@HerrFeinmann no, it was my mistake. I misread your statement. I wanted to emphasize that you really need the thermodynamic limit (which you've correctly said)
@ACuriousMind they are poor blackbodies, but they can still emit BBR; just like stars, as you mentioned. As mentioned earlier, the reason for the brightness of soot, is that it is 1) denser 2) has a yellow emission line. The emission line is more important, just as how sodium lamps have bright yellow light even though that is clearly gaseous in density. The effect is that it is concentrating a lot of the energy that would otherwise have had to be spread across the spectrum, to just one colour
your example is fine I'd say (presumably concerning the ideal gas), though not really applicable I think. As far as I understood the question, it really concerns (classical equilibrium) thermodynamics only, no?
$\delta_{A}B=[A,B]$ so $B$ is $A$-closed if the commutator vanishes and $C:=\delta_A B$ is $A$-exact. Exact implies closed trivially by $d^2=0$. If I want to prove it at the level of commutators we have to use Jacobi's identity.
So I am thinking: is there a relation between Jacobi's identity of commutators and $d^2=0$ which is Bianchi identity?
nvm. Found this. But I hope Jacobi's id has some geometrical significance like Bianchi's which is boundary of a boundary is nothin
@NairitSahoo What are you talking about? $\delta_A^2 \neq 0$ for arbitrary $A$, it is extremely easy to find counterexamples where $[A,[A,B]] \neq 0$. All Jacobi gives you for that is that it is equal to $-[A,[B,A]]$.
@NairitSahoo Why does what happen? Your $\delta_A$ and the exterior derivative $\mathrm{d}$ are completely different operators on completely different spaces, what do you think they have to do with each other?
why would it have been nilpotent? You can't just randomly denote some operation as $\delta$ and because that vaguely looks like a $d$ assume it's nilpotent :P
finally getting the hang of lattice stuff in categories
The big issue was apparently that the category people tend to not be too clear when they're talking about the category itself versus the category of subobjects
and since the category of subobjects is a poset the terminology is very different
@imbAF May I give you an advice concerning your questions on the main site? You should really put more work into formatting. This includes using the "double dollar" (instead of the single one) $$ as a Math environment for important equations; but also to use properly the quote function, and to use some highlighting (not too much) with bold and italic fonts. Many of your posts are also rather long, and I think they can be shorten.
I really just wanted to give you that advice, from my experience with the site. Do with that whatever you want.
@TobiasFünke Thank you for the suggestion. I will keep it in mind, the next time I post something, to make my thread more appealing to read by others. Put more effort into the visuals so to speak
@DIRAC1930 It's a bad translation: "Pfaffian form" is a German term for a 1-form, cf. de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffsche_Form, i.e. he just means that that expression is a 1-form.
Does the adjoint representation "commute" with other representations? For example, is it true that $\text{Ad}_{\pi(g)} \pi_(X) = \pi_ (\text{Ad}_{g} X)$ where $\pi:G \to GL(V)$ is a Lie group representation and $\pi_*: \mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{gl}(V)$ is the induced Lie algebra representation.
oops ignore
Does the adjoint representation "commute" with other representations? For example, is it true that $\text{Ad}_{\pi(g)} \pi_\star(X) = \pi_\star (\text{Ad}_{g} X)$ where $\pi:G \to GL(V)$ is a Lie group representation and $\pi_\star: \mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{gl}(V)$ is the induced Lie algebra representation.
$\text{Ad}_{\pi(g)} \pi(X) = \pi(\text{Ad}_{g} X)$ where $\pi:G \to GL(V)$ is a Lie group representation and $\pi_*: \mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{gl}(V)$ is the induced Lie algebra representation (ftfy @SillyGoose)
If mirrors “absorb” the photons and then “emit” them after a random interval, wouldn’t the resulting light wave be destructively interfering with itself?
When it comes to calculating S-matrix elements in QFT, is this way of representing the matrix element, a general case that is valid for whatever process we consider:
$\langle f|\hat{S}|i\rangle$. $\hat{S}=1+iT$, T is transition matrix. Then:
The teacher went through the theory on how to find the density of states of a quantum particule on a $d$-dimensional box of side $L$, spin $J$ and hamiltonian $H=\alpha |\vec{p}|^s$ where $\alpha, s$ are positive constants. But he then used the volume of an hypersphere of radius $R$ to find the n...
