@TobiasFünke I am. Yes I know what I asked is QM. Is that in what I am doing rn in condensed matter theory is QM, while theoretical particle physics is where QFT is present
In mathematics, specifically in the calculus of variations, a variation δf of a function f can be concentrated on an arbitrarily small interval, but not a single point.
Accordingly, the necessary condition of extremum (functional derivative equal zero) appears in a weak formulation (variational form) integrated with an arbitrary function δf. The fundamental lemma of the calculus of variations is typically used to transform this weak formulation into the strong formulation (differential equation), free of the integration with arbitrary function. The proof usually exploits the possibility to choose...
The question I posed had to do with the functional of a wave function $E(|\psi\rangle)=\frac{\langle \psi|H|\psi\rangle}{\langle \psi|\psi\rangle}$ @TobiasFünke
@Slereah as usual: physicist often get away with discussing the finitedimensional/discrete case, i.e. directional derivatives, and then generalize. no?
@Relativisticcucumber the expression there doesn't really make a lot of sense without more context - what exactly are you varying here? The $\delta$ is a notation that hides a lot of context. What might be meant here is that the integral is a functional of $f$, $I[f] = \int f$, and you vary $f\mapsto f + \delta f$. Then, of course, you have that $\delta I = I[f+\delta f] - I[f] = \int \delta f$ since integration is linear.
@Relativisticcucumber In preparing the lecture I have consulted the following books: G. Grosso and G. P. Parravicini, Solid state physics J. M. Ziman, Principles of the theory of solids J. M. Ziman, Electrons and phonons P. G. deGennes, Superconductivity of metals and alloys
@TobiasFünke It's something I could only find in an italian book about relativity and later on a book about CoV. Let me check if I can find a question I asked in the past
@ACuriousMind hm. well im working out a derivation of the hartree equations via $\delta \langle H \rangle$ and so i have written the problem as $\delta [\langle H \rangle - \varepsilon_i(-1+\int dr \psi^* \psi)] = 0$. When i plug in my expression for \langle H \rangle, i get that i would have the hartree equation if i say that the integral in the expectation value and the variation "undo eachother" but this doenst seem great to me
The context is related to this question. For example, in that case you should take the unconstrained action, find the E-L equation and then impose the normalization. If you start from the already constrained actions things don't work
@TobiasFünke Incidentally, the book that I found useful in describing this thing was Analytical Mechanics for Relativity and Quantum Mechanics by Oliver Davis Johns. Chapter 16 and I think also chapter 5 was useful. It's been a long time
Have you tried to just vary with respect to $\psi_i^*$? This should be do-able, i.e. it is standard textbook stuff. There shouldn't arise too complicated problems.
Some lore: I had been searching for a book discussing this point for months, probably over a year and I was on the bus, still desperate to find something. My phone battery was quite low and eventually I found this book in the list of references of a page on libretext. I managed to save the name of the book while I still had 4% and then, after securing the kill (FPS jargon; not a killer yet), I used the rest of the battery to search the book, I think.
anyway, the problem is probably that you're not pulling the $\delta$ "through" the integral; if you aren't comfortable with how the $\delta$ behaves as an operator, try computing it from the definition I used above: You have a functional $E[\psi]$, and you vary to get $E[\psi + \delta \psi]$. The $\delta E$ you want to compute is the difference of these two terms, throwing away everything that's more than first order in $\delta \psi$
I recently had to learn about Hartree vs Hartree-Fock with Feynman diagrams
Hartree-Fock neglects the correlations for more particles GF: via the Wick theorem you have that correlation functions are just sum of products of (dressed) propagators but there is no "genuine" more particle term, if I understand correctly. On the other hand, Hartree is just the usual mean-field approximation, that neglects a diagram in the one-loop self-energy, but in some cases it turns out to be a better approximation
@ACuriousMind exactly. let me add: everything is just like directional derivatives here in the end. so if you are fine with this concept, functional derivatives should not cause too much trouble.
@Relativisticcucumber I think you would have $\delta \langle H \rangle[\psi] = \alpha \frac{\partial \langle H \rangle}{\partial \psi} \delta \psi$ where $\alpha$ is the parameter you're using to vary the argument of the functional.