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00:23
I couldn't have said it better. @RuneHaugseng, I owe you an email.
 
1 hour later…
01:35
So I heard many times pepole claim that "the experts believe the telescope conjecture to be false" and I aware of the paper by Mahowald, Ravenel and Shick, which give some computational reason. But I was still wondering:

1) looking at the paper it seems the objection is that the telescope conjecture will force many "a-priory-unexpected" differentials, but other then being unexpected a-priory if I really want to believe the conjecture is there any thing so weird about them a posteriori?

2) Is there another\more conceptual reason to be a telesceptic?
01:49
So: there are two ways to describe open subsets of an affine derived scheme Spec R (where R is a E∞ ring): 1. (let's just call these "open subsets") maps Spec S → Spec R that induce a fully faithful Mod(S) → Mod(R); 2. (let's call these "quasicompact open subsets") maps Spec S → Spec R that induce a fully faithful Perf(S) → Perf(R). Now the telescope conjecture for Spec R says that any open subset is quasicompact open.
By the thick subcategory theorem, the quasicompact opens of Spec of the p-local sphere are classified: they're Spec of the telescopic localizations. If the telescope conjecture is true, these are all the opens. If it is false, then for each n, we have a quasicompact open, a sort of "maximally non-quasicompact" open, and potentially a whole bunch of stuff in between.
(I'm not sure that "quasicompact" is really the right word. Let me see if I can think of something more intelligent.)
02:04
@ClarkBarwick: So the point is, that we think that the sphere spectrum should be very non-noetherian?
02:15
If we disbelieve the telescope conjecture, I guess so!
(I suppose "perfect open" would be a better expression than "quasicompact open.")
Clark, what you wrote makes me more of a believer then a sceptic , why would the sphere spectrum be so badly behaved?
02:34
Well, it is terribly non-regular.
02:48
I'm not trying to turn you into a telebeliever. I'm in no position to contradict the telescepticism of my computational overlords. But here's something else strange. The best thing we've got to understand Spec(S^0) is Spec(MU), which is a torsor over Spec(S^0) for the flat group scheme Spec(S[BU]). But the telescope conjecture is true for Spec(MU). So inverse image of any open under Spec(MU) → Spec(S^0) is perfect in the sense above.
03:07
(I bet I'm going to get something backwards in the following. Sorry.) So we have Spec S_{E(n)} ⊂ Spec S_{T(n)} ⊂ Spec S^0, where S_{E(n)} is the E(n)-localization and S_{T(n)} is the T(n)-localization. (And if L is any smashing localization with LK(n) = K(n) and LK(n+1)=0, then Spec S_{E(n)} ⊂ Spec LS ⊂ Spec S_{T(n)}.)
I think I'm right in saying that under p: Spec(MU) → Spec(S^0), the image of the inverse image of Spec S_{T(n)} must be contained in Spec S_{E(n)}. The telesceptic who thinks that all of these open sets should "count" might find this uncomfortable, since p is meant to be a kind of quotient map.
 
13 hours later…
16:38
So (and I'm worried that I'm hogging the airwaves to talk to myself here) ... I think the argument I gave implies that the telesceptic must accept one of the following about the nature of DAG: (1) the Zariski topology in DAG should consist of only perfect open sets; or (2) the map p is not really a quotient map in DAG after all. Personally, I think that (2) is a psychologically worse state of affairs.
 
1 hour later…
17:43
@Clark: not really related to your main point, but i like this definition of open sets. if f : R -> S is an ordinary map of ordinary commutative rings, what does it mean for the induced functor Mod(S) -> Mod(R) to be fully faithful? i think this holds if f is a quotient or a localization...?
17:56
If by "Mod" you mean the derived category of (homologically) bounded below complexes (what the algebraic geometers sometimes call D^-), then this is precisely the same as being a Zariski open immersion: applying the equivalence f* f⁎ ≃ id to S gives you that S ⊗_R S ≃ S, and the cotangent complex is L_{S/R} ≃ S ⊗_R L_{S/R} ≃ L_{S ⊗_R S/S} ≃ 0. So Spec S → Spec R is an étale monomorphism, hence an open immersion.
 
2 hours later…
20:07
@ClarkBarwick Thanks!!
20:17
@Clark: ah, interesting. so if by Mod I mean the usual abelian category of modules, then instead I get S \otimes_R S = S where the tensor product is underived, and that's precisely the condition that f : R -> S is an epimorphism, hence Spec S -> Spec R is a monomorphism, not necessarily étale
21:09
@PiotrPstrągowski this is exactly what i was looking for, thanks so much!! sorry for the late reply.
@QiaochuYuan Yes indeed.
@SeanTilson factorization homology defines a bifunctor $\mathrm{Mfld}_n \times \mathrm{Alg}_n(C) \to C$. i'd be willing to believe that it might not define a "homology theory for rings" in the sense of TAQ being the universal such, though -- is that what you're referring to?

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