I'll also never understand why so many people have problems to put the relevant information into the question. They either post nothing or put way too much. lol
todays confusion is about color centers. in ashmerm they introduce the idea of color centers and say that their presence imparts a strong color to an otherwise transparent crystal. i dont understand how this can be. tmu, the reason a crystal is transparent has to do with the resonance of the incident waves with the transitions in the material, so the fact that these defects have a spectrum doesnt explain to me why we see color from these in an otherwise transparent crystal?
there's some interesting philosophy here too bc some people think in words, but i think in images, so it can be very hard to translate this into a question
but what I mean is that I see soooo many posts about what happens in a lecture, for example, and then no relevant information is given (which course, notation explained, derivation steps etc.) it is often just "I did not understand why my teacher did X"...
@HerrFeinmann to some degree yes. To be successful in academia (which is not necessarily the same as "doing good science"), one also has to identify knowledge/research gaps and asking relevant questions
I think maybe I have something slightly off, because in the position basis $\langle x \lvert 0 \rangle \langle 0 \lvert x' \rangle = \delta(x) \delta(x')$
@HerrFeinmann yeah as I've said. It is hard to give the right amount of information, and it is especially hard if one understands little of the topic one asks about. I agree
@SillyGoose The question is what exactly you mean here with linear operator at all. What should be the action on vectors/wave function?
@HerrFeinmann hehe good job. great. enjoy the pleasure of success!
If you want to define an operator (no rigor here at all on this level) as e.g. $\delta: \psi\mapsto \delta_\psi$, where $\delta_\psi(x):=(\delta \psi)(x)= \delta(x) \psi(0)$, then one could write $\delta=|x\rangle\langle 0|$ or so. Is that what you want?
i think the delta potential is used in textbook QM, and i thought this would furnish an example. but i am not sure if it is a good example because im not sure what the delta potential is in abstract formalism (not in position basis)
Back when I hadn't realized what it was (and when I didn't understand the difference between $H$ and $\mathfrak{H}$), I didn't know how to read it. Sometimes I would joke about that with my friends and call it "horse"
okay so i guess the delta potential might look like $(\int_{\mathbb{R}} dx \lvert x \rangle \langle x \lvert) - \lvert 0 \rangle \langle 0 \lvert$ then?
Which is heuristically $\mathbb{I} - \lvert 0 \rangle \langle 0 \lvert$
no wait, I think my above example (the first) was wrong. You are right, it should be something like $|0\rangle\langle 0|$. Indeed, accepting $\langle x|y\rangle=\delta(x-y)$, then $\langle x|0\rangle=\delta(x)$. So defining $\delta:=|0\rangle\langle 0|$ gives $\delta |\psi\rangle=\langle 0|\psi\rangle |0\rangle$ and thus $\langle x|\delta |\psi\rangle= \delta(x) \psi(0)$, which corresponds to multiplying the wave function by the Dirac delta
I still don't understand what you are aiming for :d but right now it seems that the "operator" you propose is indeed a good choice, since it corresponds to multiplication with the Dirac delta in position space, as far as I can see
i am trying to see if one can describe a potential-induced obstruction of the wave function as instead a space-induced obstruction of the wave function
i.e. if i can interconvert between a potential term and an effective space on which the theory is taking place
intuitively, if $|\phi\rangle$ is a very narrow Gaussian centered at $0$ in position space, then approximately $|\phi\rangle\langle \phi|\psi\rangle \approx \psi(0) |\phi\rangle$. Does that make sense?
okay I think this is a sketch of a proof that this Hamiltonian obstructs the system having any nonzero component of some arbitrary state $\lvert g \rangle$. In particular, this can be (in the position basis) a gaussian centered at $x = 0$.
so long as $\lvert g \rangle$ is not an eigenstate of $\hat{p}^2$
I only just started writing answers so I'm a bit new to it. is there any way to get feedback why people didn't like something or presumably thought it was wrong?
but in my experience this does not help in most situations. anyone caring for constructive feedback (if it is worth to spend time writing a comment) will leave a comment with suggestions/critique etc.
I mean now we could simply check all your questions/answers to find out what you mean...
so you can just post it; at least from a practical POV... again, I don't know the rules. But in worst case a mod (presumably ACM) will just delete the message, no?
the coordinates we mathematically use are just "labels", that can change and live on a curved surface.
There is something that other answers, I feel, have not stressed:
You, the observer, are always locally in a little tiny patch of Minkowski spacetime. So you are free to pick, for your own lab...
Ok. As far as I can see, you neither made use of the infinite-dimensionality of the space under consideration nor of the specific form of the Hamiltonian, correct?
Here is a small $2\times 2$ counter example. Let $A:=\mathrm{diag}(1,-1)$, and consider $v:=(1,1)$ to construct the hermitian rank-one update $R:=vv^T$ (a matrix with every entry equal to one). For the vector $x=(1+\sqrt 2,1)$ it holds that $Rx=v \langle v,x\rangle\neq 0$, but $x$ is an eigenvector of $A+R$.
