It does at the beginning of an utterance of course, since the glottis is out of combat.
 
Of an utterance? I would not go so far.
 
Anybody who puts a glottal stop between things like face and hair is trying way too hard. It is not natural.
 
Again, straw.
This is going nowhere.
 
11:16 PM
You said and began with a glottal stop.
Prove it.
 
Ask a question on Linguistics if you are truly interested.
You knew what I meant about and.
I don't feel that I need to state the obvious.
 
No, I knew what you said.
If you meant something else, you should have said something else.
 
That is not how language works.
What can be reasonably assumed does not require explication.
 
15 mins ago, by Cerberus
You need to be very precise here. No sloppiness allowed!
Et tu.
 
I was precise enough.
 
11:18 PM
Clearly not. We have an existence proof to the contrary.
I would rather return to trippies: way, yow, why (if you merge w–wh).
 
You know very well that nobody in his right mind would claim that the glottal stop is heard in hair and face. You know why I mentioned and: to give an example of a phenomenon where many people fail to consciously hear what is apparent to linguists.
 
You seem to know me better than I do. And you are wrong.
 
So of course this excludes liaison, where there is no glottal stop.
Common knowledge.
 
11:35 PM
@MετάEd You are not going to believe this, but Lawler has invented a new way of superquoting things.
 
He uses quotation blocks for captions?
 
Yes!
 
Odd. But...it kind of works?
 
He is not quoting someone else.
I am not complaining. I am noting. Apparently, our Lawler-scale was incorrectly top-bounded.
It is inventive.
What I do not understand is why our double-quote-blocking is so lame on ELU.
I mean, starting with two arrows: >> blah.
Very subtle change. Too subtle.
 
How does that work?
Never seen/tried that.
 
11:44 PM
Oh, go try it in a sample box.
 
God, the Bible is boring.
And badly written.
Classical literature was on a level so much higher than this.
Not all of it, of course.
 
Sequihuh?
 
What?
 
Where did that come from?
And you should try the Canticum Canticorum. It isn’t so bad.
Does this have to do with quoting? Were you double-quoting (so to speak) some Biblical passage?
Sequihuh? = How the heck does what you just said follow from anything?
@Cerberus You should probably fix your posting within the grace period: there is no book of Revelations in the plural.
> Book of the Revelation of Saint John the Divine
> Book of the Revelation of Jesus Christ
Something like that. Or just Revelation.
The author of the work provided no title for it. However, a title came into usage from the first word of the book in Koine Greek: apokalypsis, meaning "unveiling" or "revelation".
It is also known as the Book of the Revelation of Saint John the Divine or the Apocalypse of John (both in reference to its author), or the Book of the Revelation of Jesus Christ (in reference to its opening line), or simply Revelation (often erroneously called Revelations in contrast to the singular in the original Koine), or the Apocalypse.
 
@tchrist So it comes from sequor?
@tchrist Ah yes.
 
11:59 PM
@Cerberus Yes, it is a way of saying non sequitur and huh all at once, with a stiff eau de WTF wafting about.
 
But there is no non...
 

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