.. and $v$ is not an eigenvector of $A$: $Av=(1,-1)$
All I want to point out is that your very first result seemed way too strong. (ofc I might be wrong, so feel free to correct me)
also your second or new result (?) does not hold: We have $\langle v,Av\rangle=0$, but $1+E\neq 0$, where $E=1+\sqrt 2$ is the eigenvalue associated to $x$. --did I misunderstand anything here?
A simple (but perhaps relatively useless) condition is this: Write $H=H_0-R$, with $H_0$ hermitian and $R=|v\rangle\langle v|$. Then if $Hx=Ex$ for non-zero $x$, it necessarily holds that $(H_0-E)x=Rx$, and if $E$ is not an eigenvalue of $H_0$ then $x=(E-H_0)^{-1}Rx = \langle v,x\rangle (E-H_0)^{-1}|v\rangle$.
From that, you can e.g. conclude: a) it must hold that $\langle v,x\rangle\neq 0$ and b) that $1=\langle v|(E-H_0)^{-1}|v\rangle$.
In general, if $\langle v,x\rangle=0$, then ofc. $(E,x)$ is an eigenpair of $H$ iff it is an eigenpair of $H_0$.
I hope I did not do any mistakes, I leave it you to double check if you think it seems interesting :p
lol I messed up with bra-ket notation haha; I hope it is still clear
and with some minus signs... but ok, you get the point
BTW, the (minus sign corrected) result should follow from the matrix determinant lemma. As I said: It is a well-studied --yet extremely useful-- topic.
indeed, you made a mistake (?) in drawing the correct conclusion from (1a) (assuming this equation is correct); from 1a it simply follows that $g^T (E+p^2/2m)^{-1} g=-1/\lambda$. It is exactly what I've derived above (modulo my minus sign typo)
@TobiasFünke i wanted to answer the question: Given a Hamiltonian $H$ on Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ that obstructs the system from occupying a fixed state $\lvert g \rangle \in \mathcal{H}$ as in $\langle g \lvert \psi \rangle = 0$ for all physical $\lvert \psi \rangle$, is there a dual description in terms of restricting the corresponding classical configuration space, e.g., from $\mathbb{R}^3$ to $\mathbb{R}^3 \backslash\{p_1, p_2, ...\}$
i am not sure. i think the statement is necessarily false if talking about eigenstates of Hamiltonian. because the eigenstates of the Hamiltonian (if hermitian) should span $\mathcal{H}$, so it would not seem possible for a state $\lvert g \rangle \in \mathcal{H}$ to be excluded from being occupied; i.e., generically if $\lvert g \rangle \in \mathcal{H}$ there exists a linear combination of energy eigenstates that has non-zero $\lvert g \rangle$ component.
exactly this is what I'd have pointed out now. $\langle g,\psi_n\rangle=0$ for all $n$ implies $g=0$, this holds for any Hilbert space and orthonormal basis (independent of the dimension of the (separable) complex Hilbert space)
well before you proceed, you first have to define what you mean with "physical states", i.e. define a suitable subset of states and so on... my two cents
@TobiasFünke Also, I am thinking that the conclusion i came to that you wrote down here is a bit strange. it seems to place major constraints on $m, \lambda$, and $E$ since the ExpVal of $\hat{p}^2$ should be positive. I am wondering if I did something wrong then.
@SillyGoose nono, your conclusion above (about $g$) is totally correct. If you have an orthonormal system $(e_n)_n$ in a complex (separable) Hilbert space, then it is a basis if and only if $\langle e_n,x\rangle=0$ for all $n$ implies $x=0$.
@SillyGoose No. I am quite sure that the result I posted is correct (except for the minus sign). Yes, of course you should expect non-trivial constraints for generic Hamiltonians/vectors $g$
"The Unreasonable Effectiveness of Mathematics in the Natural Sciences" is a 1960 article written by the physicist Eugene Wigner, published in Communication in Pure and Applied Mathematics. In it, Wigner observes that a theoretical physics's mathematical structure often points the way to further advances in that theory and to empirical predictions. Mathematical theories often have predictive power in describing nature.
== Observations and arguments ==
Wigner argues that mathematical concepts have applicability far beyond the context in which they were originally developed. He writes: "It ...
there is also a Wiki page, apparently
@LeakyNun I mean, one could, perhaps, argue that this or that experiment suggests so (that linear algebra might be a suitable framework to formulate a theory). But I think historically this is not how QM grew. For example, Heisenberg did not even know matrices, but still developed what is nowadays known as "matrix mechanics".